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CLOUD COMPUTING Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. What is Cloud Computing replacing?
A. Corporate data centers
B. Expensive personal computer hardware
C. Expensive software upgrades
D. All of the above
Answer: D
2. What is the number one concern about cloud computing?
A. Too expensive
B. Security concerns
C. Too many platforms
D. Accessability
Answer: B
3. Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?
A. Google
B. Amazon
C. Blackboard
D. Microsoft
Answer: C
4. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
5. Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model?
A. Free
B. Pay Per Use
C. Subscription
D. Ladder
E. Perpetual License
Answer: D
6. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?
A. Hardware as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer: A
7. An Internet connection is neccessary for cloud computing interaction.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
8. Which is not a major cloud computing platform?
A. Google 101
B. IBM Deep blue
C. Microsoft Azure
D. Amazon EC2
Answer: B
9. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?
A. Wireless
B. Hard drives
C. People
D. Internet
Answer: D
10. Which of these should a company consider before implementing cloud computing technology?
A. Employee satisfaction
B. Potential cost reduction
C. Information sensitivity
D. All of the above
Answer: D
11. What exactly is cloud computing?
A. A way to organize desktop computers
B. Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive
C. Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility
D. The World Wide Web
Answer: C
12. What widely used service is built on cloud-computing technology?
A. Twitter B. Skype
C. GmailD. YouTube
E. All of the above
Answer: E
13. Which of these techniques is vital for creating cloud-computing centers?
A. Virtualization
B. Transubstantiation
C. Cannibalization
D. Insubordination
Answer: A
14. An internal cloud is…
A. An overhanging threat
B. A career risk for a CIO
C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate firewall
D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for water-cooler gossip
Answer: C
15. Match the provider with the cloud-based service.
A. Amazon1. Azure
B. IBM2. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. EMC3. Decho
D. Microsoft4. Cloudburst
Answer: A
16. Cloud computing embraces many concepts that were previously touted as the next big thing in information technology. Which of these is not an antecedent of the cloud?
A. Software as a service
B. Utility computing
C. Remote hosted services
D. Grid computing
E. Desktop computing
Answer: E
17. IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies signing what document whose title is reminiscent of a famous political statement?
A. Declaration of Cloud Computing
B. The Rights of Cloud
C. Mein Cloud
D. Open Cloud Manifesto
Answer: D
18. The term “cloud computing” is a metaphor that originated in what?
A. Graphical depiction of computer architectures
B. Meteorological symbolism
C. Worries about an unclear future for computing architectures
D. The idea that computer users trust in magic
Answer: A
19. Link the cloud-based service on the left with the desktop or server application it is designed to displace on the right.
A. Google Docs1. Intel servers
B. Salesforce.com2. Microsoft Office
C. Mozy.com3. Oracle customer-rela-
tionship management
D. Amazon EC24. Backup disk
Answer: A
20. What August event was widely seen as an example of the risky nature of cloud computing?
A. Spread of Conficker virus
B. Gmail outage for more than an hour
C. Theft of identities over the Internet
D. Power outages in the Midwest
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is true of cloud computing?
A. It’s always going to be less expensive and more secure than local computing.
B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long as you have an Internet connection.
C. Only a few small companies are investing in the technology, making it a risky venture.
Answer: B
22. What is private cloud?
A. A standard cloud service offered via the Internet
B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.
C. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone but the cultural elite
Answer: B
23. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?
A. Software as a Service (SAAS)
B. Platform as a Service (PAAS)
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS)
Answer: C
24. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
25. What is Cloud Foundry?
A. A factory that produces cloud components
B. An industry wide PaaS initiative
C. VMware-led open source PaaS.
Answer: C
26 This is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.
A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS).
Answer: C
27. Which of the following statements about Google App Engine (GAE) is INCORRECT.
A. It’s a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model.
B. Automatic Scalability is built in with GAE. As a developer you don’t need to worry about application scalability
C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting your application.
D. The applications deployed on GAE have the same security, privacy and data protection policies as that of Google’s applications. So, applications can take advantage of reliability, performance and security of Google’s infrastructure.
Answer: C
28. I’ve a website containing all static pages. Now I want to provide a simple Feedback form for end users. I don’t have software developers, and would like to spend minimum time and money. What should I do?
A. Hire software developers, and build dynamic page.
B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html page.
C. Use Google App Engine (GAE) to build and deploy dynamic page.
Answer: B
29. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security standards for cloud computing?
A. Cloud Security Standards Working.
B. Cloud Security Alliance.
C. Cloud Security WatchDog.
D. Security in the Cloud Alliance.
Answer: B
30. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?
A. Wireless
B. Hard drives
C. People
D. Internet
Answer: D
31. What second programming language did Google add for App Engine development?
A. C++
B. Flash
C. Java
D. Visual Basic
Answer: C
32. What facet of cloud computing helps to guard against downtime and determines costs?
A. Service-level agreements
B. Application programming interfaces
C. Virtual private networks
D. Bandwidth fees
Answer: A
33. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?
A. Hardware as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer: A
34. Cloud Services have a________ relationship with their customers.
A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-many
C. One-to-one
Answer: B
35. What is the name of Rackspace’s cloud service?
A. Cloud On-Demand
B. Cloud Servers
C. EC2
Answer: B
36. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security standards for cloud computing?
A. Cloud Security Standards Working Group
B. Cloud Security Alliance
C. Cloud Security WatchDog
D. Security in the Cloud Alliance
Answer: B
37. Which of these companies specializes in cloud computing management tools and services?
A. RightScale
B. Google
C. Salesforce.com
D. Savis
Answer: A
38. What’s the most popular use case for public cloud computing today?
A. Test and development
B. Website hosting
C. Disaster recovery
D. Business analytics
Answer: A
39. Virtual Machine Ware (VMware) is an example of
A. Infrastructure Service
B. Platform Service
C. Software Service
Answer: A
30. Cloud Service consists of
A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure
B. Software, Hardware, Infrastructure
C. Platform, Hardware, Infrastructure
Answer: A
41. Google Apps Engine is a type of
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. NA
Answer: D
42. Which vendor recently launched a cloud-based test and development service for enterprises?
A. HP
B. Cisco
C. IBM
D. Oracle
Answer: C
43. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud provider’s network is a problem for many enterprises because it:
A. Breaks compliance regulations
B. Adds latency
C. Raises security concerns
D. Makes data recovery harder
Answer: A
44. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer: C
45. Cloud computing networks are designed to support only private or hybrid clouds.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
46. A good cloud computing network can be adjusted to provide bandwidth on demand.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
47. A larger cloud network can be built as either a layer 3 or layer 4 network.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
48. The typical three-layer switching topology will not create latency within a cloud network.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
49. The term ‘Cloud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.
A. The Internet
B. Cumulus Clouds
C. A Computer
D. Thin Clients
Answer: A
50. In order to participate in cloud-computing, you must be using the following OS _______ .
A. Windows
B. Mac OS
C. Linux
D. All of the above
Answer: D
51. A file in HDFS that is smaller than a single block size
A. cannot be stored in hdfs
B. occupies the full block\s size.
C. can span over multiple blocks
D. occupies only the size it needs and not thefull block
Answer:
D. occupies only the size it needs and not thefull block
52. Which among the following are the duties of the NameNodes
A. manage file system namespace
B. it is responsible for storing actual data
C. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. manage file system namespace
53. If the IP address or hostname of a data node changes
A. the namenode updates the mapping between file name and block name
B. the data in that data node is lost forever
C. the namenode need not update mapping between file name and block name
D. there namenode has to be restarted
Answer:
C. the namenode need not update mapping between file name and block name
54. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in
A. the memory of thedata node
B. in the memory of thenamenode
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. the memory of thedata node
55. Which scenario demands highest bandwidth for data transfer between nodes
A. different nodes on the same rack
B. nodes on differentracks in the same data center.
C. nodes in different data centers
D. data on the same node
Answer:
C. nodes in different data centers
56. When a client contacts the namenode for accessing a file, the namenode responds with
A. size of the file requested
B. block id and hostname of all the data nodes containing that block
C. block id of the file requested
D. all of the above
Answer:
B. block id and hostname of all the data nodes containing that block
57. In HDFS the files cannot be
A. read
B. deleted
C. executed
D. archived
Answer:
C. executed
58. Which among the following is the duties of the Data Nodes
A. manage file system namespace
B. stores meta-data
C. regulates client’s access to files
D. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients
Answer:
D. perform read-write operation as per request for theclients
59. NameNode and DataNode do communicate using
A. active pulse
B. heartbeats
C. h-signal
D. data pulse
Answer:
B. heartbeats
60. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known as :
A. chunks
B. instances
C. messages
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. instances
61. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. simpledb
B. sql server
C. oracle
D. rds
Answer:
A. simpledb
62. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that
can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2 ?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic blockstore
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon elastic blockstore
63. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud
computing
A. storage
B. application
C. cpu
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
64. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage listed below
?
A. logon authentication
B. bare file
C. multiplatformsupport
D. adequate bandwidth
Answer:
A. logon authentication
65. Which of the following is open cloud storage management standard by SNIA ?
A. cdmi
B. occi
C. cea
D. adequate bandwidth
Answer:
A. cdmi
66. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most users ?
A. paas
B. iaas
C. caas
D. saas
Answer:
B. iaas
67. Which of the following service is provided by Google for online storage ?
A. drive
B. skydrive
C. dropbox
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. drive
68. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your current data or
drive ?
A. continuous dataprotection
B. open file backup
C. reverse delta backup
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. continuous dataprotection
69. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to clients as Raw
storage that can be partitioned to create volumes ?
A. block
B. file
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block
70. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown in the figure?
A. simpledb
B. rds
C. amazon ec2
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. rds
71. Point out the wrong statement.
A. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature called auto scaling
B. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services
C. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
72. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that
caches data in different physical locations?
A. amazon relationaldatabase service
B. amazon simpledb
C. amazon cloudfront
D. amazon associatesweb services
Answer:
C. amazon cloudfront
73. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database
to support your Web sites?
A. amazon elasticcompute cloud
B. amazon simplequeue service
C. amazon relationaldatabase service
D. amazon simplestorage system
Answer:
C. amazon relationaldatabase service
74. . Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database
to support your Web sites?
A. amazon elasticcompute cloud
B. amazon simplequeue service
C. amazon relationaldatabase service
D. amazon simplestorage system
Answer:
C. amazon relationaldatabase service
75. Point out the correct statement.
A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtualdisks(volume)
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 andamazon s3
C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 andamazon s3
76. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon associates web services
C. alexa web information service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon associates web services
77. Which of the following is a billing and account management service?
A. amazon elasticmapreduce
B. amazon mechanicalturk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factorauthentication
Answer:
C. amazon devpay
78. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management systems?
A. accounting
B. security
C. performance
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
D. none of thementioned
79. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built in
security?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. iaas
80. Point out the correct statement.
A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security services
B. adapting your on- premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what security mechanisms are required
C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
81. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in Service Level
Agreements?
A. logging
B. auditing
C. regulatorycompliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
82. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.
A. risk
B. errors
C. inconsistencies
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. risk
83. Point out the wrong statement.
A. you can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from direct access to shared cloud storage
B. any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than an application that is closely held on alocal area network
C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with internet applications
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with internet applications
84. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely troublesome?
A. auditing
B. data integrity
C. e-discovery for legalcompliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
85. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud Security
Alliance)?
A. scalability
B. portability andinteroperability
C. flexibility
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. portability andinteroperability
86. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing
by CSA?
A. multi-tenancy
B. identity and accessmanagement
C. virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. multi-tenancy
87. Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load
testing?
A. vmware hyperic
B. webmetrics
C. univa ud
D. tapinsystems
Answer:
B. webmetrics
88. Which of the following service provider provides the highest level of service?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
89. Point out the correct statement.
A. paas supplies the infrastructure
B. iaas adds application development frameworks, transactions, and control structures
C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management, and the user interface
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management, and the user interface
90. Which of the following functional cloud computing hardware/software stack
is the Cloud Reference Model?
A. cas
B. csa
C. sac
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cas
91. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the
vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. paas
92. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the
Service Level Agreement?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
93. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. public
94. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of infrastructure by
both vendor and customer?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
C. hybrid
95. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of security?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. public
96. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and owned by
the vendor?
A. hybrid
B. private/community
C. public
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. private/community
97. Point out the wrong statement.
A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security boundary
B. any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built into the system
C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be maintained by the customer
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
98. is an application for collecting messages sent in RSS and Atom
format from information providers.
A. google reader
B. yahoo mail
C. emailrackspace
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. google reader
99. Which of the following application is a newsreader?
A. google reader
B. bloglines
C. newsgator online
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
100. Which of the following was developed an alternative to XML syndication by
IETF?
A. atom publishingprotocol
B. atom subscribingprotocol
C. atom subscribeprotocol
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. atom publishingprotocol
101. How many technologies are used for most of the syndicated content on the
Internet?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer:
B. 2
102. Which of the following technology is used for syndicated content?
A. ajax
B. rss
C. javascript
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. rss
103. The full form of AJAX is
A. asynchronousjavascript and xml
B. another java andxml library
C. abstract json andxml
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. asynchronousjavascript and xml
104. The advantages of Ajax is
A. bandwidth utilization
B. more interactive
C. speeder retrieval ofdata
D. all of these
Answer:
D. all of these
105. which of the following are the controls of Ajax?
A. scriptmanager
B. scriptmanagerproxy
C. updateprogress
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
106. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud
computing?
A. storage
B. application
C. cpu
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
107. Virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and then provides a pointer to
that physical resource when a request is made
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
108. Virtual Machines (VMs) are offered in cloud by
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. none of these
Answer:
C. iaas
109. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to
as
A. load performing
B. load scheduling
C. load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. load balancing
110. computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network
using virtualized resources.
A. distributed
B. cloud
C. soft
D. parallel
Answer:
B. cloud
111. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and
presenting them as a resource.
A. real
B. virtual
C. cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual
112. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known .
A. virtual machine
B. cloud storage
C. paas
D. soa
Answer:
A. virtual machine
113. virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a
virtual network that can be managed.
A. storage
B. network
C. software
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. network
114. is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of a virtual
machine.
A. ami
B. emi
C. imi
D. application services
Answer:
A. ami
115. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts with the
hardware.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
B. false
116. Which of the following provide system resource access to virtual machines ?
A. vmm
B. vmc
C. vnm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. vmm
117. An operating system running on a Type VM is a full virtualization.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1
118. Point out the wrong statement.
A. in gmail, you can construct searches with multiple operators using the advanced search feature
B. rss and atom are prototypes of a class of xml specifications called synchronized markup languages
C. a typical rss document or feed contains text and metadata that can be used to indicate publication dates
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. rss and atom are prototypes of a class of xml specifications called synchronized markup languages
119. Which of the following file format is used by RSS module?
A. xml
B. smil
C. json
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. xml
120. What makes Ajax unique?
A. it works as a stand- alone web-development tool
B. it works the same with all webbrowsers
C. it uses c++ as its programminglanguage
D. it makes data requestsasynchronously
Answer:
D. it makes data requestsasynchronously
121. JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.
A. microsoft
B. navigator
C. livewire
D. none
Answer:
C. livewire
122. Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved through a mapping mechanism where a logical storage address is translated into a
physical storage address?
A. storage
B. network
C. software
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. storage
123. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a virtual network can create virtual network interfaces
B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process
C. you can make machine images of systems in the configuration that you want to deploy or take snapshots of working virtualmachines
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process
124. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by Amazon for
A. private use
B. public use
C. pay-per-use
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
125. Which of the following runs on Xen Hypervisor?
A. azure
B. aws ec2
C. aws ec3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. aws ec2
126. Virtualization allows sharing the resources of hardware across multiple a environments.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
127. A virtual machine running on a server of a particular make cannot be relocated to b
the server of another make.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
B. false
128. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example of
A. software as a service(saas)
B. infrastructure as aservice (iaas)
C. platform as a service(paas)
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. infrastructure as aservice (iaas)
129. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor ?
A. wind river simics
B. virtual server 2005r2
C. kvm
D. lynxsecure
Answer:
D. lynxsecure
130. Which of the following is Type 2 VM ?
A. virtuallogix vlx
B. vmware esx
C. xen
D. lynxsecure
Answer:
C. xen
131. In the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be independent
of the underlying system hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
C. emulation
132. In a scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly
onto the hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. full virtualization
133. Full virtualization Full virtualization
A. simulates hardware within software
B. has vms with the same os
C. clones images
D. alters the guest os
Answer:
A. simulates hardware within software
134. What are the goals of Hypervisor design?
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. isolation
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
135. Bare metal hypervisor sits on top of
A. physical hardware
B. virtualized hardware
C. operating system
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. physical hardware
136. If virtualization occurs at application level, OS level and hardware level, then such service in cloud is
A. iaas
B. saas
C. paas
D. no such service
Answer:
B. saas
137. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service Request
iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision
A. ii, i, iii, iv
B. i, ii, iii & iv
C. ii, iii, iv & i
D. ii, iv, iii & i
Answer:
D. ii, iv, iii & i
138. where a VM can be moved from one physical
machine to another even as it continues to execute.
A. load balancing
B. migration
C. live migration
D. server consolidation
Answer:
C. live migration
139. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure ?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. type 1
140. Point out the wrong statement :
A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical address to a physicaladdress
B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on different hosts
C. google uses hardware virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. google uses hardware virtualization
141. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost layer for the following figure ?
A. host operating system
B. software
C. vm
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. host operating system
142. Point out the wrong statement :
A. some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are referred to as type 2 or hosted vm
B. all cpus support virtual machines
C. on a type 2 vm, a software interface is created that emulates the devices with which a system would normallyinteract
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. all cpus support virtual machines
143. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in hypervisor such as
Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. paravirtualization
144. Point out the wrong statement :
A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host vm
B. guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally faster than other virtualization schemes
C. a process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a process
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host vm
145. Which of the following operating system support operating system
virtualization ?
