300+ TOP SAP BO Interview Questions and Answers

SAP BO Interview Questions for freshers experienced :-

1. Explain the role of SAP BusinessObjects (BO) as a graphical reporting tool?

SAP BusinessObjects (BO) is a graphical reporting tool that performs various types of reports for different clients and customers, providing a perfect format for making business decisions.

2. What is the function of SAP BO?

SAP BO functions as a reporting tool that does not hold any data but rather structures reports from data stored in database experts like SAP, BW, SAP HANA, and others.

3. What is SAP BO?

SAP Business Objects is a business intelligence (BI) platform that provides tools and solutions for data analysis, reporting, and visualization.

4. What is the different products related to Business Objects.

There are various kinds of products related to business objects, and they are

  1. User module
  2. Designer
  3. Supervisor
  4. Auditor
  5. Set Analyzer
  6. Info View
  7. Business Objects – Software Development – Kit
  8. Broadcast Agent

5. What is Designer ?

The designer is a module related to Business Objects IS used by the designers for creating and maintaining universes. Universes can be considered as a semantic layer that can isolate the end users from the various issues that are technical and related to the structure of the database. Universe designers have the possibility for distributing the universes to the end users after moving these as a file through the system of files or can be done by exporting the files to the repository.

6. List out the kinds of users associated with business objects.

Different kinds of users associated with the business object are

  • General supervisor
  • Supervisor
  • Graphical Interface
  • Designer
  • Supervisor Designer
  • End User
  • Versatile User

7. What is the advantages of using business objects.

There are many advantages in making use of business objects, and they are

  • User friendliness
  • Familiar business terms
  • Graphical interface
  • Deployment of documents on an enterprise basis by making use of WebI
  • Dragging and dropping
  • Powerful reports for a lesser amount of time.

8. What are the various data sources available?

Business objects help you in accessing the data from a variety of sources. You have the possibility of obtaining data from RDBMS like Oracle, MS SQL server and IBM DB2.

9. Explain the kinds of data providers?

There are various kinds of data providers available for the business objects, and they are

  • Stored procedures
  • Queries over universe
  • Freehand – SQL
  • VBA procedures
  • SAP
  • OLAP servers
  • Personal data files

10. Define the drill mode.

Drill is a kind of analysis mode associated with business objects and helps in breaking down data as well as in viewing data from all the possible angles and the levels of detail for discovering the factor that has caused a good or a bad result.

11. What is a personal connection?

A personal connection can be created only by a single user, and it can’t be made used by others. The details regarding such a connection can be usually stored inside PDAC.LSI file.

12. What is Shared connection?

This is a kind of connection that is usually used by another user via a server which is a shared one. The details regarding the connection can be stored within the SDAC>LSI file which can be found within the installation folder of the business objects.

13. What is a secured connection?

Secured connection is a kind of connection that can be helpful in overcoming the various limitations associated with the former connections. The rights related to this kind of connection can be set over documents as well as objects. Universes can be brought inside the central repository only by making use of the secured connection. The parameters regarding these connection care usually saved inside CMS.

14. Define custom hierarchies?

The custom hierarchies can be used for defining the universe for facilitating drill down that is customized and can happen between objects from different or same classes considering the user requirements.

15. How can custom Hierarchies be created?

The custom hierarchies can be created by following the path tools ->hierarchies in BO designer.

16. Define a context in the universe.

Context can be defined as the particular path of the join between a specific group of joins or the tables for the purpose of a particular query. A particular object that can be found inside the column of a table, belonging to particular context is supposed to be compatible with all the various kinds of objects belonging to the same context. In the case of objects that are from the various kinds of context, different kinds of SQL can be generated, and the results can be merged inside the micro cube. This is for making sure that there is no incorrect result associated with a loop or any other kind of issue related with join path.

17. How can Contexts be created?

Context can be created by making use of feature associated with context or by manual procedures. The context is usually created by making use of logical calculation or based on the business requirements. The detect context may not be much useful in this case and so it should be done by making use of the manual procedure.

18. Define a Chasm Trap.

Chasm trap is a condition that arises when the values inside the fact table get inflated at the time of measuring the values from two different fact tables by considering the dimensions inside the dimension table.

19. How can Chasm Trap be solved?

Chasm trap should be solved by making use of two different methods.

In the case of SQL parameters in the universe, the option generates numerous queries for each and every measure that needs to be chosen. This helps in generating a SQL statement for every measure and gives the correct results.
Another approach is to include two joints in different contexts, where the problem will get solved by generating two synchronized queries.

20. What are the utilities of Derived tables?

Using SQL queries from the database level, Derived tables are created in the universe. The columns of the derived table will be the columns selected in the query. Derived table can be used in the complex calculations which are difficult to be achieved in the report levels. Using a dblink, tables can be accessed from a different schema, is another use of derived tables.

21. Define User Objects.

User objects are a universe of classes and objects which is created by the universe designer. Once the objects consisted of the universe does not match your necessities, then the user can create his own objects called User objects.

22. List out the @functions.

The @functions are:

  • @Aggregate_Aware
  • @Script
  • @Select
  • @Variable
  • @where
  • @Prompt

23. What is the use of @functions?

The @prompt function asks the end user to enter any specific values. The Visual Basics for applications macro’s results will be recovered by using @Script function. An existing statements SELECT statement can be re-used by using @Select function. For a name or variable, the value assigned to it will be referenced using @Variable. An existing object’s where clause can be re-used by @Where functions.

24. How many Domains are there in Business Objects? What are they?

There are three Domains in Business Objects and they are:

  1. Security
  2. Document
  3. Universe

25. How to access one derived table from another?

Using @Derived_table function, we can access one derived table from another. The syntax is:

@derived_table(the derived table name)

26. What is Slice in Business Objects.

Slice works with the master or detail reports and it is used to rename, reset and delete the blocks.

27. Differentiate Dice and Slice.

Slice: It renames, reset and delete the blocks. It works with the master/detail report.
Dice: It displays the data and removes the data. It turns the crosstabs and tables into charts and vice versa.

28. What is a master/detail report?

Large blocks of data can be split into sections by using master/detail report. Repeating values can be avoided by using this and also the subtotals can be displayed.

29. What is a class.

The class can be defined as a collection of objects in a universe. Subclasses can be derived from classes and using these classes and the subclasses, we can create a hierarchy.

30. How many approaches are there for linking universes?

There are three approaches available for linking the universes and they are:

  • The Kernal approach.
  • The Master approach.
  • The Component approach.

31. What is data mining?

Data mining is the process through which you can extract the required details from the database, which can be made used for making conclusions.

32. List out the available Drill modes.

Drill mode helps to analyze data from different angles and different state of details. The available Drill modes are;

  • Drill up.
  • Drill down.
  • Drill by.
  • Drill through.

33. What is aggregate_awarness.

when we have the same fact tables in different grains, we use the aggregate_awarness function to define one object for measures in fact tables. The syntax is as

@aggregate_aware(highest_level.lower level)

34. What is the term fan trap?

A one to many join, links to a table which respond with another one to many join links is called fan trap.

35. What is Data provider.

The query or the data source is called as the data provider.

36. When we use a context?

Context is created when the dimension objects are present in one or both fact tables.

37. What is the standard mode?

Only the users within the group can be accessed in this mode.

38. List out the schemas supported by Business Objects Designer.

There are five different schemas supported by Business Objects designer and they are:

  • star schema.
  • Snowflake Schema
  • Multistar Schema
  • Normalized production schema.
  • Data warehouse with aggregates.

39. What is a Channel?

Channel is a website with ‘push’ technology. It is to make the users know up-to-date information. Each and every Business Objects channel will be associated with a broadcast agent, who can have several channels.

40. What are the restrictions over user objects?

User objects are not shared with other end users. It is stored in a specific user object definition file. So if any end-user tries to refresh or edit the query contains another user’s user object, it will be automatically cleaned and removed.

