GYNAECOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. A 48-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding for two months and episodes of bleeding occurring any time in the cycle. There is no associated pain.
Differential diagnosis for intermenstrual bleeding does not include:
a. endocervical polyp
b. cervical malignancy
c. endometrial polyp
d. ovarian teratoma
e. atrophic vaginitis.
Answer: d
3. All of the following are effects of premature menopause, apart from:
a. decreased cardiovascular risk
b. infertility
c. osteoporosis
d. vasomotor symptoms
e. vaginal dryness.
Answer: a
4. A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with infrequent periods. A hormone profi le is done and all of the following are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome, apart
from:
a. increased androgen levels
b. normal FSH
c. normal oestradiol
d. decreased LH
e. low progesterone levels.
Answer: d
5. A 28-year-old woman attends the colposcopy clinic after an abnormal smear test. The smear is reported as severe dyskaryosis and she has an intrauterine contraceptive device in situ. All of the following statements are likely to be true, apart from:
a. the cervix is macroscopically normal
b. acetic acid is applied and an irregular white area is apparent to the left of the cervical os
c. Lugol’s iodine is applied and the same area stains dark brown while the rest of the cervix stains pale
d. a biopsy is taken
e. the IUCD can stay, as it will not aggravate the cervical abnormality.
Answer: c
6. A 24-year-old woman presents with the absence of periods for nine months. She started her periods at the age of 13 years and had a regular 28-day cycle until 18 months ago. The periods then became irregular, occurring every two to three months until they stopped completely. The following are all included in the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhoea, apart from:
a. excessive exercise
b. hyperprolactinaemia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. premature ovarian failure
e. signifi cant weight loss
Answer: c
7. The following statements regarding adenomyosis are true, apart from one.
a. It tends to occur in women over 35 years.
b. Risk factors include increased parity, termination and quick labours.
c. The condition commonly occurs in association with endometriosis.
d. With each period, bleeding occurs from the endometrial tissue into the smooth muscle.
e. The diagnosis can be made by ultrasound or magnetic resonance imaging scan.
Answer: b
8. A 20-year-old woman is referred with a problem of post-coital bleeding. Over the past two months it has occurred on six occasions and there has been a small amount of bright red blood noticed after intercourse. There is no associated pain. The following investigations should initially be performed, apart from:
a. cervical smear
b. endocervical swab for chlamydia
c. colposcopy
d. endocervical swab for gonorrhoea
e. speculum examination to observe the cervix.
Answer: c
9 The following are all consistent with the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome except:
a hydatidiform mole
b severe early-onset pre-eclampsia
c arterial or venous thrombosis
d mid-trimester fetal loss
e placental abruption.
Answer: a
10. The following are all causes of recurrent miscarriage, apart from:
a. parental chromosomal abnormality
b. activated protein C-resistance
c. uncontrolled hypothyroidism
d. chlamydia infection
e. submucosal fi broids.
Answer: d
11. Which one of the following statements about pituitary tumours is true?
a. Weight loss is a common feature of pituitary failure (hypopituitarism) due to a pituitary tumour.
b. Visual fi eld loss in female patients with prolactin-secreting pituitary tumours (prolactinoma) is usual.
c. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secreting pituitary tumours cause a syndrome of cortisol excess that can lead to exaggerated vertical growth in adolescence.
d. Growth hormone defi ciency is a recognised feature in adult patients presenting with acromegaly due to a pituitary macroadenoma.
e. A low testosterone level is more common than a low thyroxine level in men with non-functioning gonads.
Answer: e
12. Which of the following statements concerning the anterior pituitary is true?
a. It develops in the embryo from a down-growth of the hypothalamus.
b. It secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
c. It is regulated by hypothalamic-releasing hormones.
d. It secretes its hormones into the pituitary portal system.
e. It is down-regulated by low oestrogen levels.
Answer: c
13. Which one of the following statements about the implantation of the human embryo is true?
a. It will occur at any time over a period of about 14 days.
b. It will occur whether or not the zona pellucida is present.
c. It will occur when the cytotrophoblast contacts the endometrial epithelium and begins to invade the maternal
tissue.
d. It will occur with the inner cell mass closest to the endometrium.
e. It will occur even if there is only cytotrophoblast present.