A. windows nt
B. sun solaris
C. windows xp
D. compliance
Answer:
B. sun solaris
146. Which of the following allows a virtual machine to run on two or more physical processors at the same time ?
A. virtual smp
B. distributed resource scheduler
C. vnetwork distributed switch
D. storage vmotion
Answer:
A. virtual smp
147. VMM is
A. a virtual machine
B. hardware
C. host os
D. a layer of software
Answer:
D. a layer of software
148. VMM facilitates sharing of
A. memory & i/o
B. cpu, memory & i/o
C. cpu & memory
D. i/o & cpu
Answer:
B. cpu, memory & i/o
149. The BEST way to define Virtualization in cloud computing is
A. virtualization enables simulating compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
B. virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying physical hardware
C. virtualization enables realization of compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
D. virtualization enables emulating compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
Answer:
B. virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying physical hardware
150. Which one is NOT generally a change after Virtualization?
A. virtual machines can be provisioned to any system
B. hardware- independence of operating system and applications
C. can manage os and application as a single unit by encapsulating them into virtual machines.
D. software and hardware tightly coupled
Answer:
D. software and hardware tightly coupled
151. Which one of the statement is generally NOT correct for Microkernelized Hypervisor?
A. drivers run within guests
B. simple partitioning functionality
C. increase reliability and minimize lowest level of the tcb
D. contains its own drivers model
Answer:
D. contains its own drivers model
152. In multiple VM processing, CPU is alloted to the different processes in form of:
A. space slices by the os
B. different cpus are allocated to differentprocesses
C. time slices by the os
D. frequecy slices by the os
Answer:
A. space slices by the os
153. Appear IQ, Mendix, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Google App Engine and Heroku, are some of the example of providing services for:
A. iaas
B. saas
C. paas
D. none
Answer:
C. paas
154. Which one of the cases not impacting major system availability
A. service performance degrade
B. service outage by unplanned downtime
C. live migration of vm for load balancing
D. service outage by planned downtime
Answer:
C. live migration of vm for load balancing
155. Which of the following is the central application in the AWS portfolio?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
156. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system for distributed Internet-based applications?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
B. amazon simple queue service
157. Which of the following feature is used for scaling of EC2 sites?
A. auto replica
B. auto scaling
C. auto ruling
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. auto scaling
158. Which of the following provides a bridge between a company’s existing network and the AWS cloud?
A. amazon virtual private cloud
B. aws premium support
C. amazon fulfillment web services
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. amazon virtual private cloud
159. Point out the wrong statement.
A. between fba and fws, you can create a nearly virtual store on amazon.com
B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio
C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called quick starts that makes it easy to implement
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio
160. Which of the following is Amazon’s technical support and consulting business?
A. amazon virtual private cloud
B. aws premium support
C. amazon fulfillment web services
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. aws premium support
161. Which of the following is a method for bidding on unused EC2 capacity based
on the current spot price?
A. on-demand instance
B. reserved instances
C. spot instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. spot instance
162. Point out the wrong statement.
A. the standard instances are not suitable for standard server applications
B. high memory instances are useful for large data throughput applications such as sql server databases and data caching and retrieval
C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called quick starts that makes it easy to implement
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. the standard instances are not suitable for standard server applications
163. Which of the following instance has an hourly rate with no long-term
commitment?
A. on-demand instance
B. reserved instances
C. spot instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. on-demand instance
164. Which of the following tool is used for measuring I/O of your systems to
estimate these transaction costs?
A. ebs
B. iostat
C. esw
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. iostat
165. Point out the wrong statement.
A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly sized s3bucket
B. an ebs volume can be used as an instance boot partition
C. ebs boot partitions can be stopped and started, and they offer fast ami boottimes
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly sized s3bucket
166. Which of the following is also referred to edge computing?
A. cloudwave
B. cloudfront
C. cloudspot
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. cloudfront
167. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several
products.
A. aws
B. asq
C. amr
D. awes
Answer:
A. aws
168. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual
machines on Amazon’s server farm.
A. azure
B. ec2
C. ec5
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
B. ec2
169. is the central application in the AWS portfolio.
A. amazon simple queue service
B. amazon elastic compute cloud
C. amazon simple notification service
D. all of the above
Answer:
B. amazon elastic compute cloud
170. Which of the following is a means for accessing human researchers or consultants to help solve problems on a contractual or temporary basis?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
B. amazon mechanical turk
171. Point out the wrong statement.
A. virtual private servers can provision virtual private clouds connected through virtual private networks
B. amazon web services is based on soa standards
C. starting in 2012, amazon.com made its web service platform available to developers on a usage-basis model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. starting in 2012, amazon.com made its web service platform available to developers on a usage-basis model
172. Point out the correct statement.
A. sql server is having enormous impact on cloud computing
B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as aservice (iaas)
C. ec2 is a platform as a service (paas) market
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as aservice (iaas)
173. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that
can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic blockstore
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon elastic blockstore
174. Which of the following allows merchants to fill orders through Amazon.com fulfillment service?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon fulfillment web services
C. amazon relational database service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
B. amazon fulfillment web services
175. Point out the correct statement.
A. with ec2, you can launch and run server instances called amazon machine images (amis) running different operating systems such as red hat linux
B. a machine image is the software and operating system running on top of the instance
C. a machine image may be thought of as the contents of a boot drive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
176. Which of the following provides access for developers to charge Amazon’s
customers for their purchases?
A. fws
B. fas
C. fps
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. fps
177. Which of the following uses an authentication device?
A. amazon elasticmapreduce
B. amazon mechanicalturk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factorauthentication
Answer:
D. multi-factorauthentication
178. Which of the following is a batch processing application?
A. ibm smash
B. ibm websphereapplication server
C. condor
D. windows mediaserver
Answer:
C. condor
179. Point out the correct statement.
A. security can be set through passwords, kerberos tickets, or certificates
B. secure access to your ec2 amis is controlled by passwords, kerberos, and 509 certificates
C. most of the system image templates that amazon aws offers are based on red hat linux
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
180. How many EC2 service zones or regions exist?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer:
D. 4
181. Amazon cloud-based storage system allows you to store data objects
ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.
A. s1
B. s2
C. s3
D. s4
Answer:
C. s3
182. CloudFront supports data by performing static data transfers and
streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.
A. table caching
B. geocaching
C. index caching
D. windows mediaserver
Answer:
B. geocaching
183. Point out the correct statement.
A. a volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to allinstances
B. the advantages of an ebs boot partition are that you can have a volume up to 1tb
C. you cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. the advantages of an ebs boot partition are that you can have a volume up to 1tb
184. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. simpledb
B. sql server
C. oracle
D. rds
Answer:
A. simpledb
185. Amazon Web Services falls into which of the following cloud-computing
category?
A. platform as a service
B. software as a service
C. infrastructure as aservice
D. back-end as a service
Answer:
C. infrastructure as aservice
186. AWS reaches customers in countries.
A. 137
B. 182
C. 190
D. 86
Answer:
C. 190
187. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown in the
figure?
A. simpledb
B. rds
C. amazon ec2
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. rds
188. Point out the wrong statement.
A. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis
B. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature called auto scaling
C. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
189. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
190. Which of the following correctly describes components roughly in their order of importance from top to down?
A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3. amazon elasticblock store
B. 1. amazon elastic block store2. amazon elastic compute cloud3. amazon simplestorage system
C. 1. amazon simple storage system2. amazon elastic block store3. amazon elasticcompute cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3. amazon elasticblock store
191. Which of the following is a Web service that can publish messages from an application and deliver them to other applications or to subscribers?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
C. amazon simple notification service
192. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load Balancing?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic blockstore
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cloudwatch
193. Which of the following is an online backup and storage system?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
D. amazon simple storage system
194. is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run
virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.
A. ec2
B. azure
C. ec5
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
A. ec2
195. AMIs are operating systems running on the virtualization hypervisor.
A. yen
B. xen
C. ben
D. multi-factorauthentication
Answer:
B. xen
196. Which of the following instance class is best used for applications that are
processor or compute-intensive?
A. standard instances
B. high memoryinstances
C. high cpu instances
D. none of thementioned
Answer:
C. high cpu instances
197. Which of the following can be done with S3 buckets through the SOAP and REST APIs?
A. upload new objects to a bucket and download them
B. create, edit, or delete existing buckets
C. specify where a bucket should be stored
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
198. Which of the following operation retrieves the newest version of the object?
A. put
B. get
C. post
D. copy
Answer:
B. get
199. Which of the following statement is wrong about Amazon S3?
A. amazon s3 is highly reliable
B. amazon s3 provides large quantities of reliable storage that is highly protected
C. amazon s3 is highly available
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. amazon s3 is highly available
200. Which of the following is relational database service provided by Amazon?
A. simpledb
B. sql server
C. oracle
D. rds
Answer:
D. rds
201. Which of the following can be considered as a distributed caching system?
A. cnd
B. cdn
C. cwd
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. cdn
202. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the 5.1 database
system.
A. oracle
B. mysql
C. sql server
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. mysql
203. What are the different types of instances?
A. general purpose
B. computer optimized
C. storage optimized
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
204. The types of AMI provided by AWS are:
A. instance store backed
B. ebs backed
C. both a & b
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. both a & b
205. Storage classes available with Amazon s3 are –
A. amazon s3 standard
B. amazon s3 standard- infrequent access
C. amazon glacier
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
206. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of virtual cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known as .
A. web sphere
B. tivoli
C. nebula
D. altix
Answer:
B. tivoli
207. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an .
A. on-demand cloudcomputing service
B. on-demand cloudstorage service
C. on-demand cloudaccessing service
D. on-demand
Answer:
A. on-demand cloudcomputing service
208. Cyclone is available in two service models as follows:
A. paas and iaas
B. saas and paas
C. saas and iaas
D. all of the above
Answer:
C. saas and iaas
209. NASA created can be fifty percent more energy efficient as it turns off the computers on the network to make cloud computing efficient.
A. nebula cloud
B. cyclone cloud
C. force.com cloud
D. cern cloud
Answer:
A. nebula cloud
210. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data, CERN uses LSF
i.e. a grid and workload management solution of cloud computing platform
A. load setting facility
B. load sharing facility
C. load setting faculty
D. load assigning faculty
Answer:
B. load sharing facility
211. One of the reasons of widespread of cloud is its ability to provide resource allocation dynamically from a pool of VM resources. State True or False.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
212. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of AWS and
of GAE platforms
A. accessibility
B. mobility
C. agility
D. scalability
Answer:
C. agility
213. The Cloudlets have a ownership unlike that of Clouds.
A. centralized
B. decentralized
C. global
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. decentralized
214. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a data-center
clusters to gather and maintain data.
A. htc
B. hpc
C. hcc
D. hac
Answer:
A. htc
215. Performance metrics for HPC/HTC systems include :
A. multitaskingscalability
B. security index
C. cost effectiveness
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
216. [π=n/Ttotal=n⁄[kTo+Te(n,m)] The above equa on calculates the value of which
of the following?
A. scalability
B. throughput
C. availability
D. effectiveness
Answer:
B. throughput
217. refers to an increase in the performance by the addition of more
resources along the service layers
A. horizontal scalability
B. vertical scalability
C. diagonal scalability
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. vertical scalability
218. The percentage of time the system is up and running smoothly is referred as
.
A. system up time
B. system scalability
C. system availability
D. system efficiency
Answer:
C. system availability
219. is the technology used to search tagged objects and mobile devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the database entry
A. gps
B. cloud
C. iot
D. rfid
Answer:
D. rfid
220. RFID stand for .
A. rangeable frequency identification
B. radio fragment identification
C. radio frequency identification
D. rangeable fragment identification
Answer:
C. radio frequency identification
221. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including which of the following? i. Application Layer
ii. Sensing Layer
iii. Combination Layer
iv. Network Layer
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iv
222. tags contain battery and transmit signals autonomously
A. acitve rfid
B. passive rfid
C. battery-assistedpassive rfid
D. battery-assisted rfid
Answer:
A. acitve rfid
223. tags needs an external source to wake up the battery.
A. acitve rfid
B. passive rfid
C. battery-assisted passive rfid
D. battery-assisted active rfid
Answer:
C. battery-assisted passive rfid
224. The three major components of RFID hardware based on functionality include
:
A. rfid reader
B. reader antenna
C. reader
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
225. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee Coordinator
ii. ZigBee Router
iii. ZigBee End Device
iv. ZigBee Accessor
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iii
226. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be vulnerable
to attacks.
A. scripting
B. cross attack
C. man-in-the-middle
D. radiant
Answer:
C. man-in-the-middle
227. Process of identifying any individual
A. auditing
B. authorisation
C. authentication
D. accounting
Answer:
C. authentication
228. Process that prevents someone from denying that she accessed resource
A. accounting
B. non-repudiation
C. sniffing
D. authorisation
Answer:
B. non-repudiation
229. What security threats do employee-owned devices pose by storing corporate data and accessing corporate networks?
A. making infrastructure vulnerable to malware
B. potential for noncompliance
C. data loss
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
230. Which of the following is not a correct way to secure communication layer
A. cloud initiated communication
B. tls/ssl
C. ips(intrusion prevention system)
D. firewalls
Answer:
A. cloud initiated communication
231. Which of the following is not the component of IoT Endpoint
A. sensor
B. gateway
C. communicationmodule
D. mcu
Answer:
B. gateway
232. Which of the following makes sure that data is not changed when it not
supposed to be?
A. integrity
B. availability
C. confidentiality
D. accounting
Answer:
A. integrity
233. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be read only by
those people for whom it is intended?
A. availability
B. accounting
C. integrity
D. confidentiality
Answer:
D. confidentiality
234. What is the full form of SCADA?
A. supervisory control and document acquisition
B. supervisory control and data acquisition
C. supervisory column and data assessment
D. supervisory column and data assessment
Answer:
B. supervisory control and data acquisition
235. DCS is a
A. distributed controlsystem
B. data control system
C. data column system
D. distributed columnsystem
Answer:
A. distributed controlsystem
236. What is SCADA?
A. software
B. process
C. system
D. hardware
Answer:
B. process
237. The control in SCADA is
A. online control
B. direct control
C. supervisory control
D. automatic control
Answer:
C. supervisory control
238. When did the SCADA start?
A. 1980s
B. 1990s
C. 1970s
D. 1960s
Answer:
B. 1990s
239. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?
A. database server
B. i/o system
C. plc controller
D. sparger controller
Answer:
D. sparger controller
240. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?
A. plc
B. hmi
C. alarm task
D. i/o task
Answer:
D. i/o task
241. RFID stands for?
A. random frequencyidentification
B. radio frequencyidentification
C. random frequencyinformation
D. radio frequencyinformation
Answer:
B. radio frequencyidentification
242. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?
A. rfid
B. sensor
C. nano tech
D. server
Answer:
D. server
243. M2M is a term introduced by
A. iot service providers
B. fog computingservice providers
C. telecommunicationservice providers
D. none of these
Answer:
C. telecommunicationservice providers
244. Which of these statements regarding sensors is TRUE?
A. sensors are input devices.
B. sensors can be analog as well as digital
C. sensors respond to some external stimuli.
D. all of these
Answer:
D. all of these
245. Smart Dust can be used to measure the
A. temperature of theindustrial lathe machine
B. heat inside a computer’s cpu
C. chemical in the soil
D. strength of a solid material
Answer:
C. chemical in the soil
246. In threat modeling, what methodology used to perform risk analysis
A. dread
B. owasp
C. stride
D. dar
Answer:
A. dread
247. Out of the following which is not element of threat modelling
A. asset
B. vulnerability
C. threat
D. time
Answer:
D. time
248. Request field is present in which message format?
A. request message
B. response message
C. both request andresponse
D. neither request norresponse
Answer:
A. request message
249. CoAP is specialized for
A. internet applications
B. device applications
C. wireless applications
D. wired applications
Answer:
A. internet applications
250. Which layer is CoAP?
A. control layer
B. transport layer
C. service layer
D. application layer
Answer:
C. service layer
251. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?
A. multicast support and simplicity
B. low overhead and multicast support
C. simplicity and low overhead
D. multicast support,low over head, and simplicity
Answer:
D. multicast support,low over head, and simplicity
252. CoAP is a specialized protocol.
A. web transfer
B. power
C. application
D. resource
Answer:
A. web transfer
253. URI and content type support is which protocol feature?
A. http
B. udp
C. coap
D. spi
Answer:
C. coap
254. What is the full form of WLAN?
A. wide local areanetwork
B. wireless local areanetwork
C. wireless land accessnetwork
D. wireless local areanode
Answer:
B. wireless local areanetwork
255. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and
physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
A. ieee 802.16
B. ieee 802.3
C. ieee 802.11
D. ieee 802.15
Answer:
C. ieee 802.11
256. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ZigBee network?
A. low powerconsumption
B. easy installation.
C. high data rates.
D. unlicensed radiobands.
Answer:
C. high data rates.
257. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level of the ZigBee
software stack?
A. ieee 802.11.
B. ieee 802.15.1.
C. ieee 802.15.3.
D. ieee 802.15.4.
Answer:
D. ieee 802.15.4.
258. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?
A. transport layer
B. physical layer.
C. application supportsub-layer.
D. medium access layer
Answer:
D. medium access layer
259. What is the typical range of transmission distance in a ZigBee network?
A. 5 m.
B. 50 m.
C. 500 m.
D. 5 km
Answer:
B. 50 m.
260. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a
web application in which he/she is currently authenticated.
A. cross-site scoringscripting
B. cross-site requestforgery
C. two-factorauthentication
D. cross-site scripting
Answer:
D. cross-site scripting
261. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard interface between
A. two machines in alan
B. http client and user
C. http client andservers
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. http client andservers
262. Which of the following is not a messaging mode in CoAP?
A. confirmable
B. separate
C. direct
D. piggyback
Answer:
C. direct
263. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?
A. extension messaging and presenceprotocol
B. extensible messaging and presenceprotocol
C. extension messaging and privacy protocol
D. extensible messaging and privacy protocol
Answer:
B. extensible messaging and presenceprotocol
264. In 6LoWPAN address, how many bits are globally unique?
A. 16 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits
Answer:
C. 64 bits
265. IEEE 802.15.4 uses which of the following for accessing the channel?
A. carrier sense multiple access (csma)
B. carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (csma-cd)
C. carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (csma-ca)
D. none of these
Answer:
C. carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (csma-ca)
266. Three parts of GPS include:
A. space segment
B. control segment
C. user segment
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
267. In case of , the GPS works as a receiver, not a transmitter.
A. active tracking
B. passive tracking
C. assisted tracking
D. receiver tracking
Answer:
B. passive tracking
268. is an embedded system which meshes the computing process with the physical world in the form of an interactive as well as intelligent system
A. cloud-physical system
B. cyber-space system
C. cyber-physical system
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. cyber-physical system
269. The number of binding of a node to other actors of the graph in the graph
representation of a network is called as .
A. node degree
B. path length
C. social circle
D. bridge
Answer:
A. node degree
270. is the degree to which nodes have a common set of connections to
other nodes
A. structural hole
B. structuralequivalence
C. structural cohesion
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. structural cohesion
271. The degree to which actors are directly linked to one another through
cohesive bonds is called as .