41. List out the tasks of universe designer.

The tasks consist of,

  • Designing the universe.
  • Creating the universe.
  • Maintaining the universe.
  • Distributing the universe

42. List out the main components of the designer interface.

The main components it consists of are:

  1. The table browser.
  2. The structure pane.
  3. The universe pane.

43. What do you mean by report bursting?

To maintain the version documents according to the user profiles, we use report bursting.

44. What is WEBI.

Web intelligence is a solution that is specialized in supporting decisions related to queries, reports, and analysis.

45. Abbreviation of DSS is?

Decision Support Systems.

46. Define strategies.

To automatically extract structural information from a database or from a flat file we use a script known as strategy.

47. Define the universe.

It is a set of objects and classes. These objects and classes will be intended for an application or a group of users.

48. Define secured mode.

Secured mode restricts the access of specific users over specific commands.

49. What is Drill by?

Using drill by we can move to other hierarchy and analyze the other data, which belongs to another hierarchy.

50. What is a list of values?

It is a file which contains the data values associated with an object.

51. Define Data Services components.
Data Services includes the following standard components:

  • Designer
  • Repository
  • Job Server
  • Engines
  • Access Server
  • Adapters
  • Real-time Services
  • Address Server
  • Cleansing Packages, Dictionaries, andDirectories
  • Management Console

52. What are the steps included in Data integration process?

  • Stage data in an operational datastore, data warehouse, or data mart.
  • Update staged data in batch or real-time modes.
  • Create a single environment for developing, testing, and deploying the entire data integration platform.
  • Manage a single metadata repository to capture the relationships between different extraction and access methods and provide integrated lineage and impact analysis.

53. Define the terms Job, Workflow, and Dataflow.

  • A job is the smallest unit of work that you can schedule independently for execution.
  • A work flow defines the decision-making process for executing data flows.
  • Data flows extract, transform, and load data. Everything having to do with data, including reading sources, transforming data, and loading targets, occurs inside a data flow.

54. What is the use of Case Transform?
Use the Case transform to simplify branch logic in data flows by consolidating case or decision-making logic into one transform. The transform allows you to split a data set into smaller sets based on logical branches.

55. What must you define in order to audit a data flow?

You must define audit points and audit rules when you want to audit a data flow.

56. List some factors for PERFORMANCE TUNING in data services?
The following sections describe ways you can adjust Data Integrator performance:

  • Source-based performance options
  • Using array fetch size
  • Caching data
  • Join ordering
  • Minimizing extracted data
  • Target-based performance options
  • Loading method and rows per commit
  • Staging tables to speed up auto-correct loads
  • Job design performance options
  • Improving throughput
  • Maximizing the number of pushed-down operations
  • Minimizing data type conversion
  • Minimizing locale conversion
  • Improving Informix repository performance

57. What are Cleansing Packages?
These are packages that enhance the ability of Data Cleanse to accurately process various forms of global data by including language-specific reference data and parsing rules.

58. What is Data Cleanse?
The Data Cleanse transform identifies and isolates specific parts of mixed data, and standardizes your data based on information stored in the parsing dictionary, business rules defined in the rule file, and expressions defined in the pattern file.

59. What is the difference between Dictionary and Directory?

Directories provide information on addresses from postal authorities. Dictionary files are used to identify, parse, and standardize data such as names, titles, and firm data.

60. Give some examples of how data can be enhanced through the data cleanse transform, and describe the benefit of those enhancements.

  • Enhancement Benefit
  • Determine gender distributions and target
  • Gender Codes marketing campaigns
  • Provide fields for improving matching
  • Match Standards results

61. What are the kinds of modes associated with designer and business objects?

There are especially two different kinds of modes associated with these platforms, they are

  1. Enterprise mode
  2. Workgroup mode

62. List out the various kinds of methods related to multidimensional analysis that is inside business objects.

There are two different methods related to multidimensional analysis available inside BO and these methods are

  • Slice & Dice
  • Drill down

63. What is the function of promotion management in the business objects platform?

Promotion management is used for object migration between different environments, such as development, QA, and production environments.

64. What is the role of the CMC and UMT in the business objects platform?

The CMC and UMT are located in the SAP business intelligence platform, which is used in version 4.The CMC homepage allows users to access the tools from anywhere, with the only restriction being that the BOE server should be accessible from that environment.

The UMT is used to upgrade previous deployments to the newer version of the BIPLAC form.

65. What is the function of the CCM in the business objects platform?

The CCM is a tool that allows users to manage local and remote servers through graphical user interfaces or command line. It also allows for the creation and configuration of nodes, start or stop web application servers, and configure network parameters such as secure socket layer encryption.

These features are available under the central configuration manager and should be accessible to the Business Objects Administrator (BO) to successfully manage the BO server.

66. What are some of the tools involved in Business Objects and Business Intelligence (BI)?

Some of the tools involved in Business Objects and Business Intelligence include data warehousing, architectural overview, semantic layer, web intelligence, cluster reports designer, dashboard design tool, live office reporting, import wizard, publishing wizard, Wijer, and security implementation.

67. What is the role of data warehousing in Business Objects and BI?

Data warehousing involves understanding OLTP, OLAP, and OLAP systems, and reporting tools cover basic SQL-like joins, cardinalities, views, and daytime functions.

68. What is the function of the semantic layer in Business Objects and BI?

The semantic layer is a university design tool that lies between data sources and reporting tools, used to build runtime views and define relationships between tables required for report building.

69. What is the role of web intelligence in Business Objects and BI?

Web intelligence is a web-based reporting tool that generates graphs in the form of slash files and can export output in the form of channels.

70. What is the function of the dashboard design tool in Business Objects and BI?

The dashboard design tool generates summarized-level data and can be used to publish queries as a web service.

SAP BO FAQ Questions with Answers Pdf Download

Dr. NTRUHS MSc Nursing Entrance Exam Paper (IMP)

MSc Nursing Entrance Exam Paper

1.  The study of distribution and determinants of the disease is called

  1. Epidemiology
  2. Entomology
  3. Pathology
  4. Community

Answer: Epidemiology
2.  The scientific method of study of the human population is

  1. Anthropology
  2. Demography
  3. Ecology
  4. Sociology 

Answer: Demography
3.  Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation?

  1. Phenylbutazone
  2. Aspirin
  3. Ibuprofen
  4. Piroxicam

Answer: Phenylbutazone
4.  The union of ovum and sperm is known as

  1. Folification
  2. Fertilization
  3. Placentation
  4. Ovulation

Answer: Fertilization
5.  The nurse makes that the diet consumed by PEM child is rich in

  1. Protein, carbohydrates, and vitamins
  2. Micronutrient
  3. Water-soluble vitamins
  4. Fats and vitamins

Answer: Protein, carbohydrates, and vitamins
6. The position of the patient during the immediate postoperative period of tonsillectomy surgery is

  1. Sim’s position
  2. Prone position
  3. Lateral position
  4. Rose position

Answer: Lateral position
7.  Ortolani is a test performed to find out

  1. Fractures
  2. Bone injuries
  3. Club foot
  4. Congenital hip dislocation

Answer:Congenital hip dislocation
8.  The nurse interprets a positive Homans sign as

  1. Deep venous thrombosis
  2. Pulmonary embolism
  3. Pneumothorax
  4. Stroke

Answer: Deep venous thrombosis
9.  Glycosuria occurs when Plasma glucose level exceeds

  1. 120–140mg/dl
  2. 100-120mg/dl
  3. 130-150mg/dl
  4. 160-180mg/dl

10. Virulence of a disease is indicated by

  1. Proportional mortality rate
  2. Specific mortality rate
  3. Case fatality ratio
  4. Morbidity rate

Answer:Specific mortality rate
11. All the following are the responsibilities of nurse for a patient with heart failure, except