Answer: d
14. Which one of the following statements about puberty is true?
a. Puberty is preceded by falling plasma levels of adrenal androgens.
b. The fi rst menstrual period is called the adrenarche.
c. The pubertal growth spurt is the fi rst sign of puberty.
d. Pubic hair growth is stimulated in girls by oestrogen.
e. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
Answer: a
15. Which is the most appropriate statement concerning pulmonary embolism?
a. It is now rarely fatal, with the introduction of modern diagnostic tests and treatments.
b. It gives an area of lung which is unventilated on a ventilationperfusion
scan.
c. It does not usually show up on a CT pulmonary angiogram.
d. It is likely that the patient has symptoms of deep-vein thrombosis.
e. It may give symptoms similar to pneumonia.
Answer: e
16. One of the following is true. It is recognised that the positive predictive value of initial mammography for breast cancer within the national screening programme in the UK is 16%. This means that:
a. 16% of people who have breast cancer are detected on initial mammography
b. 84% of people without breast cancer have a normal mammogram
c. 16% of initial mammograms are abnormal
d. a patient with an abnormal initial mammogram has a 16% chance of having breast cancer
e. out of every 100 patients with an abnormal mammogram,
Answer: d
17. One of the following is true. Successful fertilisation and subsequent normal embryonic development:
a. require at least two spermatozoa
b. require the retention of the cortical granules in the oocyte
c. are most likely when the oocytes have been ovulated in an immature stage
d. require exclusion of the second polar body
e. often occur when the oocyte has lost its zona pellucida.
Answer: d
18. One of the following is true. The increase in maternal blood volume in pregnancy occurs as a result of:
a. peripheral vasoconstriction
b. a reduction in progesterone
c. decreased synthesis of vasopressin
d. increased aldosterone synthesis
e. reduced renin activity.
Answer: d
19. One of the following is true. Decreased peripheral resistance in pregnancy has been attributed to an increase in synthesis of:
a. angiotensin
b. endothelin
c. nitric oxide
d. renin
e. thromboxane.
Answer: c
20. A 25-year-old woman on liver enzyme inducers is requesting contraceptive advice. The method providing her with the most reliable form of contraception would be:
a. combined oral contraceptive pill
b. Depo-Provera injection
c. diaphragm
d. male condom
e. progesterone-only pill.
Answer: b
21. A 35-year-old woman comes requesting long-term reversible contraception. You advise that the method that can provide the longest protection is:
a. contraceptive implant
b. copper intrauterine device
c. Depo-Provera injection
d. intrauterine hormonal system (IUS)
e. laparoscopic sterilisation.
Answer: b
22. Regarding cervical cancer, which is the true statement?
a. HPV types 6 and 12 are high risk for developing cervical cancer.
b. The new vaccines can prevent invasive carcinoma but not CIN.
c. As soon as the new vaccination is introduced, cervical screening programmes can cease.
d. HPV types 16 and 18 account for the majority of cervical cancer in the UK.
e. HPV is an oncogenic virus for squamous cell but not adenocarcinoma of the cervix.
Answer: d
23. Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is the true statement?
a. Menstruation occurs with vasodilation of the spiral arteries.
b. The LH surge triggers menstruation.
c. The Graafi an follicle develops during the luteal phase.
d. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol.
e. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.
Answer: d
24. Regarding Müllerian duct abnormalities which is the true statement?
a. occur about 1 in 500
b. the commonest uterine abnormality is septate uterus
c. occur not infrequently with gastrointestinal abnormalities
d. surgical correction of a septate uterus is followed by fetal salvage in <60% of cases
e. longitudinal vaginal septa are more common than transverseones.
Answer: b
25. Choose the correct statement: Uterine leiomyosarcomas:
a. are associated with exposure to tamoxifen
b. originate from leiomyomas
c. pelvic radiotherapy has a signifi cant impact on survival
d. commonly metastasise to the brain
e. anthracycline-based chemotherapy has no place in treatment.
Answer: a
GYNAECOLOGY Objective type Questions with Answers
26. Which one of the following statements about the menopause is correct?
a. Progesterone levels rise after the menopause.
b. LH levels rise after the menopause.
c. The pituitary stops secreting LH and FSH at the menopause.
d. Menstrual cycles remain regular until the last menstrual period.
e. The number of oocytes in the ovary remains constant until the menopause.