A. closeness
B. cohesion
C. centralized
D. path length
Answer:
B. cohesion
272. The social circles are loosely coupled if there is stringency of direct contact.
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. no
Answer:
A. less
273. The measures of centrality include:
A. betweenness
B. closeness
C. degree
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
274. Arrange the stages in supply chain management:
i. Material and Equipment Supplies
ii. Delivery of Products
iii. After Sale Service and Returns
iv. Planning and Coordination
v. Manufacturing and Testing
A. iv, v, i, ii, iii
B. iv, i, v, iii, ii
C. iv, i, v, ii, iii
D. i, ii, iv, v, ii
Answer:
C. iv, i, v, ii, iii
275. Nodes in the network analysis graph represent the and the edges represent the relationships between nodes.
A. actors
B. nodes
C. users
D. both a and b
Answer:
D. both a and b
276. Which is the latest Operating System?
A. real-time os
B. desktop os
C. mainframe os
D. cloud os
Answer:
D. cloud os
277. JOES stands for
A. joint expensive operating system
B. just expensive operating system
C. just enough operating system
D. joined environmental operating system
Answer:
C. just enough operating system
278. Responsibility of OS developers to add new feature in existing OS are
A. more reliability
B. convenience and security
C. compatibility
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
279. In future, companies wont worry about the capital for large data center because of
A. saas solution
B. paas solution
C. iaas solution
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. paas solution
280. is an autonomic cloud engine whose basic aim is to realize a virtual component of cloud with computing capability
A. cometcloud
B. asteroidcloud
C. starcloud
D. planetcloud
Answer:
A. cometcloud
281. CometCloud supports policy based autonomic and
A. cloudbursting
B. cloudbridging
C. none
D. both a and b
Answer:
D. both a and b
282. Which are the three conceptual layers in CometCloud?
A. development, application, physical
B. infrastructure, dynamic, static
C. transport, network, programming
D. programming, service, infrastructure
Answer:
D. programming, service, infrastructure
283. In Comet, a tuple is a simple string
A. java
B. python
C. xml
D. html
Answer:
C. xml
284. Which of the following policies is not mentioned in ‘not to violate’ regarding CloudBurst?
A. deadline-based
B. budget-based
C. quality-based
D. workload-based
Answer:
C. quality-based
285. The cloud media services are:
A. cloud gaming
B. experiencing multi-screens
C. image processing
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
286. KPI stands for
A. key practices in industry
B. key performance index
C. key performance indicators
D. key parameters in information
Answer:
C. key performance indicators
287. SEEP is used in
A. energy optimization
B. multimedia
C. information leakage
D. cost reduction
Answer:
A. energy optimization
288. SEEP stands for
A. system end to end protocol
B. static environmental execution process
C. symbolic execution and energy profiles
D. state execution and energy profiles
Answer:
C. symbolic execution and energy profiles
289. Keywords in Docker are
A. develop, ship, run anywhere
B. create, export
C. transport, cloud
D. user, data, privacy
Answer:
A. develop, ship, run anywhere
290. Docker can simplify both, and
A. process, state
B. behavior, aspect
C. workflows, communication
D. all of the above
Answer:
C. workflows, communication
291. Basic approach of Docker as a company is:
A. “batteries included but removable”
B. “batteries included but non-removable”
C. “batteries but chargeable”
D. “battery less execution”
Answer:
A. “batteries included but removable”
292. Which containers are used by Docker severs?
A. windows
B. android
C. linux
D. mac
Answer:
C. linux
293. Two main components in Docker are:
A. master, slave
B. client, server
C. client, master
D. all of the above
Answer:
B. client, server
294. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while executing unencrypted traffic
A. 3306
B. 53378
C. 2375
D. 2376
Answer:
C. 2375
295. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while managing encrypted traffic.
A. 3306
B. 53378
C. 2375
D. 2376
Answer:
D. 2376
296. Containers require less disk space as compared to virtual machine
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
297. There is no built-in framework in Docker for testing.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
298. Docker provides simple one-line deployment strategy.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
299. The examples of deployment tools are:
A. docker’s storm
B. new relic’s centurion
C. spotify’s helios
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
300. CNS stands for
A. consumption near sweet-spot
B. continuous network system
C. compact neural system
D. compound near sweet-sp0t
Answer:
A. consumption near sweet-spot
301. systems used to track and identify the location of objects in real time
A. geolocation
B. geographical information system (gis)
C. wireless application protocol (wap)
D. real-time location system (rtls)
Answer:
D. real-time location system (rtls)
302. gateway to the Internet optimized for mobility
A. voice portal
B. wimax
C. mobile enterprise
D. mobile portal
Answer:
D. mobile portal
303. automatically identifying a Web user’s location
A. voice portal
B. geolocation
C. sensor network
D. wimax
Answer:
B. geolocation
304. Computing capabilities embedded into objects around us (mobile and stationary)
A. pervasive computing
B. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)
C. context-aware computing
D. geolocation
Answer:
B. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)
305. Computing capabilities embedded in the environment but typically not mobile
A. mobile portal
B. pervasive computing
C. context-aware computing
D. voice portal
Answer:
B. pervasive computing
306. Vehicle mount solutions
• Handheld solutions
• Hands-free and voice solutions
A. mobile enterprise
B. wireless wide area network (wwan)
C. typical mobile devices used in warehouses
D. interactive voice response (ivr)
Answer:
C. typical mobile devices used in warehouses
307. A collection of nodes capable of environmental sensing, local computation, and communication with its peers or with other higher performance nodes
A. voice portal
B. mobile portal
C. geolocation
D. sensor network
Answer:
D. sensor network
308. short-range radio frequency communication technology for remotely storing and retrieving data using devices called tags and readers
A. network-based positioning
B. real-time location system (rtls)
C. radio frequency identification (rfid)
D. wireless wide area network (wwan)
Answer:
C. radio frequency identification (rfid)
309. a technology that offers Internet browsing from wireless devices
A. real-time location system (rtls)
B. wireless wide area network (wwan)
C. wireless local area network (wlan)
D. wireless application protocol (wap)
Answer:
D. wireless application protocol (wap)
310. delivery of m-commerce transactions to individuals in a specific location, at a specific time
A. location-based m- commerce (l-commerce)
B. context-aware computing
C. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)
D. network-based positioning
Answer:
A. location-based m- commerce (l-commerce)
311. Calculating the location of a mobile device from signals sent by the device to
base stations
A. personal areanetwork (pan)
B. terminal-basedpositioning
C. pervasive computing
D. network-basedpositioning
Answer:
B. terminal-basedpositioning
312. a wireless technology, designed to provide Internet access across metro areas to fixed (not moving) users. It is considered wireless broadband technology
A. voice portal
B. mobile portal
C. wimax
D. geolocation
Answer:
C. wimax
313. a website with an audio interface that can be accessed through a telephone
call
A. wimax
B. geolocation
C. mobile portal
D. voice portal
Answer:
D. voice portal
314. a wireless version of the Ethernet networking standard
A. wireless wide area network (wwan)
B. wireless local area network (wlan)
C. personal area network (pan)
D. wireless application protocol (wap)
Answer:
B. wireless local area network (wlan)
315. computer system capable of integrating, storing, editing, analyzing, sharing, and displaying geographically referenced (spatial) information
A. personal area network (pan)
B. interactive voice response (ivr)
C. real-time location system (rtls)
D. geographical information system(gis)
Answer:
D. geographical information system(gis)
316. a voice system enables users to request/receive info, enter/change data through a telephone to a computerized system
A. pervasive computing
B. real-time location system (rtls)
C. personal area network (pan)
D. interactive voice response (ivr)
Answer:
D. interactive voice response (ivr)
317. a telecommunications network that offers wireless coverage over a large geographical area, typically over a cellular phone network
A. personal area network (pan)
B. wireless application protocol (wap)
C. wireless wide area network (wwan)
D. wireless local area network (wlan)
Answer:
C. wireless wide area network (wwan)
318. a wireless telecommunications network for device-to-device connections within a very short range
A. wireless wide area network (wwan)
B. personal area network (pan)
C. wireless local area network (wlan)
D. sensor network
Answer:
B. personal area network (pan)
319. ability to detect and react to a set of environmental variables that is described as context (which can be sensor info or users’ attitudes)
A. mobile portal
B. context-aware computing
C. pervasive computing
D. network-based positioning
Answer:
B. context-aware computing
320. Which of the following is a specification for multicast discovery on a LAN?
A. ws-agent
B. ws-discovery
C. ws-soap
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. ws-discovery
321. as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself.
A. model
B. computing
C. software
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. computing
322. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?
A. polymorphism
B. abstraction
C. virtualization
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. virtualization
323. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing.
A. internet
B. softwares
C. web service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. internet
324. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?
A. web applications
B. intranet
C. hadoop
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. hadoop
325. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a resource.
A. real
B. virtual
C. cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual
326. is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based computing service.
A. remote sensing
B. remote invocation
C. cloud computing
D. private computing
Answer:
C. cloud computing
327. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
328. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
A. cloud providers
B. clients
C. end users
D. cloud users
Answer:
B. clients
329. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the uses these services pay-as-you-go model.
A. cloud providers
B. clients
C. end users
D. cloud users
Answer:
D. cloud users
330. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
C. protected
331. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on- demand basis.
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
B. public
332. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
D. hybrid
333. enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
A. visualization
B. virtualization
C. migration
D. virtual transfer
Answer:
B. virtualization
334. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
A. skeleton
B. grid
C. linear
D. template
Answer:
B. grid
335. Saas stands for?
A. software as a service
B. system software and services
C. software as a system
D. system as a service
Answer:
A. software as a service
336. In distributed system, each processor has its own
A. local memory
B. clock
C. both local memory and clock
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. both local memory and clock
337. If one site fails in distributed system then
A. the remaining sites can continue operating
B. all the sites will stop working
C. directly connected sites will stop working
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. the remaining sites can continue operating
338. Network operating system runs on
A. server
B. every system in the network
C. both server and every system in the network
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. server
339. Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing remote data in a distributed-memory parallel system?
A. cache coherence scheme
B. computation migration
C. remote procedure call
D. message passing
Answer:
B. computation migration
340. Logical extension of computation migration is
A. process migration
B. system migration
C. thread migration
D. data migration
Answer:
A. process migration
341. Processes on the remote systems are identified by
A. host id
B. host name and identifier
C. identifier
D. process id
Answer:
B. host name and identifier
342. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by
A. polling
B. handshaking
C. token passing
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. handshaking
343. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is called
A. scalability
B. tolerance
C. capacity
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. scalability
344. Internet provides for remote login.
A. telnet
B. http
C. ftp
D. rpc
Answer:
A. telnet
345. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in 2010?
A. cloud backup
B. web applications
C. business applications
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
346. Point out the correct statement.
A. google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide
B. flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so the system could accommodate peak traffic
C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
347. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?
A. on-demand self-service
B. broad network access
C. resource pooling
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. on-demand self-service
348. The is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
A. pos
B. qos
C. sos
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. qos
349. Point out the wrong statement.
A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
B. the cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software vendors to create productivity applications
C. a client can provision computer resources without the need for interaction with cloud service provider personnel
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
350. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent that is intrinsic in their WAN connectivity.
A. propagation
B. latency
C. noise
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. latency
351. Cloud computing is a system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. reliable
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. stateless
352. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud computing?
A. security
B. storage
C. scalability
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. security
353. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your in the face of government actions.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. privacy
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. privacy
354. Which of the following architectural standards is working with cloud computing industry?
A. service-oriented architecture
B. standardized web services
C. web-application frameworks
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. service-oriented architecture
355. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system for distributed Internet- based applications?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
B. amazon simple queue service
356. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic block store
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon elastic block store
357. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load Balancing?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic block store
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cloudwatch
358. Which of the following cloud storage is mainly meant for developers and to support applications built using Web services?
A. managed
B. unmanaged
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. managed
359. Point out the correct statement.
A. cloud storage may be broadly categorized into four major classes of storage
B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
360. Which of the following is the form of unmanaged cloud storage?
A. xdrive
B. omnidrive
C. idrive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
361. Which of the following is an example of an unmanaged storage utility set up to do automated backups?
A. xdrive
B. omnidrive
C. freedrive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
362. Point out the wrong statement.
A. unmanaged storage is reliable
B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use
C. most of the user-based applications that work with cloud storage are of unmanaged type
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use
363. Which of the following factors led to the demise of many of the early SSPs and to many hosted file services?
A. the dot.com bust in 2000
B. the inability of file-hosting companies to successfully monetize online storage
C. the continued commoditization of large disk drives
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
364. Which of the following is the simplest unmanaged cloud storage device?
A. file transfer utility
B. antivirus utility
C. online image utility
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. file transfer utility
365. The service FreeDrive is storage that allows users to view the content of others.
A. facebook
B. twitter
C. whatsapp
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. facebook
366. Which of the following file transfer utility creates a shared folder metaphor using a Web service?
A. dropbox
B. skype
C. drive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dropbox
367. Which of the following offers Storage size of 10GB free t0 100 GB paid?
A. adrive
B. 4shared
C. badongo
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. 4shared
368. Point out the correct statement.
A. describes a standard method for requesting services from distributed components and managing the results
B. soa provides the translation and management layer in an architecture that removes the barrier for a client obtaining desired services
C. with soa, clients and components can be written in different languages and can use multiple messaging protocols
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
369. Which of the following is a repeatable task within a business process?
A. service
B. bus
C. methods
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. service
370. Which of the following describes a message-passing taxonomy for a component- based architecture that provides services to clients upon demand?
A. soa
B. ebs
C. gec
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. soa
371. Which of the following is used to define the service component that performs the service?
A. wsdl
B. scdl
C. xml
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. scdl
372. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the service interface, how to bind information, and the nature of the component’s service or endpoint?
A. wsdl
B. scdl
C. xml
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. wsdl
373. Which of the following provides commands for defining logic using conditional statements?
A. xml
B. ws-bpel
C. json
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. ws-bpel
374. Which of the following is used as middleware layer in the following figure?
A. xml
B. esb
C. uddi
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. esb
375. To publish a REST service with Spring.
A. publishing an application’s data as a rest service
B. accessing data from third-party rest services
C. none of the mentioned
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
376. Publishing an application’s data as a REST service requires.
A. @requestmapping
B. @pathvariable
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
377. Spring supports a series of mechanisms to generate a REST service payload.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
378. Annotation added as an input parameter to the handler method.
A. @pathvariable
B. @path
C. @pathlocale
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. @pathvariable
379. Notation for defining REST endpoints.
A. { }
B. *
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
380. General-purpose class that allows a response to be rendered using a marshaller.
A. marshallingview
B. marshalling
C. view
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. marshallingview
381. Marshalling is the process of transforming an in-memory representation of an object into a data format.a
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
382. The marshaller used by MarshallingView belongs to one of a series of XML marshallers.
A. jaxb2marshaller
B. xmlbeansmarshaller
C. castormarshalle
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
383. To configure Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller we require.
A. classestobebound
B. contextpath
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
384. In the case of classesToBeBound, the classes assigned to this property, indicate the class (i.e., object) structure that is to be transformed into XML.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
385. Accessing a third-party REST service inside a Spring application.
A. resttemplate class
B. viewresolver
C. internalviewresolver
D. view
Answer:
A. resttemplate class
386. REST service end point comprises an address.
A. starts with http:// and ends with ?
B. starts with http:// and ends with &
C. no certain url is specified
D. depends upon the platform used
Answer:
A. starts with http:// and ends with ?
387. XML tag which represents information related to a REST service request.
A. result
B. title
C. none of the mentioned
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
388. RestTemplate class method which performs an HTTP HEAD operation.
A. headforheaders(string, object…)
B. getforobject(string, class, object…)
C. postforlocation(string, object, object…)
D. postforobject(string, object, class, object…)
Answer:
A. headforheaders(string, object…)
389. A web service contract is described using :-
A. web services description language
B. web services description
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. web services description language
390. There are two approaches to developing a web service, depending on whether you define the contract first or last.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
391. In contrast, the contract-first approach encourages you to think of the service contract first in terms of :-
A. xml
B. xml schema(.xsd)
C. wsdl
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
392. In some cases, it’s also hard to map an object to XML (e.g., an object graph with cyclic references) because there’s actually an impedance mismatch between an object model and an XML model.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
393. Service exporters that can export a bean as a remote service based on the :-
A. rmi
B. hessian
C. burlap
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
394. 3 WEB SERVICES
A. true
B. false
Answer:
B. false
395. The standard for deploying web services on the Java EE platform as of Java EE 1.4:-
A. jax-rpc
B. jax
C. rpc
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. jax-rpc
396. To send objects across the wire, beans need to be encoded using the Java Architecture for XML Binding (JAXB).
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
397. If you are deploying into a Java EE 5 (or better) container, you may simply create a bean that is annotated with:-
A. javax.jws.webservice
B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
398. If you are using the JAX-RS Reference Implementation, this intermediary step will involve a tool called wsgen.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
399. Spring provides a factory that can export beans annotated with:-
A. javax.jws.webservice
B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
400. Exposing a stand-alone SOAP endpoint using the:-
A. simplejaxwsserviceexporter
B. jax-ws
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
401. Tomcat doesn’t support JAX-WS by itself.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
402. CXF represents the consolidation of the Celtix and XFire projects, which each had useful SOAP support.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
403. Factory to use our Spring bean as the implementation:-
A. jaxws:end
B. jaxws:endpoint
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. jaxws:endpoint
404. client() class provides to create topics.
A. software
B. classes
C. methods
D. batch
Answer:
C. methods
405. method publishes messages to pub/sub.
A. client()
B. publish()
C. server()
D. batch()
Answer:
B. publish()
406. How many arguments are accepted by publish()?
A. 5 arguments
B. 3 arguments
C. 1 argument
D. 2 arguments
Answer:
D. 2 arguments
407. Does publish() method accepts arbitrary arguments.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
408. The topic in the publish method is in which form?
A. binomial form
B. canonical form
C. nominal form
D. message form
Answer:
B. canonical form
409. The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of
A. bits
B. bytes
C. word
D. nibble
Answer:
B. bytes
410. error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.
A. typeerror
B. error
C. linker error
D. compiler error
Answer:
A. typeerror
411. What do we call string in python 2?
A. str
B. unicode
C. strs
D. unicades
Answer:
B. unicode
412. When you publish a message is automatically created?
A. client
B. server
C. batch
D. server
Answer:
C. batch
413. When the batch is created, it begins a countdown that publishes the batch once sufficient time has elapsed.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
414. What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?
A. 0.5 seconds
B. 0.05 seconds
C. 1.5 seconds
D. 1 second
Answer:
B. 0.05 seconds
415. Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the interface.
A. batch
B. client
C. server
D. future
Answer:
D. future
416. Point out the wrong statement.
A. abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared, ubiquitous access
B. virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is made
C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users
417. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing?
A. storage
B. application
C. cpu
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
418. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as
A. load performing
B. load scheduling
C. load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. load balancing
419. Point out the correct statement.
A. a client can request access to a cloud service from any location
B. a cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to an instance based on conditions
C. computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with each machine being assigned a workload
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
420. Which of the following software can be used to implement load balancing?
A. apache mod_balancer
B. apache mod_proxy_balancer
C. f6’s bigip
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. apache mod_proxy_balancer
421. Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?
A. connections through intelligent switches
B. dns
C. storage resources
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
422. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?
A. workload managers
B. workspace managers
C. rackserve managers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. workload managers
423. A is a combination load balancer and application server that is a server placed between a firewall or router.
A. abc
B. acd
C. adc
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. adc
424. Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark in the following figure?
A. abstraction
B. virtualization
C. mobility pattern
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtualization
425. In memory-mapped I/O
A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space
B. the i/o devices have a separate address space
C. the memory and i/o devices have an associated address space
D. a part of the memory is specifically set aside for the i/o operation
Answer:
A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space
426. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is
A. star bus structure
B. multiple bus structure
C. single bus structure
D. node to node bus structure
Answer:
C. single bus structure
427. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a separate 16 bit address space for the I/O devices.