  1. Maintain intake outpatient chart
  2. Auscultate lung sounds
  3. Weight the patient daily
  4. Maintain intracranial pressure

Answer:Maintain intracranial pressure
12. Which test is used to find out the early stage of leprosy

  1. Lepromin test
  2. Histamine test
  3. Morphological index
  4. Bacterial index

Answer:Lepromin test
13. The polyvalent type of vaccines are prepared from

  1. More strain of same species
  2. Single species
  3. More strains of different species
  4. Single organism

Answer: More strain of same species
14. Researchers must be content to say that the hypothesis is

  1. Probably true
  2. Type I error
  3. Type II error
  4. Level of significance

Answer:Probably true
15. The coordination between the fundal contraction and cervical dilatation is called

  1. Softening of the uterus
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Increased vascularity
  4. The polarity of the uterus

Answer:Polarity of the uterus
16. The system of storage and transport of thevaccine at low temperature is called

  1. Cold chain system
  2. Vaccine chain system
  3. Vaccine carrier
  4. Ice linked refrigerate

Answer:Cold chain system

17. The saturation level of oxygen in the blood can be assessed by using

  1. Spirometer
  2. Pulse oximetry
  3. Tonometer
  4. Cardiac monitor

Answer: Pulse oximetry
18. The function of ciliated epithelium is

  1. Protection
  2. Secretion
  3. Moves mucus and other substances
  4. Immune response

Answer:Moves mucus and other substances
19. Increase in the size of the muscle of the arm in a weight lifter is an example of

  1. Hyperplasia
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Metaplasia
  4. Dysplasia

20. The pulse oximeter is a non-invasive method to assess the level of

  1. Arterial oxygenation
  2. A fraction of inspired O2
  3. O2 intake
  4. Stroke volume

Answer:Arterial oxygenation
21. Kernicterus occurs once the bilirubin crosses

  1. 15 mg/dl
  2. 20 mg/dl
  3. 25 mg/dl
  4. 30 mg/dl

Answer: 20 mg/dl
22. The volume of air that moves in and out of lungs with each respiration is

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Minute volume
  3. lung capacity
  4. Lung reserve

Answer: Tidal volume
23. Core body temperature is

  1. Skin temperature
  2. Axilla temperature
  3. Rectal temperature
  4. Oral temperature

Answer: Rectal temperature
24. Anatomical description of the imaginary vertical plane passing longitudinal through the body from front to back, dividing it right and left halves is called

  1. Coronal plane
  2. Sagittal plane
  3. Median plane
  4. Horizontal plane

Answer:Median plane

25. In which position, the nurse has to keep a patient with breathing difficulty

  1. Sim’s position
  2. Prone position
  3. Supine position
  4. Fowler’s position

Answer: Fowler’s position
26. Osteoporosis may occur after

  1. Oophorectomy
  2. Colectomy
  3. Nephrectomy
  4. Amputation

27. The stages of death and dying include

  1. Powerlessness
  2. Bargaining
  3. Role strain
  4. Ethical dilemma

28. Sterilization by steam under pressure is carried at the temperature between

  1. 105⁰c and 106⁰c
  2. 90⁰c and 100⁰c
  3. 108⁰c and 147⁰c
  4. 95⁰c and 105⁰c

29. All the following are vector-borne diseases, except

  1. Malaria
  2. Filaria
  3. Plague
  4. Hepatitis

30. The act of getting things done through and with nursing staff is

  1. Management
  2. Nursing management
  3. Leadership ability
  4. Professional norm

Answer:Nursing management
31. A teacher shows how things happen and how things can be done to the students through

  1. Field trips
  2. Demonstration
  3. Visual symbols
  4. Exhibits

Answer: Demonstration
32. ……..is the backbone of the community health

  1. Home visit
  2. Family
  3. Economy
  4. Individual

Answer: Home visit
33. To measure intraocular pressure this procedure is done

  1. Caloric test
  2. Keratometry
  3. Tonometry
  4. Visual acuity test

34. Demographic variable relate to

  1. Population
  2. Study samples
  3. Climate
  4. Sample size

Answer: Study samples
35. The hydrochloric acid secreted in the stomach wall

  1. Kills microbes in food
  2. Breakdowns protein
  3. maintain a protective barrier of the stomach
  4. digests fat

Answer: Kills microbes in food
36. Which hormone stimulates lipolysis

  1. Glucagon
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Ptyalin
  4. Oxytocin

37. Urea cycle occurs in

  1. Kidney
  2. Brain
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs

38. Infant mortality rate (IMR) can be calculated by estimating the number of deaths per

  1. 1000 births
  2. 1000 population
  3. 1000 women
  4. 1000 live births

Answer: Epinephrine
39. The three tire structure rural local staff government in India is known as

  1. Panchayat Raj
  2. Zilla Parishad
  3. Gram Sabha
  4. Nyaya Sabha

Answer: Zilla Parishad
40. Foley’s catheter size is marked with F which is equal to

  1. 0.22 mm of diameter
  2. 0.33mm of diameter
  3. 0.44 mm of diameter
  4. 0.55mm of diameter

Answer:0.33mm of diameter
41. Uterus turned inside out is called

  1. Acute inversion of the uterus
  2. Cervical dystocia
  3. Rupture uterus
  4. Prolapse uterus

Answer: Acute inversion of the uterus
42. White patches during thephysical examination should screen for msc nursing entrance exam question paper

  1. Cancer
  2. Leprosy
  3. Vitamins
  4. Tuberculosis

Answer: Leprosy
43. Android pelvis

  1. Male pelvis
  2. Female pelvis
  3. Richet pelvis
  4. Narrow pelvis

Answer:Male pelvis
44. Dental fluorosis is otherwise called as

  1. Mottled enamel
  2. Fluorosis crisis
  3. Skeletal fluorosis
  4. Fluorine toxicity

Answer: Mottled enamel
45.  When learning helps the individual to adjust himself/herself adequately to the new situation is termed as

  1. Learning is growth
  2. Learning is adjustment
  3. Learning is experience
  4. Learning is intelligent

Answer:Learning is adjustment
46. The foramen of magnum is found in _________ bone

  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal
  3. Temporal
  4. Occipital

47.  Embryotomy means

  1. Removal of head
  2. Cutting and destruction of fetus
  3. Removal of Placenta
  4. Forceps delivery

Answer:Cutting and destruction of fetus
48. Boot shaped heart is seen in

  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Coarctation of aorta
  3. Patent ductus arteriosus
  4. Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
49. T cells of the body attack and destroy pancreatic Beta cells in

  1. Type I diabetes
  2. Type II diabetes
  3. Type III diabetes
  4. Addison’s disease

Answer: Type I diabetes
50.  Extinction is based on the principle of

  1. Motivation
  2. Conditioning
  3. Information – processing
  4. Imitation

Answer: Conditioning
51. Directing and controlling the general nursing service provided by the nurse is assessed by?