A. false
B. true
Answer:
B. true
428. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is
A. the former offers faster transfer of data
B. the devices connected using i/o mapping have a bigger buffer space
C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines
D. no advantage as such
Answer:
C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines
429. The system is notified of a read or write operation by
A. appending an extra bit of the address
B. enabling the read or write bits of the devices
C. raising an appropriate interrupt signal
D. sending a special signal along the bus
Answer:
D. sending a special signal along the bus
430. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and the processor we use
A. buffer spaces
B. status flags
C. interrupt signals
D. exceptions
Answer:
B. status flags
431. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends a signal when it is ready is?
A. exceptions
B. signal handling
C. interrupts
D. dma
Answer:
C. interrupts
432. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is
A. interrupts
B. memory mapping
C. program-controlled i/o
D. dma
Answer:
D. dma
433. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as
A. polling
B. inspection
C. reviewing
D. echoing
Answer:
A. polling
434. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. a layered-style program is divided into an array of modules or layers
B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of services provided by the layer “above”
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of services provided by the layer “above”
435. What is Relaxed Layered Style?
A. each layer can be constrained to use only the layer directly below it
B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to use all the layers below it
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to use all the layers below it
436. Which of the following is correct?
A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for a to execute correctly
B. module a calls (or invokes ) module b if b triggers execution of a
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for a to execute correctly
437. Which of the following is true with respect to layered architecture?
A. each layer is allowed to depend on the layer above it being present and correct
B. a layer may call other layers above and below it, as long as it uses them
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
438. What is Onion diagram illustrates?
A. it illustrates the connection between the layers in communications protocols, such as the international standards organization open systems interconnection (iso osi) model,or the layers in user interface and windowing systems, such as the x window system
B. it often illustrates operating system layers, with the kernel at the core
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
439. In particular, layers have which of the following characteristics?
A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle of cohesion
B. layers doesn’t support information hiding
C. layers are constrained to use only above layers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle of cohesion
440. What are the drawbacks for Layers?
A. it is often necessary to pass data through many layers, which can slow performance significantly
B. layers support information hiding
C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers
441. Which of the following is correct?
A. layers are not strongly coupled to the layers above them
B. each layer is strongly coupled only to the layer immediately below it
C. overall layered-style architectures are loosely coupled
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
442. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud Computing?
A. utility type of delivery
B. elasticity
C. low barrier to entry
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
443. Point out the correct statement.
A. service level agreements (slas) is small aspect of cloud computing
B. cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing
C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
444. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low margins and usually low risk are
A. high touch
B. low touch
C. moderate touch
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. low touch
445. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the as a Service model.
A. iaas
B. caas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. iaas
446. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a datacenter with the ability to provision hardware and software
B. high touch applications are best done on- premises
C. the google app engine follows iaas
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. the google app engine follows iaas
447. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and applications to the service, the model shifts to model.
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
448. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service model?
A. iaas
B. caas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. paas
449. is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an ongoing basis.
A. utility
B. elasticity
C. low barrier to entry
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. utility
450. feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all possible transactions.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. elasticity
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. elasticity
451. enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-processing applications.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. elasticity
D. utility
Answer:
A. scalability
452. A service provider gets the same benefits from a composable system that a user does.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. paas
453. Point out the correct statement.
A. cloud architecture can couple software running on virtualized hardware in multiple locations to provide an on-demand service
B. cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to manage interprocess communications
C. platforms are used to create more complex software
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
454. Which of the following is the property of the composable component?
A. stateful
B. stateless
C. symmetric
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. stateless
455. From the standpoint of a it makes no sense to offer non-standard machine instances to customers.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. iaas
Answer:
D. iaas
456. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter
B. a composable component must be modular
C. a composable component must be stateless
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter
457. A service provider reselling a may have the option to offer one module to customize the information.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. saas
Answer:
D. saas
458. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in cloud computing?
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. saas
Answer:
D. saas
459. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service provider?
A. a larger pool of qualified developers
B. more reliable operation
C. a logical design methodology
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
460. Point out the wrong statement.
A. platforms represent nearly the full cloud software stack
B. a platform in the cloud is a software layer that is used to create higher levels of service
C. platforms often come replete with tools and utilities to aid in application design and deployment
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
461. allows different operating systems to run in their own memory space.
A. vgm
B. vmc
C. vmm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. vmm
462. Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?
A. bagvapp
B. jcinacio
C. helpdesklive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. bagvapp
463. offers various Linux distributions upon which you can build a virtual machine.
A. bagvapp
B. jcinacio
C. helpdesklive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. jcinacio
464. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.
A. imaging
B. parallels
C. qemu
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. qemu
465. Which of the following is storage data interchange interface for stored data objects?
A. occ
B. occi
C. ocmi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. occi
466. Point out the correct statement.
A. to determine whether your application will port successfully, you should perform a functionality mapping exercise
B. cloud computing supports some application features better than others
C. cloud bursting is an overflow solution that clones the application to the cloud and directs traffic to the cloud during times of high traffic
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
467. Cloud storage data usage in the year 2020 is estimated to be percent resident by IDC.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
468. Point out the wrong statement.
A. some apis are both exposed as soap and rest
B. the role of a cloud vendor specific api has impact on porting an application
C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage
469. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most users?
A. paas
B. iaas
C. caas
D. saas
Answer:
B. iaas
470. The addition of a software package on top of a cloud storage volume makes most cloud storage offerings conform to a as a Service model.
A. software
B. platform
C. analytics
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. software
471. How many categories of storage devices broadly exist in cloud?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. 2
472. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes?
A. block
B. file
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block
473. Which of the following impose additional overhead on clients and offer faster transfer?
A. block storage
B. file storage
C. file server
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block storage
474. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that caches data in different physical locations?
A. amazon relational database service
B. amazon simpledb
C. amazon cloudfront
D. amazon associates web services
Answer:
C. amazon cloudfront
475. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web sites?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon relational database service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
C. amazon relational database service
476. Point out the correct statement.
A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3
C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3
477. Which of the following is a billing and account management service?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
C. amazon devpay
478. The properties necessary to guarantee a reliable transaction in databases and other applications is referred to as
A. base
B. acid
C. atom
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. acid
479. Which of the following is property of ACID principle?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
480. Which of the following ACID property states that the system must go from one known state to another and that the system integrity must be maintained?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
B. consistency
481. Which of the following component is required for both online and local data access in hybrid application?
A. local
B. cloud
C. both local and cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. both local and cloud
482. Which of the following factors might offset the cost of offline access in hybrid applications?
A. scalability
B. costs
C. ubiquitous access
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
483. An application that needed storage alone might not benefit from a cloud deployment at all.
A. online
B. offline
C. virtual
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. offline
484. The property states that the system must have a mechanism to recover from committed transactions should that be necessary.
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
D. durability
485. Which of the following property defines a transaction as something that cannot be subdivided and must be completed or abandoned as a unit?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
A. atomicity
486. Which of the following is a core management feature offered by most cloud management service products?
A. support of different cloud types
B. creation and provisioning of different types of cloud resources, such as machine instances, storage, or staged applications
C. performance reporting including availability and uptime, response time, resource quota usage, and other characteristics
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
487. Point out the correct statement.
A. eucalyptus and rackspace both use amazon ec2 and s3 services
B. the rightscale user interface provides real-time measurements of individual server instances
C. rightscale server templates and the rightscript technology are highly configurable and can be run under batch control
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
488. Which of the following is an industry organization that develops industry system management standards for platform interoperability?
A. dmtf
B. dms
C. ebs
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dmtf
489. Which of the following is used to extend CIM to virtual computer system management?
A. ovf
B. vman
C. ocsi
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. vman
490. Which of the following initiative tries to provide a way of measuring cloud computing services along dimension like cost?
A. cce
B. occi
C. smi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. smi
491. Which of the following is open and both hypervisor and processor-architecture- agnostic?
A. dell scalent
B. cloudkick
C. elastra
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dell scalent
492. Which of the following is a workflow control and policy based automation service by CA?
A. ca cloud optimize
B. ca cloud orchestrate
C. ca cloud insight
D. ca cloud compose
Answer:
B. ca cloud orchestrate
493. Which of the following monitors the performance of the major cloud-based services in real time in Cloud Commons?
A. cloudwatch
B. cloudsensor
C. cloudmetrics
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. cloudsensor
494. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built in security?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. iaas
495. Point out the correct statement.
A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security services
B. adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what security mechanisms are required and mapping those to controls that exist in your chosen cloud service provider
C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
496. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in Service Level Agreements?
A. logging
B. auditing
C. regulatory compliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
497. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.
A. risk
B. errors
C. inconsistencies
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. risk
498. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely troublesome?
A. auditing
B. data integrity
C. e-discovery for legal compliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
499. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?
A. scalability
B. portability and interoperability
C. flexibility
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. portability and interoperability
500. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing by CSA?
A. multi-tenancy
B. identity and access management
C. virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. multi-tenancy
501. Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load testing?
A. vmware hyperic
B. webmetrics
C. univa ud
D. tapinsystems
Answer:
B. webmetrics
502. Which of the following is application and infrastructure management software for hybrid multi-clouds?
A. vmware hyperic
B. webmetrics
C. univa ud
D. tapinsystems
Answer:
C. univa ud
503. Which of the following is a compliance standard?
A. pci-dss
B. hippa
C. glba
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
504. HTTP is a protocol
A. stateful
B. unidirectional
C. bidirectional
D. full dulpex
Answer:
B. unidirectional
505. websocket is a Protocol
A. stateful
B. bidirectional
C. connection oriented
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
506. Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go usage model?
A. accounting management
B. compliance
C. data privacy
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. accounting management
507. Point out the correct statement
A. except for tightly managed saas cloud providers
B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks
C. the low barrier to entry cannot be accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks
508. captive requires that the cloud accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
A. licensed
B. policy-based
C. variable
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. policy-based
509. Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes under subject area.
A. accounting management
B. compliance
C. data privacy
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. data privacy
510. Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring?
A. licensed
B. variable but under control
C. law
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. variable but under control
511. Network bottlenecks occur when data sets must be transferred
A. large
B. small
C. big
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. large
512. RDS is a type of database
A. sql
B. nonsql
C. simple storage
D. all of above
Answer:
A. sql
513. Dynamodb is type of storage
A. nonsql
B. sql
C. simple storage
D. all of above
Answer:
A. nonsql
514. Cloud are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience.
A. svas
B. slas
C. sals
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. slas
515. The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of those services is shared by
A. replicas
B. shards
C. tenants
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. tenants
516. is a function of the particular enterprise and application in an on- premises deployment.
A. vendor lock
B. vendor lock-in
C. vendor lock-ins
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. vendor lock-in
517. computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
A. distributed
B. cloud
C. soft
D. parallel
Answer:
B. cloud
518. . as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself
A. model
B. computing
C. software
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. computing
519. Which of the cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources
A. polymorphism
B. abstraction
C. virtualization
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. virtualization
520. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing
A. internet
B. softwares
C. web service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. internet
521. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in cloud computing?
A. saas
B. iaas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
522. Communication between services is done widely using protocol
A. rest
B. soap
C. restful
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. restful
523. Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run on a virtual machine image are referred to as
A. virtual server
B. virtual appliances
C. machine imaging
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual appliances
524. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been packaged to run on the grid of nodes.
A. ben
B. xen
C. ken
D. zen
Answer:
B. xen
525. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor
A. imaging
B. parallels
C. qemu
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. qemu
526. What is HDFS?
A. storage layer
B. batch processing engine
C. resource management layer
D. all of the above
Answer:
A. storage layer
527. Which among the following command is used to copy a directory from one node to another in HDFS?
A. rcp
B. distcp
C. dcp
D. drcp
Answer:
B. distcp
528. Which among the following is the correct statement
A. datanode manage file system namespace
B. namenode stores metadata
C. namenode stores actual data
D. all of the above
Answer:
B. namenode stores metadata
529. The namenode knows that the data node is active using a mechanism known as
A. active pulse
B. data pulse
C. heartbeats
D. h-signal
Answer:
C. heartbeats
530. What is HDFS Block in Hadoop?
A. it is the logical representation of data
B. it is the physical representation of data
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. it is the physical representation of data
531. Which of the following is the correct statement?
A. datanode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of data blocks
B. each incoming file is broken into 32 mb by defaul
C. namenode stores user data in the form of data blocks
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. datanode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of data blocks
532. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like
A. replication factor is changed
B. datanode goes down
C. data blocks get corrupted
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
533. A file in HDFS that is smaller than a single block size
A. cannot be stored in hdfs
B. occupies the full block\s size.
C. can span over multiple blocks
D. occupies only the size it needs and not the full block
Answer:
D. occupies only the size it needs and not the full block
534. Which among the following are the duties of the NameNodes
A. manage file system namespace
B. it is responsible for storing actual data
C. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. manage file system namespace
535. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in
A. the memory of the data node
B. in the memory of the namenode
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Answer:
A. the memory of the data node
536. Which scenario demands highest bandwidth for data transfer between nodes
A. different nodes on the same rack
B. nodes on different racks in the same data center.
C. nodes in different data centers
D. data on the same node
Answer:
C. nodes in different data centers
537. Which among the following is the duties of the Data Nodes
A. manage file system namespace
B. stores meta-data
C. regulates client’s access to files
D. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients
Answer:
D. perform read-write operation as per request for the clients
538. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known as :
A. chunks
B. instances
C. messages
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. instances
539. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. simpledb
B. sql server
C. oracle
D. rds
Answer:
A. simpledb
540. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2 ?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic block store
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon elastic block store
541. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing
A. storage
B. application
C. cpu
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
542. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage listed below
?
A. logon authentication
B. bare file
C. multiplatform support
D. adequate bandwidth
Answer:
A. logon authentication
543. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your current data or drive ?
A. continuous data protection
B. open file backup
C. reverse delta backup
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. continuous data protection
544. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes ?
A. block
B. file
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block
545. . Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web sites?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon relational database service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
C. amazon relational database service
546. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management systems?
A. accounting
B. security
C. performance
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
547. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.
A. risk
B. errors
C. inconsistencies
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. risk
548. Point out the wrong statement.
A. you can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from direct access to shared cloud storage
B. any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than an application that is closely held on a local area network
C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with internet applications
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with internet applications
549. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud Security Alliance)?
A. scalability
B. portability and interoperability
C. flexibility
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. portability and interoperability
550. Which of the following functional cloud computing hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?
A. cas
B. csa
C. sac
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cas
551. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. paas
552. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service Level Agreement?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
553. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. public
554. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of infrastructure by both vendor and customer?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. hybrid
555. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of security?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. public
556. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and owned by the vendor?
A. hybrid
B. private/community
C. public
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. private/community
557. Point out the wrong statement.
A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security boundary
B. any security mechanism belowthe security boundary must be built into the system
C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be maintained by the customer
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
558. is an application for collecting messages sent in RSS and Atom format from information providers.
A. google reader
B. yahoo mail
C. emailrackspace
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. google reader
559. Which of the following was developed an alternative to XML syndication by IETF?
A. atom publishing protocol
B. atom subscribing protocol
C. atom subscribe protocol
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. atom publishing protocol
560. How many technologies are used for most of the syndicated content on the Internet?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer:
B. 2
561. The full form of AJAX is
A. asynchronous javascript and xml
B. another java and xml library
C. abstract json and xml
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. asynchronous javascript and xml
562. The advantages of Ajax is
A. bandwidth utilization
B. more interactive
C. speeder retrieval of data
D. all of these
Answer:
D. all of these
563. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as
A. load performing
B. load scheduling
C. load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. load balancing
564. computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network
using virtualized resources.
A. distributed
B. cloud
C. soft
D. parallel
Answer:
B. cloud
565. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and
presenting them as a resource.
A. real
B. virtual
C. cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual
566. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known .
A. virtual machine
B. cloud storage
C. paas
D. soa
Answer:
A. virtual machine
567. virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a virtual network that can be managed.
A. storage
B. network
C. software
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. network
568. is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of a virtual machine.
A. ami
B. emi
C. imi
D. application services
Answer:
A. ami
569. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts with the hardware.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
B. false
570. An operating system running on a Type VM is a full virtualization.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1
571. What makes Ajax unique?
A. it works as a stand- alone web- development tool
B. it works the same with all web browsers
C. it uses c++ as its programming language
D. it makes data requests asynchronously
Answer:
D. it makes data requests asynchronously
572. JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.
A. microsoft
B. navigator
C. livewire
D. none
Answer:
C. livewire
573. Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved through a mapping mechanism where a logical storage address is translated into a physical storage address?
A. storage
B. network
C. software
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. storage
574. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a virtual network can create virtual network interfaces
B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process
C. you can make machine images of systems in the configuration that you want to deploy or take snapshots of working virtual machines
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. instantiating a virtual machine is a very slow process
575. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by Amazon for
A. private use
B. public use
C. pay-per-use
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
576. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example of
A. software as a service (saas)
B. infrastructure as a service (iaas)
C. platform as a service (paas)
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. infrastructure as a service (iaas)
577. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor ?
A. wind river simics
B. virtual server 2005 r2
C. kvm
D. lynxsecure
Answer:
D. lynxsecure
578. In the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be independent of the underlying system hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. emulation
579. In a scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. full virtualization
580. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service Request
iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision
A. ii, i, iii, iv
B. i, ii, iii & iv
C. ii, iii, iv & i
D. ii, iv, iii & i
Answer:
D. ii, iv, iii & i
581. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure ?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. type 2
582. where a VM can be moved from one physical machine to another even as it continues to execute.
A. load balancing
B. migration
C. live migration
D. server consolidation
Answer:
C. live migration
583. Point out the wrong statement :
A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical address to a physical address
B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on different hosts
C. google uses hardware virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. google uses hardware virtualization
584. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost layer for the
following figure ?
A. host operating system
B. software
C. vm
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. host operating system
585. Point out the wrong statement :
A. some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are referred to as type 2 or hosted vm
B. all cpus support virtual machines
C. on a type 2 vm, a software interface is created that emulates the devices with which a system would normally interact
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. all cpus support virtual machines
586. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. paravirtualization
587. Point out the wrong statement :
A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host vm
B. guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally faster than other virtualizationschemes
C. a process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a process
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host vm
588. Which of the following operating system support operating system virtualization ?
A. windows nt
B. sun solaris
C. windows xp
D. compliance
Answer:
B. sun solaris
589. In multiple VM processing, CPU is alloted to the different processes in form of:
A. space slices by the os
B. different cpus are allocated to different processes
C. time slices by the os
D. frequecy slices by the os
Answer:
A. space slices by the os
590. Point out the wrong statement.
A. between fba and fws, you can create a nearly virtual storeon amazon.com
B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio
C. fps is exposed as an api that sorts transactions into packages called quick starts that makes it easy to implement
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon plans to extend the capabilities of vpc to integrate with other systems in the amazon cloud computing portfolio
591. Which of the following is a method for bidding on unused EC2 capacity based on the current spot price?
A. on-demand instance
B. reserved instances
C. spot instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. spot instance
592. Which of the following instance has an hourly rate with no long-term commitment?
A. on-demand instance
B. reserved instances
C. spot instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. on-demand instance
593. Which of the following tool is used for measuring I/O of your systems to estimate these transaction costs?
A. ebs
B. iostat
C. esw
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. iostat
594. Point out the wrong statement.
A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly sized s3 bucket
B. an ebs volume can be used as an instance boot partition
C. ebs boot partitions can be stopped and started, and they offer fast ami boot times
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. the cost of creating an ebs volume is lesser than creating a similarly sized s3 bucket
595. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several products.
A. aws
B. asq
C. amr
D. awes
Answer:
A. aws
596. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.
A. azure
B. ec2
C. ec5
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. ec2
597. is the central application in the AWS portfolio.
A. amazon simple queue service
B. amazon elastic compute cloud
C. amazon simple notification service
D. all of the above
Answer:
B. amazon elastic compute cloud
598. Point out the correct statement.
A. sql server is having enormous impact on cloud computing
B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as a service (iaas)
C. ec2 is a platform as a service (paas) market
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure infrastructure as a service (iaas)
599. Which of the following provides access for developers to charge Amazon’s customers for their purchases?
A. fws
B. fas
C. fps
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. fps
600. Which of the following uses an authentication device?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
D. multi-factor authentication
601. Which of the following is a batch processing application?
A. ibm smash
B. ibm websphere application server
C. condor
D. windows media server
Answer:
C. condor
602. Amazon cloud-based storage system allows you to store data objects ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.
A. s1
B. s2
C. s3
D. s4
Answer:
C. s3
603. CloudFront supports data by performing static data transfers and streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.
A. table caching
B. geocaching
C. index caching
D. windows media server
Answer:
B. geocaching
604. Point out the correct statement.
A. a volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to all instances
B. the advantages of an ebs boot partitionare that you can have a volume up to 1tb
C. you cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. the advantages of an ebs boot partitionare that you can have a volume up to 1tb
605. Data stored in domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. simpledb
B. sql server
C. oracle
D. rds
Answer:
A. simpledb
606. Amazon Web Services falls into which of the following cloud-computing category?
A. platform as a service
B. software as a service
C. infrastructure as a service
D. back-end as a service
Answer:
C. infrastructure as a service
607. AWS reaches customers in _countries.
A. 137
B. 182
C. 190
D. 86
Answer:
C. 190
608. Which of the following correctly describes components roughly in their order of importance from top to down?
A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3. amazon elastic block store
B. 1. amazon elastic block store2. amazon elastic compute cloud3. amazon simple storage system
C. 1. amazon simple storage system2. amazon elastic block store3. amazon elastic compute cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1. amazon elastic compute cloud2. amazon simple storage system3. amazon elastic block store
609. is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.
A. ec2
B. azure
C. ec5
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. ec2
610. AMIs are operating systems running on the virtualization hypervisor.
A. yen
B. xen
C. ben
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
B. xen
611. Which of the following instance class is best used for applications that are processor or compute-intensive?
A. standard instances
B. high memory instances
C. high cpu instances
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. high cpu instances
612. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the 5.1 database system.
A. oracle
B. mysql
C. sql server
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. mysql
613. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of virtual cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known as .
A. web sphere
B. tivoli
C. nebula
D. altix
Answer:
B. tivoli
614. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an _.
A. on-demand cloud computing service
B. on-demand cloud storage service
C. on-demand cloud accessing service
D. on-demand
Answer:
A. on-demand cloud computing service
615. NASA created can be fifty percent more energy efficient as it turns off the computers on the network to make cloud computing efficient.
A. nebula cloud
B. cyclone cloud
C. force.com cloud
D. cern cloud
Answer:
A. nebula cloud
616. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data, CERN uses LSF
i.e. a grid and workload management solution of cloud computing platform
A. load setting facility
B. load sharing facility
C. load setting faculty
D. load assigning faculty
Answer:
B. load sharing facility
617. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of AWS and
of GAE platforms
A. accessibility
B. mobility
C. agility
D. scalability
Answer:
C. agility
618. The Cloudlets have a ownership unlike that of Clouds.
A. centralized
B. decentralized
C. global
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. decentralized
619. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a data-center clusters to gather and maintain data.
A. htc
B. hpc
C. hcc
D. hac
Answer:
A. htc
620. Performance metrics for HPC/HTC systems include :
A. multitasking scalability
B. security index
C. cost effectiveness
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
621. [π=n/Ttotal=n⁄[kTo+Te(n,m)] The above equation calculates the value of which of the following?
A. scalability
B. throughput
C. availability
D. effectiveness
Answer:
B. throughput
622. refers to an increase in the performance by the addition of more resources along the service layers
A. horizontal scalability
B. vertical scalability
C. diagonal scalability
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. vertical scalability
623. is the technology used to search tagged objects and mobile devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the database entry
A. gps
B. cloud
C. iot
D. rfid
Answer:
D. rfid
624. RFID stand for .
A. rangeable frequency identification
B. radio fragment identification
C. radio frequency identification
D. rangeable fragment identification
Answer:
C. radio frequency identification
625. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including which of the following? i. Application Layer
ii. Sensing Layer
iii. Combination Layer
iv. Network Layer
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iv
626. tags needs an external source to wake up the battery.
A. acitve rfid
B. passive rfid
C. battery-assisted passive rfid
D. battery-assisted active rfid
Answer:
C. battery-assisted passive rfid
627. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee Coordinator
ii. ZigBee Router
iii. ZigBee End Device
iv. ZigBee Accessor
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iii
628. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be vulnerable to attacks.
A. scripting
B. cross attack
C. man-in-the-middle
D. radiant
Answer:
C. man-in-the-middle
629. Which of the following is not the component of IoT Endpoint
A. sensor
B. gateway
C. communication module
D. mcu
Answer:
B. gateway
630. Which of the following makes sure that data is not changed when it not supposed to be?
A. integrity
B. availability
C. confidentiality
D. accounting
Answer:
A. integrity
631. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be read only by those people for whom it is intended?
A. availability
B. accounting
C. integrity
D. confidentiality
Answer:
D. confidentiality
632. DCS is a
A. distributed control system
B. data control system
C. data column system
D. distributed column system
Answer:
A. distributed control system
633. RFID stands for?
A. random frequency identification
B. radio frequency identification
C. random frequency information
D. radio frequency information
Answer:
B. radio frequency identification
634. M2M is a term introduced by
A. iot service providers
B. fog computing service providers
C. telecommunication service providers
D. none of these
Answer:
C. telecommunication service providers
635. Smart Dust can be used to measure the
A. temperature of the industrial lathe machine
B. heat inside a computer’s cpu
C. chemical in the soil
D. strength of a solid material
Answer:
C. chemical in the soil
636. Request field is present in which message format?
A. request message
B. response message
C. both request and response
D. neither request nor response
Answer:
A. request message
637. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?
A. multicast support and simplicity
B. low overhead and multicast support
C. simplicity and low overhead
D. multicast support, low over head, and simplicity
Answer:
D. multicast support, low over head, and simplicity
638. CoAP is a specialized protocol.
A. web transfer
B. power
C. application
D. resource
Answer:
A. web transfer
639. What is the full form of WLAN?
A. wide local area network
B. wireless local area network
C. wireless land access network
D. wireless local area node
Answer:
B. wireless local area network
640. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
A. ieee 802.16
B. ieee 802.3
C. ieee 802.11
D. ieee 802.15
Answer:
C. ieee 802.11
641. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ZigBee network?
A. low power consumption
B. easy installation.
C. high data rates.
D. unlicensed radio bands.
Answer:
C. high data rates.
642. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level of the ZigBee software stack?
A. ieee 802.11.
B. ieee 802.15.1.
C. ieee 802.15.3.
D. ieee 802.15.4.
Answer:
D. ieee 802.15.4.
643. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?
A. transport layer
B. physical layer.
C. application support sub-layer.
D. medium access layer
Answer:
D. medium access layer
644. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which he/she is currently authenticated.
A. cross-site scoring scripting
B. cross-site request forgery
C. two-factor authentication
D. cross-site scripting
Answer:
D. cross-site scripting
645. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard interface between
A. two machines in a lan
B. http client and user
C. http client and servers
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. http client and servers
646. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?
A. extension messaging and presence protocol
B. extensible messaging and presence protocol
C. extension messaging and privacy protocol
D. extensible messaging and privacy protocol
Answer:
B. extensible messaging and presence protocol
647. In case of , the GPS works as a receiver, not a transmitter.
A. active tracking
B. passive tracking
C. assisted tracking
D. receiver tracking
Answer:
B. passive tracking
648. is an embedded system which meshes the computing process with the physical world in the form of an interactive as well as intelligent system
A. cloud-physical system
B. cyber-space system
C. cyber-physical system
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. cyber-physical system
649. The number of binding of a node to other actors of the graph in the graph representation of a network is called as .
A. node degree
B. path length
C. social circle
D. bridge
Answer:
A. node degree
650. is the degree to which nodes have a common set of connections to other nodes
A. structural hole
B. structural equivalence
C. structural cohesion
D. none of the above
Answer:
C. structural cohesion
651. The degree to which actors are directly linked to one another through cohesive bonds is called as .
A. closeness
B. cohesion
C. centralized
D. path length
Answer:
B. cohesion
652. The social circles are loosely coupled if there is stringency of direct contact.
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. no
Answer:
A. less
653. Nodes in the network analysis graph represent the and the edges represent the relationships between nodes.
A. actors
B. nodes
C. users
D. both a and b
Answer:
D. both a and b
654. JOES stands for
A. joint expensive operating system
B. just expensive operating system
C. just enough operating system
D. joined environmental operating system
Answer:
C. just enough operating system
655. In future, companies wont worry about the capital for large data center because of
A. saas solution
B. paas solution
C. iaas solution
D. none of the above
Answer:
B. paas solution
656. is an autonomic cloud engine whose basic aim is to realize a virtual component of cloud with computing capability
A. cometcloud
B. asteroidcloud
C. starcloud
D. planetcloud
Answer:
A. cometcloud
657. CometCloud supports policy based autonomic and
A. cloudbursting
B. cloudbridging
C. none
D. both a and b
Answer:
D. both a and b
658. In Comet, a tuple is a simple string
A. java
B. python
C. xml
D. html
Answer:
C. xml
659. The cloud media services are:
A. cloud gaming
B. experiencing multi- screens
C. image processing
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
660. KPI stands for
A. key practices in industry
B. key performance index
C. key performance indicators
D. key parameters in information
Answer:
C. key performance indicators
661. SEEP is used in
A. energy optimization
B. multimedia
C. information leakage
D. cost reduction
Answer:
A. energy optimization
662. SEEP stands for
A. system end to end protocol
B. static environmental execution process
C. symbolic execution and energy profiles
D. state execution and energy profiles
Answer:
C. symbolic execution and energy profiles
663. Keywords in Docker are
A. develop, ship, run anywhere
B. create, export
C. transport, cloud
D. user, data, privacy
Answer:
A. develop, ship, run anywhere
664. Docker can simplify both, and
A. process, state
B. behavior, aspect
C. workflows, communication
D. all of the above
Answer:
C. workflows, communication
665. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while executing unencrypted traffic
A. 3306
B. 53378
C. 2375
D. 2376
Answer:
C. 2375
666. Docker is generally configured to use TCP port while managing encrypted traffic.
A. 3306
B. 53378
C. 2375
D. 2376
Answer:
D. 2376
667. CNS stands for
A. consumption near sweet-spot
B. continuous network system
C. compact neural system
D. compound near sweet-sp0t
Answer:
A. consumption near sweet-spot
668. short-range radio frequency communication technology for remotely storing and retrieving data using devices called tags and readers
A. network-based positioning
B. real-time location system (rtls)
C. radio frequency identification (rfid)
D. wireless wide area network (wwan)
Answer:
C. radio frequency identification (rfid)
669. delivery of m-commerce transactions to individuals in a specific location, at a specific time
A. location-based m- commerce (l- commerce)
B. context-aware computing
C. ubiquitous computing (ubicom)
D. network-based positioning
Answer:
A. location-based m- commerce (l- commerce)
670. Calculating the location of a mobile device from signals sent by the device to base stations
A. personal area network (pan)
B. terminal-based positioning
C. pervasive computing
D. network-based positioning
Answer:
B. terminal-based positioning
671. a website with an audio interface that can be accessed through a telephone call
A. wimax
B. geolocation
C. mobile portal
D. voice portal
Answer:
D. voice portal
672. computer system capable of integrating, storing, editing, analyzing, sharing, and displaying geographically referenced (spatial) information
A. personal area network (pan)
B. interactive voice response (ivr)
C. real-time location system (rtls)
D. geographical information system (gis)
Answer:
D. geographical information system (gis)
673. application of mobile computing inside the enterprise (e.g., for improved communication among employees)
A. sensor network
B. mobile enterprise
C. voice portal
D. mobile portal
Answer:
B. mobile enterprise
674. computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
A. distributed
B. cloud
C. soft
D. parallel
Answer:
B. cloud
675. as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself.
A. model
B. computing
C. software
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. computing
676. Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
A. reliability
B. productivity
C. abstraction
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. abstraction
677. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?
A. polymorphism
B. abstraction
C. virtualization
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. virtualization
678. has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing.
A. internet
B. softwares
C. web service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. internet
679. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?
A. web applications
B. intranet
C. hadoop
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. hadoop
680. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a resource.
A. real
B. virtual
C. cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual
681. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?
A. azure
B. aws
C. cloudera
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. aws
682. is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based computing service.
A. remote sensing
B. remote invocation
C. cloud computing
D. private computing
Answer:
C. cloud computing
683. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
A. cloud providers
B. clients
C. end users
D. cloud users
Answer:
B. clients
684. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the uses these services pay-as-you-go model.
A. cloud providers
B. clients
C. end users
D. cloud users
Answer:
D. cloud users
685. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
C. protected
686. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on- demand basis.
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
B. public
687. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
A. private
B. public
C. protected
D. hybrid
Answer:
D. hybrid
688. enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
A. visualization
B. virtualization
C. migration
D. virtual transfer
Answer:
B. virtualization
689. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
A. skeleton
B. grid
C. linear
D. template
Answer:
B. grid
690. Saas stands for?
A. software as a service
B. system software and services
C. software as a system
D. system as a service
Answer:
A. software as a service
691. In distributed system, each processor has its own
A. local memory
B. clock
C. both local memory and clock
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. both local memory and clock
692. If one site fails in distributed system then
A. the remaining sites can continue operating
B. all the sites will stop working
C. directly connected sites will stop working
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. the remaining sites can continue operating
693. Network operating system runs on
A. server
B. every system in the network
C. both server and every system in the network
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. server
694. Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing remote data in a distributed-memory parallel system?
A. cache coherence scheme
B. computation migration
C. remote procedure call
D. message passing
Answer:
B. computation migration
695. Logical extension of computation migration is
A. process migration
B. system migration
C. thread migration
D. data migration
Answer:
A. process migration
696. Processes on the remote systems are identified by
A. host id
B. host name and identifier
C. identifier
D. process id
Answer:
B. host name and identifier
697. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by
A. polling
B. handshaking
C. token passing
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. handshaking
698. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is called
A. scalability
B. tolerance
C. capacity
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. scalability
699. Internet provides for remote login.
A. telnet
B. http
C. ftp
D. rpc
Answer:
A. telnet
700. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in 2010?
A. cloud backup
B. web applications
C. business applications
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
701. Point out the correct statement.
A. google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide
B. flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so the system could accommodate peak traffic
C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
702. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?
A. on-demand self-service
B. broad network access
C. resource pooling
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. on-demand self-service
703. The is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
A. pos
B. qos
C. sos
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. qos
704. Point out the wrong statement.
A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
B. the cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software vendors to create productivity applications
C. a client can provision computer resources without the need for interaction with cloud service provider personnel
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
705. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent that is intrinsic in their WAN connectivity.
A. propagation
B. latency
C. noise
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. latency
706. Cloud computing is a system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. reliable
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. stateless
707. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud computing?
A. security
B. storage
C. scalability
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. security
708. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your in the face of government actions.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. privacy
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. privacy
709. Which of the following architectural standards is working with cloud computing industry?
A. service-oriented architecture
B. standardized web services
C. web-application frameworks
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. service-oriented architecture
710. Which of the following is the central application in the AWS portfolio?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
711. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system for distributed Internet- based applications?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
B. amazon simple queue service
712. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic block store
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon elastic block store
713. Which of the following feature is used for scaling of EC2 sites?
A. auto replica
B. auto scaling
C. auto ruling
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. auto scaling
714. Which of the following is a Web service that can publish messages from an application and deliver them to other applications or to subscribers?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
C. amazon simple notification service
715. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load Balancing?
A. cloudwatch
B. amazon elastic block store
C. aws import/export
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cloudwatch
716. Which of the following is an online backup and storage system?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon simple notification service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
D. amazon simple storage system
717. Which of the following cloud storage is mainly meant for developers and to support applications built using Web services?
A. managed
B. unmanaged
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. managed
718. Point out the correct statement.
A. cloud storage may be broadly categorized into four major classes of storage
B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. in unmanaged storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
719. Which of the following is the form of unmanaged cloud storage?
A. xdrive
B. omnidrive
C. idrive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
720. Which of the following is an example of an unmanaged storage utility set up to do automated backups?
A. xdrive
B. omnidrive
C. freedrive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
721. Point out the wrong statement.
A. unmanaged storage is reliable
B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use
C. most of the user-based applications that work with cloud storage are of unmanaged type
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. managed storage is relatively cheap to use
722. Which of the following factors led to the demise of many of the early SSPs and to many hosted file services?
A. the dot.com bust in 2000
B. the inability of file-hosting companies to successfully monetize online storage
C. the continued commoditization of large disk drives
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
723. Which of the following is the simplest unmanaged cloud storage device?
A. file transfer utility
B. antivirus utility
C. online image utility
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. file transfer utility
724. The service FreeDrive is storage that allows users to view the content of others.
A. facebook
B. twitter
C. whatsapp
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. facebook
725. Which of the following file transfer utility creates a shared folder metaphor using a Web service?
A. dropbox
B. skype
C. drive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dropbox
726. Which of the following offers Storage size of 10GB free t0 100 GB paid?
A. adrive
B. 4shared
C. badongo
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. 4shared
727. Point out the correct statement.
A. service oriented architecture (soa) describes a standard method for requesting services from distributed components and managing the results
B. soa provides the translation and management layer in an architecture that removes the barrier for a client obtaining desired services
C. with soa, clients and components can be written in different languages and can use multiple messaging protocols
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
728. Which of the following is a repeatable task within a business process?
A. service
B. bus
C. methods
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. service
729. Which of the following describes a message-passing taxonomy for a component- based architecture that provides services to clients upon demand?