  1. Manager
  2. Administrator
  3. Supervisor
  4. Advisor

52. The nurse can identify typical cases of ………. by the sudden onset of profuse, effortless watery diarrhea followed by vomiting

  1. Cholera
  2. Typhoid
  3. AIDS
  4. Hepatitis B

53. An epidural hematoma results from bleeding between the

  1. Piamater and arachnoid mater
  2. Dura mater and arachnoid mater
  3. Reticular system
  4. Dura and the inner surface of the skull

Answer: Dura and the inner surface of the skull
54. Morbidity means

  1. Illness
  2. Death
  3. Health
  4. Fatality

55. Tuberculosis is

  1. Waterborne disease
  2. Vector-borne disease
  3. Airborne disease
  4. Zoonotic disease

Answer: Airborne disease
56. According to Erikson “a sense of industry develops during”

  1. Infancy
  2. Toddler period
  3. Preschool age
  4. School-age

57. Status epilepticus is a continuous seizure that lasts more than

  1. 30 minutes
  2. 15 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 1-hour

Answer: 30 minutes
58. The complication of hospital-acquired pneumonia is

  1. Heart failure
  2. Renal failure
  3. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
  4. Head injury

Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
59. Biparietal diameter is of

  1. 8.5cms
  2. 11cms
  3. 12cms
  4. 9.5cms

Answer : 4 9.5cms
60. The activities that are designed and performed to produce a change in student behavior is by

  1. Teaching
  2. Learning
  3. Communication
  4. Information

61. Dexamethasone suppression test used to detect the

  1. Schizophrenia
  2. Depression
  3. Dementia
  4. Stress

62. The type of necrosis seen in tuberculosis is

  1. Coagulative necrosis
  2. Liquefactive necrosis
  3. Caseous necrosis
  4. Gangrenous necrosis

Answer: Caseous necrosis
63. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone secreted from the cells namely

  1. Right atrium
  2. Left atrium
  3. Right ventricle
  4. Left ventricle

Answer: Right atrium
64. The nurse notes a reddish-pink tissue in the wound during dressing and interprets as

  1. Sign of infection
  2. Keloid
  3. Granulation tissue
  4. Exudates

Answer: Granulation tissue
65. Social change refers to any modification of

  1. Human relationship
  2. Human change
  3. Human rotation
  4. Human modification

Answer: Human relationship
66. The psychiatric nurse should assess the patient’s cognitive status with the help of

  1. Mini-mental status examination
  2. Rating tool
  3. Process recording
  4. Advanced technology

Answer:Mini-mental status examination
67. The nurse notes a loud, drum-like sound during percussion of the stomach and documents as

  1. Tympany
  2. Dullness
  3. Resonance
  4. Flatness

Answer: Tympany
68. The umbilical cord contains

  1. 1 artery 2 veins
  2. 2 arteries 1 vein
  3. 2 arteries 2 veins
  4. 1 artery 1 vein

Answer: 22 arteries 1 vein
69. The coverage of thepopulation by PHC is

  1. 50000
  2. 10000
  3. 30000
  4. 40000

Answer: 30000
70. The two umbilical arteries carry the …..…. from the fetus

  1. Oxygenated blood
  2. Deoxygenated blood
  3. Mixed blood
  4. No blood

Answer: Deoxygenated blood
71. The longest bone in the human body is

  1. Femur
  2. Humerus
  3. Tibia
  4. Fibula

72. ………….is the permanent method of family planning in males

  1. Tubectomy
  2. Vasectomy
  3. Copper-T
  4. Condom

73. Swan-Ganz catheter is introduced to measure the

  1. Intraocular pressure
  2. Intracranial pressure
  3. Blood pressure
  4. Central venous pressure

Answer:Central venous pressure
74. The resistance of an individual possesses by virtue of his genetic and constitutional makeup is

  1. Active immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Adaptive immunity
  4. Innate immunity

Answer:Innate immunity
75. Weight of the placenta at term is

  1. 250gms
  2. 125gms
  3. 500gms
  4. 350gms

76. An infection resulting from treatment or diagnostic procedure is

  1. Nosocomial
  2. Iatrogenic
  3. Endogenous
  4. Contagious

Answer: Iatrogenic
77.The Koplik’s spots commonly appear in

  1. Measles
  2. Mumps
  3. Varicella
  4. Smallpox

78. The main task of management is

  1. Decision making
  2. Goal setting
  3. Guidance
  4. Authority

Answer: Guidance
79. In pediatric resuscitation, the ratio between chest compression and ventilation is

  1. 2:1
  2. 3:1
  3. 4:1
  4. 5:1

80. The nursing priority of child with acute renal failure is focused on

  1. Monitoring the intake and output chart
  2. Health education regarding salt and fluid restriction
  3. Giving family support
  4. Check blood routine

Answer:Monitoring the intake and output chart
81. An activity which involves the development of hidden talent of staff and for the benefit of the organization is known as

  1. Training
  2. Orientation
  3. Staff development
  4. Continuing education program

82. The emulsification of dietary fat is enhanced by

  1. Gastric juice
  2. Saliva
  3. Bile salts
  4. Pancreatic juice

Answer: Bile salts
83. The killing power of the disease is measured by using

  1. Case fatality rate
  2. Specific death rate
  3. Morbidity rate
  4. Survival rate

Answer: Case fatality rate
84. The vaccine used against tuberculosis is

  1. DPT
  2. OPV
  3. MMR
  4. BCG

Answer: BCG
85. Which of the following is a social motive?

  1. Hunger
  2. Thirst
  3. Pain avoidance
  4. Achievement

Answer: Achievement
86. Which of the following domain of competent caring are used in the psychiatric nursing practice?

  1. Teaching, delegating and collaboratory
  2. Management, teaching, and collaboratory
  3. Direct care, communication, and management
  4. Delegating, coordinate and communication

Answer:Direct care, communication, and management
87. Administration of medications into the body tissues other than alimentary canal is.

  1. Parenteral
  2. Oral
  3. Enteral
  4. Inunction

88. The quantitative researchers gather

  1. Empirical evidence
  2. Evidence-based
  3. Scientific method
  4. Systematic approach

Answer:Empirical evidence
89. World health day is celebrated on

  1. May 12th
  2. April 7th
  3. April 1st
  4. January 26th

Answer:April 7th
90. To acquire the correct knowledge by the student, the teacher uses a teaching strategy called

  1. Illustration strategy
  2. Narration strategy
  3. Problem-solving strategy
  4. Group discussion strategy

Answer:Illustration strategy
91. Withdrawal of fluid from the uterus through the abdominal wall

  1. Culdoscopy
  2. Laparoscopy
  3. Amniocentesis
  4. Partograph

Answer: Amniocentesis
92. The storage temperature for the polio vaccine is

  1. -20⁰ c
  2. +20⁰ c
  3. -10⁰ c
  4. +10⁰ c

Answer:-20⁰ c
93. Increased pulsation is felt through the lateral fornix at 8th week is called

  1. Osiander’s sign
  2. Chadwick’s sign
  3. Goodell’s sign
  4. Piskacek’s sign

Answer:Osiander’s sign
94. Indian MTP act allows abortion only to a period of

  1. 15 weeks
  2. 20 weeks
  3. 28 weeks
  4. 12 weeks

Answer:20 weeks
95. Osteoporosis is caused by the deficiency of

  1. Iron
  2. Calcium
  3. Zinc
  4. Phosphorous

96. An area of poor houses and poor people is termed as

  1. Housing
  2. Slums
  3. Illiteracy
  4. Ventilation

97. Hepatitis A infection spreads by

  1. Oral route
  2. Sexual route
  3. Contaminated needles
  4. Air

Answer:Oral route
98. This scale helps to assess the impaired consciousness

  1. Glasgow coma scale
  2. Visual analog scale
  3. Beck Depression scale
  4. Muscle power grade scale

Answer:Glasgow coma scale
99. Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration.