A. soa
B. ebs
C. gec
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. soa
730. Which of the following is used to define the service component that performs the service?
A. wsdl
B. scdl
C. xml
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. scdl
731. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the service interface, how to bind information, and the nature of the component’s service or endpoint?
A. wsdl
B. scdl
C. xml
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. wsdl
732. Which of the following provides commands for defining logic using conditional statements?
A. xml
B. ws-bpel
C. json
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. ws-bpel
733. Which of the following is used as middleware layer in the following figure?
A. xml
B. esb
C. uddi
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. esb
734. To publish a REST service with Spring.
A. publishing an application’s data as a rest service
B. accessing data from third-party rest services
C. none of the mentioned
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
735. Publishing an application’s data as a REST service requires.
A. @requestmapping
B. @pathvariable
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
736. Annotation added as an input parameter to the handler method.
A. @pathvariable
B. @path
C. @pathlocale
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. @pathvariable
737. Notation for defining REST endpoints.
A. { }
B. *
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
738. General-purpose class that allows a response to be rendered using a marshaller.
A. marshallingview
B. marshalling
C. view
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. marshallingview
739. The marshaller used by MarshallingView belongs to one of a series of XML marshallers.
A. jaxb2marshaller
B. xmlbeansmarshaller
C. castormarshalle
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
740. To configure Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller we require.
A. classestobebound
B. contextpath
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
741. Annotation which allows the Jaxb2Marshaller marshaller to detect a class’s
(i.e., object’s) fields.
A. @xmlrootelement
B. @xmlroot
C. @notnull
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. @xmlrootelement
742. Accessing a third-party REST service inside a Spring application.
A. resttemplate class
B. viewresolver
C. internalviewresolver
D. view
Answer:
A. resttemplate class
743. REST service end point comprises an address.
A. starts with http:// and ends with ?
B. starts with http:// and ends with &
C. no certain url is specified
D. depends upon the platform used
Answer:
A. starts with http:// and ends with ?
744. XML tag which represents information related to a REST service request.
A. result
B. title
C. none of the mentioned
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
745. RestTemplate class method which performs an HTTP HEAD operation.
A. headforheaders(string, object…)
B. getforobject(string, class, object…)
C. postforlocation(string, object, object…)
D. postforobject(string, object, class, object…)
Answer:
A. headforheaders(string, object…)
746. A web service contract is described using :-
A. web services description language
B. web services description
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. web services description language
747. In contrast, the contract-first approach encourages you to think of the service contract first in terms of :-
A. xml
B. xml schema(.xsd)
C. wsdl
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
748. Service exporters that can export a bean as a remote service based on the :-
A. rmi
B. hessian
C. burlap
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
749. The standard for deploying web services on the Java EE platform as of Java EE 1.4:-
A. jax-rpc
B. jax
C. rpc
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. jax-rpc
750. If you are deploying into a Java EE 5 (or better) container, you may simply create a bean that is annotated with:-
A. javax.jws.webservice
B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
751. Spring provides a factory that can export beans annotated with:-
A. javax.jws.webservice
B. javax.jws.webserviceprovider
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
752. Exposing a stand-alone SOAP endpoint using the:-
A. simplejaxwsserviceexporter
B. jax-ws
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all of the mentioned
753. Factory to use our Spring bean as the implementation:-
A. jaxws:end
B. jaxws:endpoint
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. jaxws:endpoint
754. Publishing messages is handled through
Class.
A. client()
B. server()
C. publish()
D. batch()
Answer:
A. client()
755. client() class provides to create topics.
A. software
B. classes
C. methods
D. batch
Answer:
C. methods
756. method publishes messages to pub/sub.
A. client()
B. publish()
C. server()
D. batch()
Answer:
B. publish()
757. How many arguments are accepted by publish()?
A. 5 arguments
B. 3 arguments
C. 1 argument
D. 2 arguments
Answer:
D. 2 arguments
758. The topic in the publish method is in which form?
A. binomial form
B. canonical form
C. nominal form
D. message form
Answer:
B. canonical form
759. The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of
A. bits
B. bytes
C. word
D. nibble
Answer:
B. bytes
760. error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.
A. typeerror
B. error
C. linker error
D. compiler error
Answer:
A. typeerror
761. What do we call string in python 2?
A. str
B. unicode
C. strs
D. unicades
Answer:
B. unicode
762. When you publish a message is automatically created?
A. client
B. server
C. batch
D. server
Answer:
C. batch
763. What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?
A. 0.5 seconds
B. 0.05 seconds
C. 1.5 seconds
D. 1 second
Answer:
B. 0.05 seconds
764. Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the interface.
A. batch
B. client
C. server
D. future
Answer:
D. future
765. Point out the wrong statement.
A. abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared, ubiquitous access
B. virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is made
C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. all cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users
766. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing?
A. storage
B. application
C. cpu
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
767. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as
A. load performing
B. load scheduling
C. load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. load balancing
768. Point out the correct statement.
A. a client can request access to a cloud service from any location
B. a cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to an instance based on conditions
C. computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with each machine being assigned a workload
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
769. Which of the following software can be used to implement load balancing?
A. apache mod_balancer
B. apache mod_proxy_balancer
C. f6’s bigip
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. apache mod_proxy_balancer
770. Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?
A. connections through intelligent switches
B. dns
C. storage resources
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
771. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?
A. workload managers
B. workspace managers
C. rackserve managers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. workload managers
772. A is a combination load balancer and application server that is a server placed between a firewall or router.
A. abc
B. acd
C. adc
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. adc
773. Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark in the following figure?
A. abstraction
B. virtualization
C. mobility pattern
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtualization
774. In memory-mapped I/O
A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space
B. the i/o devices have a separate address space
C. the memory and i/o devices have an associated address space
D. a part of the memory is specifically set aside for the i/o operation
Answer:
A. the i/o devices and the memory share the same address space
775. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is
A. star bus structure
B. multiple bus structure
C. single bus structure
D. node to node bus structure
Answer:
C. single bus structure
776. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is
A. the former offers faster transfer of data
B. the devices connected using i/o mapping have a bigger buffer space
C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines
D. no advantage as such
Answer:
C. the devices have to deal with fewer address lines
777. The system is notified of a read or write operation by
A. appending an extra bit of the address
B. enabling the read or write bits of the devices
C. raising an appropriate interrupt signal
D. sending a special signal along the bus
Answer:
D. sending a special signal along the bus
778. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and the processor we use
A. buffer spaces
B. status flags
C. interrupt signals
D. exceptions
Answer:
B. status flags
779. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends a signal when it is ready is?
A. exceptions
B. signal handling
C. interrupts
D. dma
Answer:
C. interrupts
780. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is
A. interrupts
B. memory mapping
C. program-controlled i/o
D. dma
Answer:
D. dma
781. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as
A. polling
B. inspection
C. reviewing
D. echoing
Answer:
A. polling
782. The purpose of backup is:
A. to restore a computer to an operational state following a disaster
B. to restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally deleted
C. to restore one among many version of the same file for multiple backup environment
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
783. Backup of the source data can be created
A. on the same device
B. on another device
C. at some other location
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
784. Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient?
A. full backup
B. incremental backup
C. differential backup
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. incremental backup
785. Which of the following statements are true?
A. data can be recovered fastest in online backup
B. tape library is an example of nearline storage
C. data recovery can take hours for offline backup
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
786. Which of the following qualifies as best DR (Disaster Recovery) site?
A. dr site in the same campus
B. dr site in the same city
C. dr site in the same country
D. dr site in a different country
Answer:
D. dr site in a different country
787. Which of the following techniques can be used for optimizing backed up data space?
A. encryption and deduplication
B. compression and deduplication
C. authentication and deduplication
D. deduplication only
Answer:
B. compression and deduplication
788. To decide on a backup strategy for your organization, which of the following should you consider?
A. rpo (recovery point objective)
B. rto (recovery time objective)
C. both rpo & rto
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. both rpo & rto
789. Which of the following can be used for reducing recovery time?
A. automatic failover
B. by taking backup on a faster device
C. taking multiple backups – one in same location, another at different location
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
790. Which of the following is false?
A. the more important the data, the greater the need for backing it up
B. a backup is as useful as its associated restore strategy
C. storing the backup copy near to its original site is best strategy
D. automated backup and scheduling is preferred over manual operations
Answer:
C. storing the backup copy near to its original site is best strategy
791. Which of the following is Backup software?
A. amanda
B. bacula
C. ibm tivoli storage manager
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
792. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. a layered-style program is divided into an array of modules or layers
B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of services provided by the layer “above”
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. each layer provides services to the layer “below” and makes use of services provided by the layer “above”
793. What is Relaxed Layered Style?
A. each layer can be constrained to use only the layer directly below it
B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to use all the layers below it
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. sometimes this constraint is relaxed slightly to allow each layer to use all the layers below it
794. Which of the following is correct?
A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for a to execute correctly
B. module a calls (or invokes ) module b if b triggers execution of a
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. module a uses module b if a correct version of b must be present for a to execute correctly
795. Which of the following is true with respect to layered architecture?
A. each layer is allowed to depend on the layer above it being present and correct
B. a layer may call other layers above and below it, as long as it uses them
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
796. What is Onion diagram illustrates?
A. it illustrates the connection between the layers in communications protocols, such as the international standards organization open systems interconnection (iso osi) model,or the layers in user interface and windowing systems, such as the x window system
B. it often illustrates operating system layers, with the kernel at the core
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
797. In particular, layers have which of the following characteristics?
A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle of cohesion
B. layers doesn’t support information hiding
C. layers are constrained to use only above layers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. layers are by definition highly cohesive, thus satisfying the principle of cohesion
798. What are the drawbacks for Layers?
A. it is often necessary to pass data through many layers, which can slow performance significantly
B. layers support information hiding
C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. multi-layered programs can be hard to debug because operations tend to be implemented through a series of calls across layers
799. Which of the following is correct?
A. layers are not strongly coupled to the layers above them
B. each layer is strongly coupled only to the layer immediately below it
C. overall layered-style architectures are loosely coupled
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
800. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud Computing?
A. utility type of delivery
B. elasticity
C. low barrier to entry
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
801. Point out the correct statement.
A. service level agreements (slas) is small aspect of cloud computing
B. cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing
C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
802. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low margins and usually low risk are
A. high touch
B. low touch
C. moderate touch
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. low touch
803. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the as a Service model.
A. iaas
B. caas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. iaas
804. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a datacenter with the ability to provision hardware and software
B. high touch applications are best done on- premises
C. the google app engine follows iaas
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. the google app engine follows iaas
805. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and applications to the service, the model shifts to model.
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
806. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service model?
A. iaas
B. caas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. paas
807. is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an ongoing basis.
A. utility
B. elasticity
C. low barrier to entry
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. utility
808. feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all possible transactions.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. elasticity
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. elasticity
809. enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-processing applications.
A. scalability
B. reliability
C. elasticity
D. utility
Answer:
A. scalability
810. A service provider gets the same benefits from a composable system that a user does.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. paas
811. Point out the correct statement.
A. cloud architecture can couple software running on virtualized hardware in multiple locations to provide an on-demand service
B. cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to manage interprocess communications
C. platforms are used to create more complex software
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
812. Which of the following is the property of the composable component?
A. stateful
B. stateless
C. symmetric
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. stateless
813. From the standpoint of a it makes no sense to offer non-standard machine instances to customers.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. iaas
Answer:
D. iaas
814. Point out the wrong statement.
A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter
B. a composable component must be modular
C. a composable component must be stateless
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. a cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter
815. A service provider reselling a may have the option to offer one module to customize the information.
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. saas
Answer:
D. saas
816. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in cloud computing?
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. saas
Answer:
D. saas
817. Which of the architectural layer is used as a front end in cloud computing?
A. client
B. cloud
C. soft
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. client
818. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service provider?
A. a larger pool of qualified developers
B. more reliable operation
C. a logical design methodology
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
819. Communication between services is done widely using protocol.
A. rest
B. soap
C. restful
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. soap
820. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?
A. vgm
B. vmc
C. vmm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. vmm
821. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine technology to deliver servers?
A. caas
B. aaas
C. paas
D. iaas
Answer:
D. iaas
822. Point out the wrong statement.
A. platforms represent nearly the full cloud software stack
B. a platform in the cloud is a software layer that is used to create higher levels of service
C. platforms often come replete with tools and utilities to aid in application design and deployment
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
823. allows different operating systems to run in their own memory space.
A. vgm
B. vmc
C. vmm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. vmm
824. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been packaged to run on the grid of nodes.
A. ben
B. xen
C. ken
D. zen
Answer:
B. xen
825. Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?
A. bagvapp
B. jcinacio
C. helpdesklive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. bagvapp
826. offers various Linux distributions upon which you can build a virtual machine.
A. bagvapp
B. jcinacio
C. helpdesklive
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. jcinacio
827. is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.
A. imaging
B. parallels
C. qemu
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. qemu
828. Which of the following is storage data interchange interface for stored data objects?
A. occ
B. occi
C. ocmi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. occi
829. Point out the correct statement.
A. to determine whether your application will port successfully, you should perform a functionality mapping exercise
B. cloud computing supports some application features better than others
C. cloud bursting is an overflow solution that clones the application to the cloud and directs traffic to the cloud during times of high traffic
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
830. Cloud storage data usage in the year 2020 is estimated to be percent resident by IDC.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
831. Point out the wrong statement.
A. some apis are both exposed as soap and rest
B. the role of a cloud vendor specific api has impact on porting an application
C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. there are mainly three types of cloud storage
832. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most users?
A. paas
B. iaas
C. caas
D. saas
Answer:
B. iaas
833. The addition of a software package on top of a cloud storage volume makes most cloud storage offerings conform to a as a Service model.
A. software
B. platform
C. analytics
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. software
834. How many categories of storage devices broadly exist in cloud?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. 2
835. Which of the following storage devices exposes its storage to clients as Raw storage that can be partitioned to create volumes?
A. block
B. file
C. disk
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block
836. Which of the following impose additional overhead on clients and offer faster transfer?
A. block storage
B. file storage
C. file server
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. block storage
837. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown in the figure?
A. simpledb
B. rds
C. amazon ec2
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. rds
838. Point out the wrong statement.
A. amazon machine instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis
B. the metrics obtained by cloudwatch may be used to enable a feature called auto scaling
C. a number of tools are used to support ec2 services
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
839. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that caches data in different physical locations?
A. amazon relational database service
B. amazon simpledb
C. amazon cloudfront
D. amazon associates web services
Answer:
C. amazon cloudfront
840. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web sites?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon simple queue service
C. amazon relational database service
D. amazon simple storage system
Answer:
C. amazon relational database service
841. Point out the correct statement.
A. amazon elastic cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3
C. ec3 is an analytics as a service provider
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. simpledb interoperates with both amazon ec2 and amazon s3
842. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?
A. amazon elastic compute cloud
B. amazon associates web services
C. alexa web information service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. amazon associates web services
843. Which of the following is a billing and account management service?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
C. amazon devpay
844. Which of the following is a means for accessing human researchers or consultants to help solve problems on a contractual or temporary basis?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
B. amazon mechanical turk
845. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud?
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
B. amazon mechanical turk
C. amazon devpay
D. multi-factor authentication
Answer:
A. amazon elastic mapreduce
846. The properties necessary to guarantee a reliable transaction in databases and other applications is referred to as
A. base
B. acid
C. atom
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. acid
847. Which of the following is property of ACID principle?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
848. Which of the following ACID property states that the system must go from one known state to another and that the system integrity must be maintained?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
B. consistency
849. Which of the following component is required for both online and local data access in hybrid application?
A. local
B. cloud
C. both local and cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. both local and cloud
850. Which of the following factors might offset the cost of offline access in hybrid applications?
A. scalability
B. costs
C. ubiquitous access
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
851. An application that needed storage alone might not benefit from a cloud deployment at all.
A. online
B. offline
C. virtual
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. offline
852. The property states that the system must have a mechanism to recover from committed transactions should that be necessary.
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
D. durability
853. Which of the following property defines a transaction as something that cannot be subdivided and must be completed or abandoned as a unit?
A. atomicity
B. consistency
C. isolation
D. durability
Answer:
A. atomicity
854. Which of the following is a core management feature offered by most cloud management service products?
A. support of different cloud types
B. creation and provisioning of different types of cloud resources, such as machine instances, storage, or staged applications
C. performance reporting including availability and uptime, response time, resource quota usage, and other characteristics
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
855. Point out the correct statement.
A. eucalyptus and rackspace both use amazon ec2 and s3 services
B. the rightscale user interface provides real-time measurements of individual server instances
C. rightscale server templates and the rightscript technology are highly configurable and can be run under batch control
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
856. Which of the following is an industry organization that develops industry system management standards for platform interoperability?
A. dmtf
B. dms
C. ebs
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dmtf
857. Which of the following is used to extend CIM to virtual computer system management?
A. ovf
B. vman
C. ocsi
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. vman
858. Which of the following initiative tries to provide a way of measuring cloud computing services along dimension like cost?
A. cce
B. occi
C. smi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. smi
859. Which of the following is open and both hypervisor and processor-architecture- agnostic?
A. dell scalent
B. cloudkick
C. elastra
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. dell scalent
860. Which of the following is a workflow control and policy based automation service by CA?
A. ca cloud optimize
B. ca cloud orchestrate
C. ca cloud insight
D. ca cloud compose
Answer:
B. ca cloud orchestrate
861. Which of the following monitors the performance of the major cloud-based services in real time in Cloud Commons?
A. cloudwatch
B. cloudsensor
C. cloudmetrics
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. cloudsensor
862. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built in security?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. iaas
863. Point out the correct statement.
A. different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security services
B. adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what security mechanisms are required and mapping those to controls that exist in your chosen cloud service provider
C. data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
864. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in Service Level Agreements?
A. logging
B. auditing
C. regulatory compliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
865. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate in any cloud.
A. risk
B. errors
C. inconsistencies
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. risk
866. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely troublesome?
A. auditing
B. data integrity
C. e-discovery for legal compliance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
867. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?
A. scalability
B. portability and interoperability
C. flexibility
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. portability and interoperability
868. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing by CSA?
A. multi-tenancy
B. identity and access management
C. virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. multi-tenancy
869. Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load testing?
A. vmware hyperic
B. webmetrics
C. univa ud
D. tapinsystems
Answer:
B. webmetrics
870. Which of the following is application and infrastructure management software for hybrid multi-clouds?
A. vmware hyperic
B. webmetrics
C. univa ud
D. tapinsystems
Answer:
C. univa ud
871. Which of the following is a compliance standard?
A. pci-dss
B. hippa
C. glba
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
872. Which of the following is a key mechanism for protecting data?
A. access control
B. auditing
C. authentication
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
873. How many security accounts per client is provided by Microsoft?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer:
C. 5
874. Point out the wrong statement.
A. securing data sent to, received from, and stored in the cloud is the single largest security concern
B. the problem with the data you store in the cloud is that it can be located anywhere in the cloud service provider’s system
C. one and only approach to isolating storage in the cloud from direct client access is to create layered access to the data
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. one and only approach to isolating storage in the cloud from direct client access is to create layered access to the data
875. Which of the following are a common means for losing encrypted data?
A. lose the keys
B. lose the encryption standard
C. lose the account
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. lose the keys
876. Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
A. kmip
B. pmik
C. aimk
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. kmip
877. Which of the following was one of the weaker aspects of early cloud computing service offerings?
A. logging
B. integrity checking
C. consistency checking
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. logging
878. Which of the following is one of the most actively developing and important areas of cloud computing technology?
A. logging
B. auditing
C. regulatory compliance
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. regulatory compliance
879. Amazon Web Services supports
Type II Audits.
A. sas70
B. sas20
C. sas702
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. sas70
880. Which of the following is the most complete cloud computing service model?
A. paas
B. iaas
C. caas
D. saas
Answer:
D. saas
881. Point out the correct statement.
A. platforms can be based on specific types of development languages, application frameworks, or other constructs
B. saas is the cloud-based equivalent of shrink-wrapped software
C. software as a service (saas) may be succinctly described as software that is deployed on a hosted service
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
882. Which of the following aspect of the service is abstracted away?
A. data escrow
B. user interaction
C. adoption drivers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. user interaction
883. Which of the following SaaS platform is with an exposed API?
A. salesforce.com
B. amazon.com
C. flipkart.com
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. salesforce.com
884. Point out the wrong statement.
A. saas applications come in all shapes and sizes
B. every computer user is familiar with saas systems
C. saas software is not customizable
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
885. Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic?
A. the typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis
B. the software is available over the internet globally through a browser on demand
C. the software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
886. applications have a much lower barrier to entry than their locally installed competitors.
A. iaas
B. caas
C. paas
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
887. SaaS supports multiple users and provides a shared data model through model.
A. single-tenancy
B. multi-tenancy
C. multiple-instance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. multi-tenancy
888. Open source software used in a SaaS is called SaaS.
A. closed
B. free
C. open
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. open
889. The componentized nature of SaaS solutions enables many solutions to support a feature called
A. workspace
B. workloads
C. mashups
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. mashups
890. Which of the following service provider provides the highest level of service?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
891. Point out the correct statement.
A. paas supplies the infrastructure
B. iaas adds application development frameworks, transactions, and control structures
C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management, and the user interface
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. saas is an operating environment with applications, management, and the user interface
892. Which of the following functional cloud computing hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?
A. cas
B. csa
C. sac
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. csa
893. For the model, the security boundary may be defined for the vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. paas
894. Point out the wrong statement.
A. each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security boundary
B. any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built into the system
C. any security mechanism above the security boundary must be maintained by the customer
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
895. Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service Level Agreement?
A. saas
B. paas
C. iaas
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. saas
896. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. public
897. Which of the following service model is owned in terms of infrastructure by both vendor and customer?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. hybrid
898. Which of the following model type is not trusted in terms of security?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. public
899. Which of the following has infrastructure security managed and owned by the vendor?
A. hybrid
B. private/community
C. public
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. private/community
900. Which of the following feature make cloud-based storage systems highly reliable?
A. redundant networks
B. redundant name servers
C. replication
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
901. Point out the correct statement.
A. with atmos, you can create your own cloud storage system or leverage a public cloud service with atmos online
B. ibm is a major player in cloud computing particularly for businesses
C. in managed storage, the storage service provider makes storage capacity available to users
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. with atmos, you can create your own cloud storage system or leverage a public cloud service with atmos online
902. Redundancy has to be implemented at the
architectural level for effective results in cloud computing.
A. lower
B. higher
C. middle
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. higher
903. Which of the following can manage data from CIFS and NFS file systems over HTTP
networks?
A. storagegrid
B. datagrid
C. diskgrid
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. storagegrid
904. Point out the wrong statement.
A. aws s3 essentially lets you create your own cloud storage
B. aws created “availability zones” within regions, which are sets of systems that are isolated from one another
C. amazon web services (aws) adds redundancy to its iaas systems by allowing ec2 virtual machine instances
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
905. A is a logical unit that serves as the target for storage operations, such as the SCSI protocol READs and WRITEs.
A. gets
B. pun
C. lun
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. lun
906. Which of the following use LUNs to define a storage volume that appears to a connected computer as a device?
A. san
B. iscsi
C. fibre channel
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
907. Which of the following protocol is used for discovering and retrieving objects from a cloud?
A. occi
B. smtp
C. http
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. occi
908. Which of the following disk operation is performed When a tenant is granted access to a virtual storage container?
A. crud
B. file system modifications
C. partitioning
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
909. Which of the following standard connect distributed hosts or tenants to their provisioned storage in the cloud?
A. cdmi
B. ocmi
C. coa
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. cdmi
910. IBM and have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed computer programming.
A. google latitude
B. android (operating system)
C. google variations
D. google
Answer:
D. google
911. Point out the correct statement.
A. hadoop is an ideal environment for extracting and transforming small volumes of data
B. hadoop stores data in hdfs and supports data compression/decompression
C. the giraph framework is less useful than a mapreduce job to solve graph and machine learning
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. hadoop stores data in hdfs and supports data compression/decompression
912. What license is Hadoop distributed under?
A. apache license 2.0
B. mozilla public license
C. shareware
D. commercial
Answer:
A. apache license 2.0
913. Sun also has the Hadoop Live CD
project, which allows running a fully functional Hadoop cluster using a live CD.
A. openoffice.org
B. opensolaris
C. gnu
D. linux
Answer:
B. opensolaris
914. Hadoop achieves reliability by replicating the data across multiple hosts and hence does not require storage on hosts.
A. raid
B. standard raid levels
C. zfs
D. operating system
Answer:
A. raid
915. What was Hadoop written in?
A. java (software platform)
B. perl
C. java (programming language)
D. lua (programming language)
Answer:
C. java (programming language)
916. The Hadoop list includes the HBase database, the Apache Mahout system, and matrix operations.
A. machine learning
B. pattern recognition
C. statistical classification
D. artificial intelligence
Answer:
A. machine learning
917. The Mapper implementation processes one line at a time via method.
TOPIC 5.2 MAPREDUCE
A. map
B. reduce
C. mapper
D. reducer
Answer:
A. map
918. Point out the correct statement.
A. mapper maps input key/value pairs to a set of intermediate key/value pairs
B. applications typically implement the mapper and reducer interfaces to provide the map and reduce methods
C. mapper and reducer interfaces form the core of the job
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
919. The Hadoop MapReduce framework spawns one map task for each generated by the InputFormat for the job.
A. outputsplit
B. inputsplit
C. inputsplitstream
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. inputsplit
920. Users can control which keys (and hence records) go to which Reducer by implementing a custom?
A. partitioner
B. outputsplit
C. reporter
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. partitioner
921. Point out the wrong statement.
A. the mapper outputs are sorted and then partitioned per reducer
B. the total number of partitions is the same as the number of reduce tasks for the job
C. the intermediate, sorted outputs are always stored in a simple (key-len, key, value-len, value) format
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
922. Applications can use the to report progress and set application-level status messages.
A. partitioner
B. outputsplit
C. reporter
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. reporter
923. The right level of parallelism for maps seems to be around maps per- node.
A. 1-10
B. 10-100
C. 100-150
D. 150-200
Answer:
B. 10-100
924. The number of reduces for the job is set by the user via
A. jobconf.setnumtasks(int)
B. jobconf.setnumreducetasks(int)
C. jobconf.setnummaptasks(int)
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. jobconf.setnumreducetasks(int)
925. The framework groups Reducer inputs by key in stage.
A. sort
B. shuffle
C. reduce
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. sort
926. The output of the reduce task is typically written to the FileSystem via
A. outputcollector.collect
B. outputcollector.get
C. outputcollector.receive
D. outputcollector.put
Answer:
A. outputcollector.collect
927. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. type 1
928. Point out the wrong statement.
A. load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical address to a physical address
B. multiple instances of various google applications are running on different hosts
C. google uses hardware virtualization
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. google uses hardware virtualization
929. Which of the following is another name for the system virtual machine?
A. hardware virtual machine
B. software virtual machine
C. real machine
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. hardware virtual machine
930. Which of the following provide system resource access to virtual machines?
A. vmm
B. vmc
C. vnm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. vmm
931. An operating system running on a Type
VM is full virtualization.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1
932. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor?
A. wind river simics
B. virtual server 2005 r2
C. kvm
D. lynxsecure
Answer:
D. lynxsecure
933. Which of the following is Type 2 VM?
A. virtuallogix vlx
B. vmware esx
C. xen
D. lynxsecure
Answer:
C. xen
934. Which of the following will be the host operating system for Windows Server?
A. virtuallogix vlx
B. microsoft hyper-v
C. xen
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. microsoft hyper-v
935. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost layer for the following figure?
A. host operating system
B. software
C. vm
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. host operating system
936. Which of the following algorithm is used by Google to determine the importance of a particular page?
A. svd
B. pagerank
C. fastmap
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. pagerank
937. Point out the correct statement.
A. with paas, the goal is to create hosted scalable applications that are used in a software as a service model
B. applications built using paas tools need to be standards-based
C. in wolf, the data and transaction management conforms to the business rules you create
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
938. Based on PageRank algorithm, Google returns for a query that is parsed for its keywords.
A. sep
B. sap
C. serp
D. business objects build
Answer:
C. serp
939. Point out the wrong statement.
A. wolf frameworks uses a c# engine and supports both microsoft sql server and mysql database
B. applications built in wolf are 50-percent browser-based and support mashable and multisource overlaid content
C. google applications are cloud-based applications
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. applications built in wolf are 50-percent browser-based and support mashable and multisource overlaid content
940. Which of the following protocol lets a Web site list in an XML file information?
A. sitemaps
B. mashups
C. hashups
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. sitemaps
941. Which of the following is not provided by “Deep Web”?
A. database generated web pages
B. private or limited access web pages
C. pages without links
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
942. Dynamic content presented in Google
crawling isn’t normally indexed.
A. ajax
B. java
C. javascript
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. ajax
943. Which of the following google product sends you periodic email alerts based on your search term?
A. alerts
B. blogger
C. calendar
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. alerts
944. Which of the following is a payment processing system by Google?
A. paytm
B. checkout
C. code
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. checkout
945. How many types of protocols are important for instant messaging?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. 3
946. Point out the correct statement.
A. every third-party im clients aim to allow their users to connect to the different major im services
B. sip stands for secure initiation protocol
C. xmpp stands for extensible messaging and presence protocol
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. xmpp stands for extensible messaging and presence protocol
947. Which of the following protocol is adopted for interoperability by top three IM service providers?
A. sip
B. simple
C. xmpp
D. imps
Answer:
B. simple
948. Which of the following protocol is not an Internet Engineering Task Force standard?
A. sip
B. simple
C. xmpp
D. imps
Answer:
D. imps
949. Point out the wrong statement.
A. all im clients use peer-to-peer messaging
B. im software aimed at businesses such as xmpp, lotus sametime, and microsoft office communicator use a client/server architecture
C. instant messaging is as popular in business as it is in personal communications
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
D. none of the mentioned
950. Which of the following IM client allow their users to connect to the different major IM services?
A. pidgin
B. miranda im
C. trillian
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
951. Which of the following is also referred to as Short Message Service?
A. mini-blogs
B. micro-blogs
C. nano-blogs
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. micro-blogs
952. Which of the following is a good example of an SMS service organized into a social network and blog?
A. twitter
B. facebook
C. instagram
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. twitter
953. Which of the following language is used to build a message server queue in twitter?
A. ruby
B. scala
C. java
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. scala
954. Which of the following version of office suite is shown in the figure?
A. offline
B. online
C. online and offline
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. online
955. HTTP is a ______ protocol
A. stateful
B. unidirectional
C. bidirectional
D. full dulpex
Answer:
B. unidirectional
956. websocket is a____ Protocol
A. stateful
B. bidirectional
C. connection oriented
D. all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
957. Websocket protocol uses which communication model
A. Publish-Subscribe
B. Request Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Answer:
A. Publish-Subscribe
958. An internal cloud is…
A. An overhanging threat
B. A career risk for a CIO
C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate
D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for water-cooler gossip
Answer:
D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for water-cooler gossip
959. Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go usage model?
A. Accounting Management
B. Compliance
C. Data Privacy
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Accounting Management
960. ________ captive requires that the cloud accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
A. Licensed
B. Policy-based
C. Variable
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Policy-based
961. Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes under __________ subject area.
A. Accounting Management
B. Compliance
C. Data Privacy
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
C. Data Privacy
962. Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring?
A. Licensed
B. Variable but under control
C. Law
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Variable but under control
963. Network bottlenecks occur when ______ data sets must be transferred
A. large
B. small
C. big
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. large
964. RDS is a_____ type of database
A. SQL
B. NonSQL
C. Simple storage
D. all of above
Answer:
A. SQL
965. Dynamodb is ____ type of storage
A. NonSQL
B. SQL
C. Simple storage
D. all of above
Answer:
A. NonSQL
966. Cloud ________ are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience.
A. SVAs
B. SLAs
C. SALs
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. SLAs
967. The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of those services is shared by _________
A. replicas
B. shards
C. tenants
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. tenants
968. ___________ is a function of the particular enterprise and application in an on-premises deployment.
A. Vendor lock
B. Vendor lock-in
C. Vendor lock-ins
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Vendor lock-in
969. _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
A. Distributed
B. Cloud
C. Soft
D. Parallel
Answer:
B. Cloud
970. . ________ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself
A. Model
B. Computing
C. Software
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Computing
971. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) is a web service based on
A. Iaas
B. Paas
C. Saas
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Iaas
972. ________ has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing
A. Internet
B. Softwares
C. Web Service
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Internet
973. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?
A. Azure
B. AWS
C. Cloudera
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. AWS
974. Which of the following is the deployment model?
A. public
B. private
C. hybrid
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
975. Which of the following is best known service model?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
D. All of the mentioned
976. Which of the architectural layer is used as a front end in cloud computing?
A. client
B. cloud
C. soft
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
A. client
977. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service provider
A. A larger pool of qualified developers
B. More reliable operation
C. A logical design methodology
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
D. All of the mentioned
978. Communication between services is done widely using _______ protocol
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. RESTful
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
C. RESTful
979. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine technology to deliver servers?
A. CaaS
B. AaaS
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Answer:
D. IaaS
980. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?
A. VGM
B. VMc
C. VMM
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
C. VMM
981. Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run on a virtual machine image are referred to as __
A. virtual server
B. virtual appliances
C. machine imaging
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual appliances
982. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been packaged to run on the grid of ____ nodes.
A. Ben
B. Xen
C. Ken
D. Zen
Answer:
B. Xen
983. __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor
A. Imaging
B. Parallels
C. QEMU
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
C. QEMU
984. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine technology to deliver servers?
A. CaaS
B. AaaS
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Answer:
D. IaaS
985. __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor
A. Imaging
B. Parallels
C. QEMU
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
C. QEMU
986. The source of HDFS architecture in Hadoop originated as
A. Google distributed filesystem
B. Yahoo distributed filesystem
C. Facebook distributed filesystem
D. Amazon S3 storage
Answer:
A. Google distributed filesystem
987. What is default replication factor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer:
C. 3
988. What is HDFS Block in Hadoop?
A. It is the logical representation of data
B. It is the physical representation of data
C. Both the above
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. It is the physical representation of data
989. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like
A. DataNode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks
B. DataNode goes down
C. Data Blocks get corrupted
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above
990. If the IP address or hostname of a data node changes
A. The namenode updates the mapping between file name and block name
B. The data in that data node is lost forever
C. The namenode need not update mapping between file name and block name
D. There namenode has to be restarted
Answer:
C. The namenode need not update mapping between file name and block name
991. For the frequently accessed HDFS files the blocks are cached in
A. The memory of the data node
B. In the memory of the namenode
C. Both the above
D. None of the above
Answer:
A. The memory of the data node
992. In HDFS the files cannot be
A. Read
B. Deleted
C. Executed
D. Archived
Answer:
C. Executed
993. Which of the following is not the feature of Network management systems?
A. Accounting
B. Security
C. Performance
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
D. None of the mentioned
994. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built in security?
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
C. IaaS
995. Point out the correct statement.
A. Different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security services
B. Adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what security mechanisms are required
C. Data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
D. All of the mentioned
996. Point out the wrong statement.
A. You can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from direct access to shared cloud storage
B. Any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than an application that is closely held on a Local Area Network
C. Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with Internet applications
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
C. Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with Internet applications
997. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA(Cloud Security Alliance)?
A. Scalability
B. Portability and interoperability
C. Flexibility
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Portability and interoperability
998. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing by CSA?
A. Multi-tenancy
B. Identity and access management
C. Virtualization
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Multi-tenancy
999. Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load testing?
A. VMware Hyperic
B. Webmetrics
C. Univa UD
D. Tapinsystems
Answer:
B. Webmetrics
1000. Which of the following functional cloud computing hardware/software stack is the Cloud Reference Model?
A. CAS
B. CSA
C. SAC
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. CAS
1001. For the _________ model, the security boundary may be defined for the vendor to include the software framework and middleware layer.
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. PaaS
1002. Which of the following cloud does not require mapping?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Public
1003. Point out the wrong statement.
A. Each different type of cloud service delivery model creates a security boundary
B. Any security mechanism below the security boundary must be built into the system
C. Any security mechanism above the security boundary must be maintained by the customer
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
D. All of the mentioned
1004. Amazon EC2 provides virtual computing environments, known as :
A. chunks
B. instances
C. messages
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. instances
1005. Data stored in __________ domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. SimpleDB
B. SQL Server
C. Oracle
D. RDS
Answer:
A. SimpleDB
1006. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2 ?
A. CloudWatch
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store
C. AWS Import/Export
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store
1007. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage listed below ?
A. Logon authentication
B. Bare file
C. Multiplatform support
D. Adequate bandwidth
Answer:
A. Logon authentication
1008. Which of the following is open cloud storage management standard by SNIA ?
A. CDMI
B. OCCI
C. CEA
D. Adequate bandwidth
Answer:
A. CDMI
1009. Which of the following service is provided by Google for online storage ?
A. Drive
B. SkyDrive
C. Dropbox
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Drive
1010. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your current data or drive ?
A. Continuous Data Protection
B. Open file backup
C. Reverse Delta backup
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Continuous Data Protection
1011. Point out the correct statement.
A. Amazon Elastic Cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)
B. SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3
C. EC3 is an Analytics as a Service provider
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3
1012. Which of the following is a structured data store that supports indexing and data queries to both EC2 and S3?
A. CloudWatch
B. Amazon SimpleDB
C. Amazon Cloudfront
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Amazon SimpleDB
1013. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
B. Amazon Associates Web Services
C. Alexa Web Information Service
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Amazon Associates Web Services
1014. Which of the following is a billing and account management service?
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
B. Amazon Mechanical Turk
C. Amazon DevPay
D. Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer:
C. Amazon DevPay
1015. ___________ is an application for collecting messages sent in RSS and Atom format from information providers.