  1. Isoflurane
  2. N2o
  3. Ether
  4. Halothane

100. A person with a tendency to be outgoing, friendly and talkative is said to be an

  1. Optimist
  2. Pessimist
  3. Introvert
  4. Extrovert


50 Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

urinary system questions and answers pdf

1. Which of the following are not found in the glomerular filtrate?

A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. Uric acid
D. Creatinine

2. Which muscle metabolism waste product is eliminated by the kidneys?

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Creatine
D. Creatinine

3. Which of these has the highest concentration in the urine?

A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Uric acid
D. Phosphate

4. Which ion is reabsorbed in exchange for sodium?

A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

5. The last part of a nephron is the _____.

A. Collecting Duct
B. Renal papilla
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Glomerulus

6. Which area actually secretes renin into the blood?

A. Macula densa
B. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Juxtaglomerular cells
D. Cortical nephron

7. Which blood vessel conveys blood out of the nephron?

A. Efferent arteriole
B. Vasa recta
C. Peritubular capillary
D. Interlobular vein

8. Which blood vessels surround the loops of Henle?

A. Vasa recta
B. Peritubular capillaries
C. Interlobular arteries
D. Efferent arterioles

9. What is the average glomerular filtration rate?

A. 10 L per day
B. 180 L per day
C. 1,500 ml per day
D. 1 ml per minute

10. Which of the following is usually not found in the urine?

A. Magnesium
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Glucose

Urinary System Mcqs

11. How much urine is formed in 24 hours?

A. 12 liters
B. 100 ml
C. 1.5 L
D. 3,000 cc

12. Renin acts on _____ to convert it to angiotensin I.

A. Angiotensin II
B. Angiotensinogen
D. Aldosterone

13. The targets of angiotensin II are blood vessels and _____.

A. Nerves
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Kidney nephron

14. Tubular re-absorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the _____.

A. Loop of Henle
B. Peritubular capillaries
C. Renal corpuscle
D. Renal pyramid

15. Most tubular re-absorption occurs at the _____.

A. Loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Glomerulus

16. Where are most micro-villi found?

A. Loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubule

17. Which of the following occurred by active transport?

A. Albumin in the urine
B. Creatinine in the urine
C. Re-absorption of water at the proximal tubule
D. Re-absorption of amino acids

18. Which of these does not operate under a renal threshold mechanism?

A. Creatinine
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Sodium
D. Citric acid

19. The action of aldosterone is to increase _____.

A. Sodium elimination
B. Sodium reabsorption
C. Potassium reabsorption
D. Chloride excretion

20. How much sodium is actively reabsorbed by the proximal segment of the nephron?

A. 10%
B. 1%
C. 70%
D. 99%

21. The outermost covering of the kidney is the _____.

A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Pelvis
D. Capsule

22. The kidneys are located in the _____ space.

A. Pelvic cavity
B. Peritoneal cavity
C. Abdominal
D. Retro-peritoneal

23. The entrance into the kidney is called the _____.

A. Sinus
B. Column
C. Hilum
D. Pyramid

24. Which structure is the first to collect the urine?

A. Pelvis
B. Calyx
C. Ureter
D. Urethra

25. Each minor calyx receives urine from the _____.

A. Renal papillae
B. Pelvis
C. Ureter
D. Columns

26. The renal pyramids are located within the _____.

A. Column
B. Cortex
C. Medulla
D. Pelvis

27. The striated appearance of the pyramids is caused by _____.

A. Parallel blood vessels
B) Micro-tubules
C. Connective tissue
D. Nerve fibers

28. The kidney secretes ___ for the purpose of stimulating bone marrow activity.

A. Renin
B. Aldosterone
C. Erythropoietin
D. Somatomedin

29. The kidney secretes ___, which is an enzyme hormone that raises blood pressure.

A. Aldosterone
B. Renin
C. Angiotensinogen
D. Angiotensin II

30. Uric acid results from _____ metabolism.

A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Purine
D. Pyrimidine

31. Renal secretion of a compound usually occurs from the _____ into the distal convoluted tubule.

A. Loop of Henle
B. Glomerulus
C. Vasa recta
D) Peritubular capillaries

32. Which of these is not usually secreted by the kidneys?

A) Creatine
B. Creatinine
C. H +
D. Penicillin

33. The compound used to assess the function of the kidney at the level of the glomerulus is _____.

A. Creatinine
B) Insulin
C. Para-aminohippuric acid
D. Creatine

34. Which of these could appear in the urine from dieting or the utilization of excess lipids?

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Glycine
D) Ketone

35. Vigorous exercise could release high amounts of _____ into the urine.

A. Glucose
B. Uric acid
C) Albumin
D. Ascorbic acid

36. What causes urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder?

A. Gravity
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C) Peristalsis
D. Osmotic pressure

37. Renal calculi are usually comprised of the following except which one?

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Cholesterol
C. Uric acid
D. Magnesium phosphate

38. The mucosa of the bladder is comprised of _____.

A. Smooth muscle
B. Squamous epithelium
C) Transitional epithelium
D. Simple columnar epithelium

39. Which of these is under voluntary control?

A. Urethra
B. Detrusor muscle
C. Internal sphincter
D) External sphincter

40. The micturition reflex is centered in the _____.

A. Medulla
B) Sacral cord
C. Hypothalamus
D. Lumbar cord

41. What is the function of the renal system?

A. Maintain blood pH
B. Regulate blood pressure
C. Control blood concentration
D. All of these

42. How much of the cardiac output passes through the kidneys?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 65%

43. Which blood vessel delivers blood to the cortex?

A. Interlobular artery
B. Arcuate artery
C. Interlobar artery
D. Efferent arteriole

44. The renal corpuscle is comprised of a glomerulus and _____.

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Bowman’s capsule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

45. Which section of the nephron is after the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

A. Descending limb of the loop
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct

46. The countercurrent multiplier mechanism occurs at the _____.

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting ducts

47. The fluid in the descending limb of the loop of Henle is _____ relative to the capillaries.

A. Isotonic
B. Weakly hypotonic
C. Strongly hypotonic
D. Hypertonic

48. The function of the countercurrent multiplier is to _____.

A. Increase the concentration of NaCl
B. Decrease the concentration of NaCl
C. Change the blood levels of potassium
D. Conserve potassium

49. What effect does ADH have on urine output?

A. Minimal
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Maintains

50. Where does ADH have its greatest effect?

A. Loop of Henle
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Glomerulus

51. Eating large amounts of meat will increase the levels of _____ in the blood.

A. Protein
B. Creatinine
C. Urea
D. Uric acid

300+ TOP Mother’s Day Quiz Questions and Answers MCQs

Mother’s Day Quiz Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the most popular gift purchased for Mother’s Day?
A. Balloons

B. Flowers

C. Cards

Answer: C. Cards

2. Which U.S President officially issued a proclamation to establish Mother’s Day?
A. Woodrow Wilson

B. Thomas Jefferson

C. William H. Taft

Answer: A. Woodrow Wilson

3. Which country awarded medals to mothers with large families in the 1920s?
A. Germany

B. France

C. Denmark

Answer: B. France

4. Which was the first country to dedicate one day just for mothers?
A. Australia

B. New Zealand

C. England

Answer: C. England

5. The modern Mother’s Day was first celebrated in which country?
A. Germany

B. The United States

C. France

Answer: B. The United States

6. Which of the following flowers are often associated with Mother’s Day?
A. Daisies

B. Lilies

C. Carnations

Answer: C. Carnations

7. In which month is Mother’s Day celebrated in Canada, Australia, and the United States?
A. April

B. May

C. June

Answer: B. May

8. In the Roman Catholic Church, Mother’s Day is most associated with admiration for whom?
A. Virgin Mary

B. Mary Magdalene

C. Eve

Answer: A. Virgin Mary

9. Which holiday was the precursor to the modern Mother’s Day in the United Kingdom?
A. Mother’s Feast

B. Mothering Sunday

C. Feast Day

Answer: B. Mothering Sunday

10. Which scientist won two Nobel Prize awards and was also the mother of a Nobel Prize Winner?
A. Alice Kipling

B. Pauline Koch Einstein

C. Marie Curie

Answer: C. Marie Curie

11. “Mother of Presidents” is the nickname of which U.S. state because 8 former U.S. Presidents were born and raised there?
A. Illinois

B. Virginia

C. North Carolina

Answer: B. Virginia

12. Which of the following songs by the Beatles was inspired by Mary, the mother of Paul McCartney?
A. Let It Be

B. Yesterday

C. In My Life

Answer: A. Let It Be

13. Mother’s ruin is the other name of which alcoholic drink?
A. Rum

B. Whisky

C. Gin

Answer: C. Gin

14. The U.S. actress Kate Hudson is the daughter of which famous mother?
A. Meryl Streep

B. Meg Ryan

C. Goldie Hawn

Answer: C. Goldie Hawn

15. In the former Yugoslavia, what would children do to get treats from their mother?
A. To tell a joke to their mother

B. To tie up their mother

C. To hug their mother

Answer: B. To tie up their mother

16. What is the name of the estranged mother of Homer Simpson?
A. Mona

B. Mary

C. Meryl

Answer: A. Mona

17. In Greek mythology, who is the mother of the gods?
A. Artemis

B. Eris

C. Rhea

Answer: C. Rhea

18. In which movie is there a computer named “Mother”?
A. Alien

B. Avatar

C. Blade Runner

Answer: A. Alien

19. In which country do people celebrate Durga-puja, a 10-day event around September or October that pays homage to Durga – the mother goddess?
A. Iran

B. Pakistan

C. India

Answer: C. India

20. Mother Theresa found her missionary in which Indian city?
A. Calcutta

B. New Deli

C. Bangalore

Answer: A. Calcutta

21. Complete the following saying: … is the mother of invention.
A. Money

B. Patience

C. Necessity

Answer: C. Necessity

22. “Mother and Child” is an artwork that depicts a calf and a cow bisected and preserved in 4 separate tanks of formaldehyde. What is the type of this artwork?
A. Painting

B. Sculpture

C. Wax figure

Answer: B. Sculpture

23. Which song by John Lennon bears the name of his mother, who tragically died in a vehicle accident?
A. Mary

B. Anne

C. Julia

Answer: C. Julia

24. Carnations are a popular flower on Mother’s Day because many Christians believe that they were made from what of Mary?
A. Tears

B. Hair

C. Milk

Answer: A. Tears

25. Who is the mother of Prince William and Prince Harry?
A. Queen Elizabeth I

B. Princess Diana

C. Lady Sarah McCorquodale

Answer: B. Princess Diana

26. What is the other name of nacre, a composite material produced from some molluscs?
A. Mother of pearl

B. Mother of shell

C. Mother of oyster

Answer: A. Mother of pearl

27. What does the word “mother” mean in Latin?
A. Mutter

B. Madre

C. Mater

Answer: C. Mater

28. “Mamma Mia” is a hit by which pop group?
A. Boney M


C. The Doors

Answer: B. ABBA

29. In Tibet, people refer to what as “The Goddess Mother”?
A. Potala Palace

B. Namtso Lake

C. Mount Everest

Answer: C. Mount Everest

30. Which of the following cakes is often made to celebrate Mothering Sunday in the United Kingdom?
A. Simnel cake

B. Sponge cake

C. Tipsy cake

Answer: A. Simnel cake

31. In which country was the Nobel laureate and Catholic missionary Mother Teresa born?
A. Croatia

B. Serbia

C. Albania

Answer: C. Albania

32. Monique Delacroix is the mother of which fictional character?
A. James Bond

B. Harry Potter

C. Joker

Answer: A. James Bond

33. Elizabeth Fry is often referred to as “The Mother of Prison Reform”. Where can everyone see her picture regularly?
A. In front of many prisons

B. On the back of a banknote

C. In public buildings

Answer: B. On the back of a banknote

34. In the British sitcom “The Fall and Rise of Reginald Perrin”, which vision came up on the television screen whenever Reginald thought of his mother-in-law?
A. A witch

B. A mermaid

C. A hippopotamus

Answer: C. A hippopotamus

35. Where were these words spoken: “Let’s get this mother out of here”?
A. On the moon

B. In the ocean

C. On top of Mount Everest

Answer: A. On the moon

Mother’s Day objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

300+ Top Famous People Quiz Questions and Answers

Famous Personalities Multiple Choice Questions

1. Satyen Bose has shown his excellence in which of the following fields?

A. Stage Acting

B. Drawing and Painting

C. Classical Dance

D. Motion Picture

Answer: D

2. Mr. Sham Lal has done commendable work in the field of?

A. Journalism

B. Politics

C. Social Service

D. Trade Unionism

Answer: A

3. Samantha Fox is associated with

A. Politics

B. Pop music

C. Journalism

D. Sports

Answer: B

4. Ms. Meera Sahib Fathima Beevi is distinguished as the first lady

A. Prime minister of Bangladesh

B. Judge of Supreme Court

C. Judge of the High court

D. Governor of a state

Answer: B

5. Who is known as ‘Desert Fox’?

A. Bismarck

B. Eisenhower

C. Gen. Rommel

D. Walter Scott

Answer: C

6. White revolution is associated with

A. Prof. Nanjundiah

B. M.S. Swaminathan

C. Dr. Verghese Kurein

D. Medha Patkar

Answer: C

7. Shankracharya was the founder of

A. Buddhism

B. Jainism

C. Arya Samaj

D. Advaitic philosophy

Answer: D

8. Professor Amartya Sen is famous in which of the fields?

A. Biochemistry

B. Electronics

C. Economics

D. Geology

Answer: C

9. Who is known as ‘Indian Bismarck’?

A. Kamaraj

B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

C. Nehru

D. Rajaji

Answer: B

10. Ms. Vijaya Mehta has earned distinction in which of the field?

A. Theatre

B. Film Direction

C. Classical Dance

D. Journalism

Answer: A

11. Professor Malcolm Adiseshaih had earned worldwide distinction in which of the fields?

A. Literature

B. Defense

C. Economics

D. Medicine

Answer: C

12. Ben kingsley is associated with which of the following fields?

A. Politics

B. Social Service

C. Sports

D. Motion Pictures

Answer: D

13. Shovna Narayan is a reputed personality in which of the following fields?

A. Classical dance

B. Literature

C. Journalism

D. Classical music

Answer: A

14. Who is known as the ‘Lady with the Lamp’?

A. Florence Nightingale

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Joan of Arc

Answer: A

15. Who was the first Indian to make a movie?

A. H.S. Bhatwadekar

B. Ardeshir Irani

C. Dhundiraj Govind Phalke

D. V. Shantaram

Answer: A

16. Lata Mangeshkar holds the world record for maximum number of ________ .

A. Song recordings

B. Singing songs

C. Songs composing

D. None of the above

Answer: A

17. Who was known as Iron man of India?

A. Govind Ballabh Pant

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Subhash Chandra Bose

D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: D

18. Ms. Bachendri Pal had undertaken a unique expedition for focusing attention on which of these?

A. One Nation one Family

B. The Girl Child

C. National Integration

D. Sprit of Adventure

Answer: D

19. The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with which of the following fields?

A. Painting

B. Films

C. Pop Music

D. Fashion Designing

Answer: D

20. Ashok Pandit is known for his outstanding performance in which field?

A. Wrestling

B. Kabaddi

C. Shooting

D. Swimming

Answer: C

21. Who fits with this description ‘Indian Cotton merchant, Banker, Congressman, a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi’?

A. M. R. Jayakar

B. V. S. Sastri

C. G. D. Birla

D. Jamanlal Bajaj

Answer: C

22. The first woman in space was

A. Valentina Tereshkova

B. Sally Ride

C. Naidia Comenci

D. Tamara Press

Answer: A

23. In which of the following dance forms ‘Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra’ is associated with?

A. Odissi

B. Bharathanatiyam

C. Kathak

D. Kathakali

Answer: A

24. Who headed the committee on ‘computerisation’ in Indian Banks (1988)?

A. C. Rangarajan

B. R.N. Malhotra

C. S. Venkitramanan

D. M. Narasimhan

Answer: A

25. Dr. V. Kurien is famous in the field of?

A. Atomic Power

B. Poultry farms

C. Dairy development

D. Economic Reforms

Answer: C

26. Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt, who has won the prestigious ‘Grammy Awards’ is an exponent in which of the following musical instruments?