A. Google Reader
B. Yahoo Mail
C. EmailRackspace
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Google Reader
1016. The advantages of Ajax is _______________
A. Bandwidth utilization
B. More interactive
C. Speeder retrieval of data
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these
1017. Virtual Machines (VMs) are offered in cloud by
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. None of these
Answer:
C. IaaS
1018. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as _____________
A. load performing
B. load scheduling
C. load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
C. load balancing
1019. _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network
using virtualized resources.
A. Distributed
B. Cloud
C. Soft
D. Parallel
Answer:
B. Cloud
1020. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and
presenting them as a ________ resource.
A. real
B. virtual
C. cloud
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. virtual
1021. Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a well known ______.
A. Virtual machine
B. Cloud Storage
C. PaaS
D. SoA
Answer:
A. Virtual machine
1022. ________ virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a virtual network that can be managed.
A. Storage
B. Network
C. Software
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Network
1023. _________ is used by Amazon Web Services to store copies of a virtual machine.
A. AMI
B. EMI
C. IMI
D. Application services
Answer:
A. AMI
1024. In para-virtualization, VMs run on hypervisor that interacts with the hardware.
A. true
B. False
Answer:
B. False
1025. An operating system running on a Type __ VM is a full virtualization.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. 1
1026. _____________________where a VM can be moved from one physical machine to another even as it continues to execute.
A. Load Balancing
B. Migration
C. Live Migration
D. Server consolidation
Answer:
C. Live Migration
1027. Point out the wrong statement :
A. Load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical address to a physical address
B. Multiple instances of various Google applications are running on different hosts
C. Google uses hardware virtualization
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
C. Google uses hardware virtualization
1028. Point out the wrong statement :
A. Some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are referred to as Type 2 or hosted VM
B. All CPUs support virtual machines
C. On a Type 2 VM, a software interface is created that emulates the devices with which a system would normally interact
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. All CPUs support virtual machines
1029. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
A. paravirtualization
1030. Point out the wrong statement :
A. Full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host VM
B. Guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally faster than other virtualization schemes
C. A process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a process
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
A. Full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host VM
1031. _________ is a service that creates and manages virtual network interfaces.
A. VMware vStorage
B. VMware vNetwork
C. VMware vCompute
D. Application services
Answer:
B. VMware vNetwork
1032. The BEST way to define Virtualization in cloud computing is
A. Virtualization enables simulating compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
B. Virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying physical hardware
C. Virtualization enables realization of compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
D. Virtualization enables emulating compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying virtual hardware
Answer:
B. Virtualization enables abstracting compute, network, and storage service platforms from the underlying physical hardware
1033. Which one is NOT generally a change after Virtualization?
A. Virtual machines can be provisioned to any system
B. Hardware-independence of operating system and applications
C. Can manage OS and application as a single unit by encapsulating them into virtual machines.
D. Software and hardware tightly coupled
Answer:
D. Software and hardware tightly coupled
1034. Appear IQ, Mendix, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Google App Engine and Heroku, are some of the example of providing services for:
A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. PaaS
D. None
Answer:
C. PaaS
1035. What makes Ajax unique?
A. It works as a stand-alone Web-development tool
B. It works the same with all Web browsers
C. It uses C++ as its programming language
D. It makes data requests asynchronously
Answer:
D. It makes data requests asynchronously
1036. _______ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.
A. Microsoft
B. Navigator
C. LiveWire
D. None
Answer:
C. LiveWire
1037. AMI(Amazon Machine Image) imaging service is provided by Amazon for ______________
A. private use
B. public use
C. pay-per-use
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:
D. all of the mentioned
1038. Virtualization allows sharing the resources of hardware across multiple a
environments.
A. True
B. false
Answer:
A. True
1039. A virtual machine running on a server of a particular make cannot be relocated to b
the server of another make.
A. True
B. false
Answer:
B. false
1040. Amazon Web Services (AWS) is an example of______________________
A. Software as a service (SaaS)
B. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
B. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
1041. In _______ the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be independent of the underlying system hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
C. emulation
1042. In a ____________ scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
A. paravirtualization
B. full virtualization
C. emulation
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:
B. full virtualization
1043. Full virtualization
Full virtualization
A. Simulates hardware within software
B. Has VMs with the same OS
C. Clones images
D. Alters the guest OS
Answer:
A. Simulates hardware within software
1044. If virtualization occurs at application level, OS level and hardware level, then such service in cloud is
A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. PaaS
D. no such service
Answer:
B. SaaS
1045. Order of Virtual Machine Life Cycle i) Release Ms ii) IT Service Request iii) VM in operation iv) VM Provision
A. ii, i, iii, iv
B. i, ii, iii & iv
C. ii, iii, iv & i
D. ii, iv, iii & i
Answer:
D. ii, iv, iii & i
1046. Which of the following is Amazon’s technical support and consulting business?
A. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud
B. AWS Premium Support
C. Amazon Fulfillment Web Services
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. AWS Premium Support
1047. Point out the wrong statement.
A. The standard instances are not suitable for standard server applications
B. High memory instances are useful for large data throughput applications such as SQL Server databases and data caching and retrieval
C. FPS is exposed as an API that sorts transactions into packages called Quick Starts that makes it easy to implement
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
A. The standard instances are not suitable for standard server applications
1048. Amazon EMR uses Hadoop processing combined with several __________ products.
A. AWS
B. ASQ
C. AMR
D. AWES
Answer:
A. AWS
1049. ________________ is the central application in the AWS portfolio.
A. Amazon Simple Queue Service
B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Amazon Simple Notification Service
D. All of the above
Answer:
B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
1050. Amazon ______ cloud-based storage system allows you to store data objects ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Answer:
C. S3
1051. CloudFront supports ______ data by performing static data transfers and streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.
A. table caching
B. geocaching
C. index caching
D. windows Media Server
Answer:
B. geocaching
1052. Point out the correct statement.
A. A volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to all instances
B. The advantages of an EBS boot partition are that you can have a volume up to 1TB
C. You cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. The advantages of an EBS boot partition are that you can have a volume up to 1TB
1053. Data stored in __________ domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
A. SimpleDB
B. SQL Server
C. Oracle
D. RDS
Answer:
A. SimpleDB
1054. AWS reaches customers in ______________countries.
A. 137
B. 182
C. 190
D. 86
Answer:
C. 190
1055. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud?
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
B. Amazon Mechanical Turk
C. Amazon DevPay
D. Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer:
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
1056. _________ is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.
A. EC2
B. Azure
C. EC5
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
A. EC2
1057. AMIs are operating systems running on the _____ virtualization hypervisor.
A. Yen
B. Xen
C. Ben
D. Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer:
B. Xen
1058. Which of the following instance class is best used for applications that are processor or compute-intensive?
A. Standard Instances
B. High Memory Instances
C. High CPU Instances
D. None of the mentioned
Answer:
C. High CPU Instances
1059. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the _______ 5.1 database system.
A. Oracle
B. MySQL
C. SQL Server
D. All of the mentioned
Answer:
B. MySQL
1060.
The types of AMI provided by AWS are:
A. Instance store backed
B. EBS backed
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Answer:
C. Both A & B
1061.
Storage classes available with Amazon s3 are –
A. Amazon S3 standard
B. Amazon S3 standard-infrequent Access
C. Amazon Glacier
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above
1062. IBM’s Blue Cloud uses a special software for monitoring of virtual cluster operations and acts as a provisioning manager is known as ________.
A. Web Sphere
B. Tivoli
C. Nebula
D. Altix
Answer:
B. Tivoli
1063. Cloud system from SGI is functionally considered as an ________.
A. on-demand cloud computing service
B. on-demand cloud storage service
C. on-demand cloud accessing service
D. on-demand
Answer:
A. on-demand cloud computing service
1064. NASA created ________ can be fifty percent more energy efficient as it turns off the computers on the network to make cloud computing efficient.
A. Nebula Cloud
B. Cyclone Cloud
C. Force.com Cloud
D. CERN Cloud
Answer:
A. Nebula Cloud
1065. To establish scalability for the analysis of huge research data, CERN uses LSF i.e. a ________ grid and workload management solution of cloud computing platform
A. Load Setting Facility
B. Load Sharing Facility
C. Load Setting Faculty
D. Load assigning Faculty
Answer:
B. Load Sharing Facility
1066. One of the reasons of widespread of cloud is its ability to provide resource allocation dynamically from a pool of VM resources. State True or False.
A. true
B. false
Answer:
A. true
1067. A mashup cloud can be designed by utilizing the Scalability of AWS and ________ of GAE platforms
A. Accessibility
B. Mobility
C. Agility
D. Scalability
Answer:
C. Agility
1068. The Cloudlets have a ________ ownership unlike that of Clouds.
A. centralized
B. decentralized
C. global
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. decentralized
1069. The Data-Intensive Scalable Computing(DISC) utilizes a ________ data-center clusters to gather and maintain data.
A. HTC
B. HPC
C. HCC
D. HAC
Answer:
A. HTC
1070. ________ refers to an increase in the performance by the addition of more resources along the service layers
A. Horizontal Scalability
B. Vertical Scalability
C. Diagonal Scalability
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. Vertical Scalability
1071. The percentage of time the system is up and running smoothly is referred as ________.
A. system up time
B. system scalability
C. system availability
D. system efficiency
Answer:
C. system availability
1072. ________ is the technology used to search tagged objects and mobile devices with the help of browsing an IP address or using the database entry
A. GPS
B. Cloud
C. IoT
D. RFID
Answer:
D. RFID
1073. RFID stand for ________.
A. Rangeable Frequency Identification
B. Radio Fragment Identification
C. Radio Frequency Identification
D. Rangeable Fragment Identification
Answer:
C. Radio Frequency Identification
1074. The architecture of IoT consists of different layers including which of the following? i. Application Layer
ii. Sensing Layer
iii. Combination Layer
iv. Network Layer
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iv
1075. ________ tags contain battery and transmit signals autonomously
A. Acitve RFID
B. Passive RFID
C. Battery-assisted passive RFID
D. Battery-assisted RFID
Answer:
A. Acitve RFID
1076. ________ tags needs an external source to wake up the battery.
A. Acitve RFID
B. Passive RFID
C. Battery-assisted passive RFID
D. Battery-assisted active RFID
Answer:
C. Battery-assisted passive RFID
1077. The three major components of RFID hardware based on functionality include :
A. RFID Reader
B. Reader Antenna
C. Reader
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above
1078. Types of Zigbee devices are available as follows: i. ZigBee Coordinator
ii. ZigBee Router
iii. ZigBee End Device
iv. ZigBee Accessor
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iv
Answer:
A. i, ii, iii
1079. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be vulnerable to_____________attacks.
A. Scripting
B. Cross attack
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Radiant
Answer:
C. Man-in-the-middle
1080. What security threats do employee-owned devices pose by storing corporate data and accessing corporate networks?
A. Making infrastructure vulnerable to malware
B. Potential for noncompliance
C. Data Loss
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above
1081. Which of the following terms indicates that information is to be read only by those people for whom it is intended?
A. Availability
B. Accounting
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer:
D. Confidentiality
1082. What is the full form of SCADA?
A. Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition
B. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
C. Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
D. Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
Answer:
B. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
1083. DCS is a ________
A. Distributed Control System
B. Data Control System
C. Data Column System
D. Distributed Column System
Answer:
A. Distributed Control System
1084. What is SCADA?
A. Software
B. Process
C. System
D. Hardware
Answer:
B. Process
1085. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?
A. Database server
B. I/O system
C. PLC controller
D. Sparger controller
Answer:
D. Sparger controller
1086. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?
A. RFID
B. Sensor
C. Nano tech
D. Server
Answer:
D. Server
1087. M2M is a term introduced by
A. IoT service providers
B. Fog computing service providers
C. Telecommunication service providers
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Telecommunication service providers
1088. Which of these statements regarding sensors is TRUE?
A. Sensors are input devices.
B. Sensors can be analog as well as digital
C. Sensors respond to some external stimuli.
D. All of these
Answer:
D. All of these
1089. Smart Dust can be used to measure the
A. Temperature of the industrial lathe machine
B. Heat inside a computer’s CPU
C. Chemical in the soil
D. Strength of a solid material
Answer:
C. Chemical in the soil
1090. Request field is present in which message format?
A. Request message
B. Response message
C. Both request and response
D. Neither request nor response
Answer:
A. Request message
1091. CoAP provides which of the following requirements?
A. Multicast support and simplicity
B. Low overhead and multicast support
C. Simplicity and low overhead
D. Multicast support, Low over head, and simplicity
Answer:
D. Multicast support, Low over head, and simplicity
1092. CoAP is a specialized _________ protocol.
A. Web Transfer
B. Power
C. Application
D. Resource
Answer:
A. Web Transfer
1093. Which of the following IEEE standards provides the lowest level of the ZigBee software stack?
A. IEEE 802.11.
B. IEEE 802.15.1.
C. IEEE 802.15.3.
D. IEEE 802.15.4.
Answer:
D. IEEE 802.15.4.
1094. Which of the following layers are defined by the ZigBee stack?
A. Transport layer
B. Physical layer.
C. Application Support sub-layer.
D. Medium Access layer
Answer:
D. Medium Access layer
1095. _ is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which he/she is currently authenticated.
A. Cross-site scoring scripting
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Two-factor authentication
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer:
D. Cross-site scripting
1096. Representational State Transfer (REST) is the standard interface between
A. Two machines in a LAN
B. HTTP client and user
C. HTTP client and servers
D. None of the above
Answer:
C. HTTP client and servers
1097. Which of the following is not a messaging mode in CoAP?
A. Confirmable
B. Separate
C. Direct
D. Piggyback
Answer:
C. Direct
1098. Which of the following is the full form of XMPP?
A. Extension Messaging and Presence Protocol
B. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol
C. Extension Messaging and Privacy Protocol
D. Extensible Messaging and Privacy Protocol
Answer:
B. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol
1099. In 6LoWPAN address, how many bits are globally unique?
A. 16 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits
Answer:
C. 64 bits
1100. IEEE 802.15.4 uses which of the following for accessing the channel?
A. Carrier sense multiple access (CSMA)
B. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA‐CD)
C. Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA‐CA)
D. None of these
Answer:
C. Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA‐CA)
1101. What second programming language did Google add for App Engine development?
A. C++
B. Flash
C. Java
D. Visual Basic
Answer:
C. Java
1102. what facet of cloud computing helps to guard against downtime and determines costs?
A. Service-level agreements
B. Application programming interfaces
C. Virtual private networks
D. Bandwidth fees
Answer:
A. Service-level agreements
1103. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?
A. Hardware as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer:
A. Hardware as a Service
1104. Cloud Services have a________ relationship with their customers.
A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-many
C. One-to-one
Answer:
B. One-to-many
1105. What is the name of Rackspace’s cloud service?
A. Cloud On-Demand
B. Cloud Servers
C. EC2
Answer:
B. Cloud Servers
1106. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security standards for cloud computing?
A. Cloud Security Standards Working Group
B. Cloud Security Alliance
C. Cloud Security WatchDog
D. Security in the Cloud Alliance
Answer:
B. Cloud Security Alliance
1107. Which of these companies specializes in cloud computing management tools and services?
A. RightScale
B. Google
C. Salesforce.com
D. Savis
Answer:
A. RightScale
1108. What’s the most popular use case for public cloud computing today?
A. Test and development
B. Website hosting
C. Disaster recovery
D. Business analytics
Answer:
A. Test and development
1109. Virtual Machine Ware (VMware) is an example of
A. Infrastructure Service
B. Platform Service
C. Software Service
Answer:
A. Infrastructure Service
1110. Cloud Service consists of
A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure
B. Software, Hardware, Infrastructure
C. Platform, Hardware, Infrastructure
Answer:
A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure
1111. Google Apps Engine is a type of
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. NA
Answer:
D. NA
1112. Which vendor recently launched a cloud-based test and development service for enterprises?
A. HP
B. Cisco
C. IBM
D. Oracle
Answer:
C. IBM
1113. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud provider’s network is a problem for many enterprises
because it:
A. Breaks compliance regulations
B. Adds latency
C. Raises security concerns
D. Makes data recovery harder
Answer:
A. Breaks compliance regulations
1114. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer:
C. Infrastructure as a Service
1115. Cloud computing networks are designed to support only private or hybrid clouds.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
B. False
1116. A good cloud computing network can be adjusted to provide bandwidth on demand.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
A. True
1117. A larger cloud network can be built as either a layer 3 or layer 4 network.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
B. False
1118. The typical three-layer switching topology will not create latency within a cloud network.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
B. False
1119. The term ‘Cloud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.
A. The Internet
B. Cumulus Clouds
C. A Computer
D. Thin Clients
Answer:
A. The Internet
1120. In order to participate in cloud-computing, you must be using the following OS _______ .
A. Windows
B. Mac OS
C. Linux
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above
1121. Which of the following is true of cloud computing?
A. It’s always going to be less expensive and more secure than local computing.
B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long as you have an Internet connection.
C. Only a few small companies are investing in the technology, making it a risky venture.
Answer:
B. You can access your data from any computer in the world, as long as you have an Internet connection.
1122. What is private cloud?
A. A standard cloud service offered via the Internet
B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.
C. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone but the cultural elite
Answer:
B. A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.
1123. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
A. True
1124. What is Cloud Foundry?
A. A factory that produces cloud components
B. An industry wide PaaS initiative
C. VMware-led open source PaaS.
Answer:
C. VMware-led open source PaaS.
1125. Which of the following statements about Google App Engine (GAE) is INCORRECT.
A. It’s a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model.
B. Automatic Scalability is built in with GAE. As a developer you don’t need to worry about application scalability
C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting your application.
D. The applications deployed on GAE have the same security, privacy and data protection policies as that of Google’s applications. So, applications can take advantage of reliability, performance and security of Google’s infrastructure.
Answer:
C. You can decide on how many physical servers required for hosting your application.
1126. I’ve a website containing all static pages. Now I want to provide a simple Feedback form for end users. I don’t have software developers, and would like to spend minimum time and money. What should I do?
A. Hire software developers, and build dynamic page.
B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html page.
C. Use Google App Engine (GAE) to build and deploy dynamic page.
Answer:
B. Use ZOHO creator to build the required form, and embed in html page.
1127. What is the name of the organization helping to foster security standards for cloud computing?
A. Cloud Security Standards Working.
B. Cloud Security Alliance.
C. Cloud Security WatchDog.
D. Security in the Cloud Alliance.
Answer:
B. Cloud Security Alliance.
1128. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?
A. Wireless
B. Hard drives
C. People
D. Internet
Answer:
D. Internet
1129. Geographic distribution of data across a cloud provider’’ network is a problem for many enterprises
because it:
A. Breaks compliance regulations
B. Adds latency
C. Raises security concerns
D. Makes data recovery harder
Answer:
A. Breaks compliance regulations
1130. The term ‘‘loud’ in cloud-computing refers to ______.
A. The Internet
B. Cumulus Clouds
C. A Computer
D. Thin Clients
Answer:
A. The Internet