A. Guitar

B. Violin

C. Sarod

D. Tabla

Answer: A

27. Tansen was

A. A great exponent of Indian classical music

B. One of the nine gems in the court of Akbar

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

28. Jude Felix is a famous Indian player in which of the fields?

A. Volleyball

B. Tennis

C. Football

D. Hockey

Answer: D

29. Guru Gopi Krishna was a maestro of which of the following dance forma?

A. Kuchipudi

B. Kathak

C. Manipuri

D. Bahratanatyam

Answer: B

30. Who is well known collector of artefacts and curios?

A. Wadeyar

B. Salar Jung

C. Rabindra Nath Togore

D. Motilal Nehru

Answer: C

31. Pandit K. G. Ginde, was well known for his contribution in the field of?

A. Music

B. Sanskrit

C. Dance

D. Ayurveda

Answer: A

32. Dr. Amiya Chakravarthy is known for his

A. Work in the Chipko movement

B. Composing music for Ray’s films

C. Being literary Secretary to R. N. Tagore

D. Patenting a living organism

Answer: C

33. Bismillah Khan was associated with?

A. Sarod

B. Shehnai

C. Flute

D. Tabla

Answer: B

34. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of

A. Sitar

B. Flute

C. Sarod

D. Tabla

Answer: B

35. Who is Tania Sachdev?

A. Chess player

B. Cricketer

C. Actress

D. Dancer

Answer: A

36. Hitendra Desai was famous in which field?

A. Social Service

B. Journalism

C. Politics

D. Literature

Answer: C

37. Chandigarh was designed by

A. Edward Lutyens

B. Michelangelo

C. Wren

D. Le Corbusier

Answer: D

38. Ms. Medha Patkar is associated with the

A. Tehri project

B. Enron project

C. Sardar Sarovar project

D. Dabhol project

Answer: C

39. Who among the following is a famous flute Player?

A. Ravi Shankar

B. Shiv Kumar Sharma

C. Zakir Hussain

D. Hariprasad Chaurasia

Answer: D

40. Who among the following is Miss World 1999?

A. Diana Hayden

B. Yukta Mukhi

C. Lara Dutta

D. Aishwarya Rai

Answer: B

41. The Indian Independence League was set up by

A. Rashbehari Bose

B. S.M. Joshi

C. Aruna Asaf Ali

D. Jayprakash Narayan

Answer: A

42. Ali Akbar plays which of the following musical instruments?

A. Flute

B. Tabla

C. Sitar

D. Sarod

Answer: D

43. Who among the following is not a dramatist?

A. Girish R. Karnad

B. Badal Sircar

C. Jayanta Mahapatra

D. Vijay Tendulkar

Answer: C

44. Gangubai hangal is the name associated with

A. Literature

B. Music

C. Journalism

D. Environment

Answer: B

45. Raja Ravi Verma, was famous in which of the fields?

A. Painting

B. Politics

C. Dance

D. Music

Answer: A

46. Jamini Roy distinguished herself in

A. Dancing

B. Colour Photography

C. Instrumental Music

D. Painting

Answer: D

47. Who among the following was an eminent painter?

A. Sarada Ukil

B. Uday Shanker

C. V. Shantaram

D. Meherally

Answer: A

48. In which field ‘Aachan Maharaj’ has distinguished himself?

A. Painting

B. Drama

C. Dance

D. Vocal Music

Answer: C

49. Who among the following is a social activist campaigning against child labour?

A. Baba Amte

B. Shabana Amzi

C. Mira Nair

D. Swami Agnivesh

Answer: D

50. Sanjay Dutt, a noted film actor was held under


B. Narcotics Act

C. Act 302

D. Anti – Defection Act

Answer: A

51. R. K. Laxman is a renowned

A. Dance master

B. Writer

C. Cartoonist

D. Journalist

Answer: C

52. Which of the following pairs of artists and their areas of specialization is not correct?

A. Pt. Ravi Shankar – Sitar

B. M. S. Subbulakshmi – Dance

C. Hari Prasad Chaurasia – Flute

D. Ustad Zakir Hussain Khan – Tabla

Answer: B

53. Girilal Jain was a noted figure in which of the following fields?

A. Social Service

B. Journalism

C. Literature

D. Politics

Answer: B

54. Which among the famous danseuses is not an exponent of the Odissi dance style?

A. Sanjukta Panigrahi

B. Madhavi Mudgal

C. Sonal Man Singh

D. Yamini Krishnamurthy

Answer: D

55. Who among the following said ‘Population increases in the Geometric Progression, Food increases in the Arithmetic Progression’?

A. Malthus

B. Greshan

C. Engels

D. Keynes

Answer: A

56. Name the cartoonist who’s ‘Common Man’ is very popular

A. Ajit Ninan

B. R. K. Laxman

C. Sudhir Dhar

D. Sudhir Telang

Answer: B

57. Dr. M. S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of

A. Kathak

B. Bharatanatyam

C. Playing Violin

D. Vocal music

Answer: D

58. Kiran Bedi is

A. First woman IAS officer

B. First woman IPS officer

C. First woman advocate

D. First woman judge

Answer: B

59. Rabindranath Tagore is also known as

A. Guruji

B. Gurudev

C. Mahamana

D. Netaji

Answer: B

60. The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is

A. Ramanujam

B. Rina Panigrahi

C. Raja Ramanna

D. Shakunthala Devi

Answer: D

61. Which of the following fields A. Nageshwara Rao is associated with?

A. Sports

B. Literature

C. Motion Pictures

D. Politics

Answer: C

62. Ustad Nisar hussain Khan earned distinction in which of the following fields?

A. Vocal Music

B. Instrumental music

C. Acting

D. Classical dance

Answer: A

63. Graham Green was associated with which of the fields?

A. Science

B. Music

C. Painting

D. Literature

Answer: D

64. Who is Larry Pressler?

A. Politician

B. Painter

C. Actor

D. Tennis player

Answer: A

65. Who headed the first scientific group to leave for Antarctica in 1982?

A. Dr. D.R. Sengupta

B. Dr. S.Z. Kasim

C. Dr. V. K. Raina

D. Dr. H. K. Gupta

Answer: B

66. Who was associated with ‘Divinity in Humanity’?

A. Mother Teresa

B. Swami Vivekananda

C. Swami Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

D. Swami Sivananda

Answer: C

67. Zakir Hussain was

A. The third President of India

B. India’s second vice President

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

68. Jamini Roy was a famous?

A. Producer

B. Painter

C. Dancer

D. Actor

Answer: B

69. Greta Garbo is associated with

A. Classical dance

B. Literature

C. Journalism

D. Acting

Answer: D

70. Limba Ram is associated in which fields?

A. Sports

B. Politics

C. Social Service

D. Motion Picture

Answer: A

71. Who is known as ‘Trimurthy of Carnatic Music’?

A. Muthuswami Dikshitar

B. Purandardasa

C. Swami Thirunal

D. None of these

Answer: A

72. Firdausi was

A. A poet

B. Well known for his epic ‘Shahnama’

C. Both options A and B

D. None of the above

Answer: C

73. Who own the Miss World beauty contest in the year 2000 A.D.?

A. Lara Dutta

B. Prianka chopra

C. Diya Mirza

D. Yukta Mukhi

Answer: B

74. K.S. Ranjit Singhji was

A. First Bar-at-law

B. First Air Marshal

C. First Indian test cricketer

D. First Field Marshal

Answer: C

75. What is common between Kutty, Shankar, Laxman and Sudhir Dar?

A. Film Direction

B. Drawing Cartoons

C. Instrumental Music

D. Classical Dance

Answer: B

76. Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe ‘every tear from every eye’?

A. Rajendra Prasad

B. Sardar Patel

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: C

77. Miss Universe 1994, Ms. Sushmita Sen hails from which of the following cities?

A. Mumbai

B. Chandigarh

C. New Delhi

D. Bangalore

Answer: C

78. The title of ‘sparrow’ given to

A. Napoleon

B. Major General Rajinder Singh

C. T. T. Krishnamachari

D. Sardar Patel

Answer: B

79. Lala Lajpat Rai is also known as

A. Sher-e-Punjab

B. Punjab Kesari

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

80. Who was the first woman to scale Mt. Everest twice?

A. Kiran Bedi

B. Medha Patkar

C. Santosh Yadav

D. Bachendri Pal

Answer: C

81. Shiv-Hari, the popular musical duo, plays which of the following instruments?

A. Tabla and Guitar

B. Santoor and Flute

C. Piano and Drums

D. None of these

Answer: B

82. Begum Akhtar is related to

A. Music

B. Dance

C. Writing

D. Painting

Answer: A

83. Lal Bahadur Shastri is also known as

A. Guruji

B. Man of Peace

C. Punjab Kesari

D. Mahamana

Answer: B

84. The first Indian actress to have been nominated to the Rajya Sabha was

A. Nargis Dutt

B. Hema Malini

C. Jaya Prada

D. None of the above

Answer: A

85. Which of the following was Satyajit Ray associated with?

A. Classical music

B. Commercial art

C. Film Direction

D. Classical dance

Answer: C

86. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?

A. Sarod

B. Veena

C. Violin

D. Sitar

Answer: A

87. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields?

A. Agriculture

B. Medicine

C. Astrophysics

D. Physics

Answer: A

88. Pandit Jasraj has established his reputation in which of the following fields?

A. Music

B. Literature

C. Sanskrit

D. Dance

Answer: A

89. Who is the Flying Sikh of India?

A. Mohinder Singh

B. Joginder Singh

C. Ajit Pal Singh

D. Milkha singh

Answer: D

90. Who is the famous Sarod player?

A. Hari Prasad

B. Zakir Hussain

C. Ram Narain

D. Amjad Ali Khan

Answer: D

Famous Personalities objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

300+ TOP Western Political Thoughts MCQs and Answers

Western Political Thoughts Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the life span of Jeremy Bentham?

A. 1673-1745
B. 1740-1807
C. 1773-1840
D. 1748-1832

Answer: D. 1748-1832

2. James Mill was the staunch advocate of a legitimate form of government through

A. Liberal Democracy
B. Classical liberal principles
C. Participative democracy
D. Parliamentary democracy

Answer: C. Participative democracy

3. When did Adam Smith publish his famous book “Wealth of Nations”?

A. 1774
B. 1775
C. 1776
D. 1777

Answer: C. 1776

4. Jeremy Bentham was the founder of new liberal doctrine, now known as?

A. Utilitarianism
B. Naturalism
C. Classicism
D. Romanticism

Answer: C. Classicism

5. Utilitarian Political thoughts were developed by

A. James Mills
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Edmund Burke
D. de Maître

Answer: A. James Mills

6. “An introduction to the Principles of Moral and Legislation” was the book published in 1789, written by

A. Rousseau
B. James Mills
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. None of them

Answer: B. James Mills

7. Adam Smith’s life span was

A. 1720-1787
B. 1723-1790
C. 1719-1786
D. 1724-1789

Answer: B. 1723-1790

8. Herbert Spencer was the British thinker who evaluated

A. Neoliberalism
B. Classical Liberalism
C. Humanism
D. Post Modernism

Answer: B. Classical Liberalism

9. Herbert Spencer philosophy is known as

A. Darwinian Natural Selection
B. Darwinian Naturalism
C. Darwinian Selection
D. Social Darwinianism

Answer: D. Social Darwinianism

10. Alexis de Tocqueville was a

A. British Liberal Philosopher
B. French Liberal Philosopher
C. British Aristocrat
D. French Aristocrat

Answer: D. French Aristocrat

11. “Democracy in America” was written by Tocqueville in

A. 1831
B. 1833
C. 1835
D. 1837

Answer: B. 1833

12. Alexis de Tocqueville was born in

A. 1802
B. 1803
C. 1804
D. 1805

Answer: C. 1804

13. Famous liberal theorist J.S. Mill was a

A. Utilitarian
B. Moderate Economist
C. Theorist
D. None of these

Answer: A. Utilitarian

14. Study of Romantic Poetry reminded J.S. Mill that utilitarian philosopher was lacking in

A. Moral terms
B. Economic terms
C. Human terms
D. Social terms

Answer: C. Human terms

15. J.S. Mills is best known for his essay

A. On Liberty
B. Utilitarianism
C. The Principles
D. Progress

Answer: A. On Liberty

16. Who has coined the term “Intellectual Elites”?

A. James Mill
B. J.S. Mill
C. David Hume
D. None of these

Answer: B. J.S. Mill

17. Famous British thinker T.H. Green was an

A. An economist
B. An academician
C. A political activist
D. An intellectual

Answer: B. An academician

18. T.H. Green and his followers laid the foundations of

A. Modern Democracy
B. Modern Philosophy
C. Modern Liberalism
D. Neoconservatism

Answer: C. Modern Liberalism

19. “Lectures on the Principles of Political Obligations” was the work written by

A. Hegel
B. David Hume
C. T.H. Green
D. James Mill

Answer: C. T.H. Green

20. Karl Marx was born to a middle-class family in Prussia in

A. 1817
B. 1818
C. 1819
D. 1820

Answer: B. 1818

21. When Marx moved to Paris in 1834, it was the Centre of ?

A. Socialist Movement
B. Socialist Republic
C. Socialist Circle
D. Social Democracy

Answer: A. Socialist Movement

22. When Marx was forced to leave Paris because of his radical views in

A. 1845
B. 1841
C. 1843
D. 1850

Answer: A. 1845

23. Marx produced his economic work “Das Capital” in 1894 when its Volume-1 published. Volume II and III were brought out by

A. Hegel
B. Angeles
C. Marx and Angeles
D. Marx

Answer: B. Angeles

24. Marx and Angeles co-authored “The German Ideology” in the year

A. 1846
B. 1840
C. 1860
D. 1855

Answer: A. 1846

25. “The Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts” were written by Marx in the year

A. 1844
B. 1843
C. 1850
D. 1851

Answer: A. 1844

26. The period from John Locke to the beginning of the 19th Century is called

A. Age of Discovery
B. Renaissance
C. Enlightenment
D. Romanticism

Answer: C. Enlightenment

27. The period before Alexander the Great’s death in 323 B.C to the middle of the 2nd Century B.C. is called

A. Classical
B. Hellenic
C. Neoclassical
D. Dark Ages

Answer: C. Neoclassical

28. The form of government based upon an extensive franchise and protection of basic rights and liberties is called

A. Nominalism
B. Linguistics
C. Ethnicity
D. Nationalism

Answer: A. Nominalism

29. Who is considered to be the recent modern political thinker out of these four philosophers?

A. Plato
B. David Hume
C. Hobbes
D. J.S. Mill

Answer: B. David Hume

30. Hume’s utilitarianism was directed against the whole natural law tradition of

A. Political Discourse
B. Social Discourse
C. Economic Discourse
D. Ethical Discourse

Answer: D. Ethical Discourse

31. The theory asserting that truth is a function of language is called

A. Nominalism
B. Linguistics
C. Ethnicity
D. Nationalism

Answer: A. Nominalism

32. Machiavelli rejected the whole classical heritage at a deeper

A. Meta Physical level
B. Epistemological level
C. Metaphysical and empirical levels
D. Metaphysical and Epistemological levels

Answer: D. Metaphysical and Epistemological levels

33. Machiavelli rejected the whole classical heritage at a deeper

A. Meta Physical level
B. Epistemological level
C. Metaphysical and empirical levels
D. Metaphysical and Epistemological levels

Answer: D. Metaphysical and Epistemological levels

Western Political Thoughts objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test