Answer: b
27. Choose the correct statement: The female reproductive tract plays important roles in sperm transport by:
a. trapping most spermatozoa in the cervical crypt for many days
b. regulating sperm transport so that cells reach the site of fertilisation around the time of ovulation
c. allowing sperm transport at all stages of the ovarian cycle
d. preventing spermatozoa from swimming out of the peritoneal cavity
e. providing an acidic environment to keep the spermatozoa active.
Answer: b
28. Which one of the following statements is true: Semen analysis:
a. identifi es men with high-quality fertile spermatozoa
b. identifi es men with low sperm concentrations that might affect fertility
c. can always be used to predict fertility
d. cannot identify abnormal spermatozoa
e. identifi es men with hypopituitarism.
Answer: b
29. One of the following is true. A malignant tumour arising in the mesenchymal tissue is called:
a. adenoma
b. carcinoma
c. lymphoma
d. melanoma
e. sarcoma.
Answer: e
30. One of the following is true. Affording moral status to a human embryo/fetus means that it now has:
a. an inalienable right to life
b. a right to life
c. a right to consideration
d. a right dependent on moral consensus
e. a right not to be harmed.
Answer: d
31. At term amniotic fluid volume is
a. 800ml
b. 500 ml
c. 400 ml
d. 600 ml
Answer: a
32.what is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid ?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
d. Galactose
Answer: a
33. Oligohydramnios is related which of the following condition ?
a. Renal Agenesis
b. esophageal atresia
c. anencephaly
d. down’s syndrome
Answer: a
34. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy
a. 12-14 wks
b. 14-16 wks
c. 16-18 wks
d. 9-11 wks
Answer: b
35. Immune rejection of fetus prevented by
a. HCG
b. HPL
c. oestrogen
d. progesterone
Answer: a
36. what happens to GFR in a case of Pre-eclampsia ?
a. GFR Decreases
b. GFR increases
c. remains same
d. none of the above
Answer: a
37. Shortest diameter of pelvic Cavity
a. Interspinous
b. transverse
c. antero-posterior
d. oblique
Answer: a
38. Large Chorioangioma associated with
a. polyhydroamnios
b. oligohydramnios
c. both
d. none
Answer: a
39. Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma
a. vaginal bleeding
b. abdominal pain
c. breathlessness
d. perforation of the uterus
Answer: a
40. Frog eye appearance is seen in
a. Anencephaly
b. acardia
c. down’s syndrome
d. patau’s syndrome
Answer: a
41. what of the following is seen in Partial mole
a. Triploidy
b. haploidy
c. polyploidy
d. diploidy
Answer: a
42. Cervical changes in pregnancy are all except ?
a. increased collagen
b. increased Hyaluronic acid
c. Increased glands
d. increased vascularity
Answer: b
GYNAECOLOGY Questions and Answers pdf Download
1. Women with postmenopausal bleeding need endometrial sampling if endometrial on US is thicker than
A. 1mm
B. 2mm
C. 5mm
D. 8mm
E. 10mm
Answer: C.5mm
2. Which of the following change in puberty is influenced by the estrogen:
A. Growth of the acinar buds of the breast
B. Epiphyseal fusion
C. Proliferatve phase
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
3. not exclusevely in the stomach121. Pelvic ultrasound is helpful in the diagnosis of:
A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. Asherman’s syndrome
C. Ascites
D. Ovulation detection
E. Endometriosis
Answer: D.Ovulation detection
4. Glycogen is seen in the lumina of endometrial glands :
A. During the luteal phase
B. During pregnancy only
C. During pre and post ovulatory
D. During proliferative phase only
E. At the time of ovulation only
Answer: A.During the luteal phase
5. The Wolfian duct in the female :
A. Develops into the fallopian tube
B. Forms the ovary
C. Forms the round ligament
D. Regresses and becomes vestigial
E. None of the above
Answer: D.Regresses and becomes vestigial
6. Large amount of alkaline phosphatase may be demonstrated in the endometrium of :
A. Decidua
B. Secretory phase
C. Proliferative phase
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C.Proliferative phase
7. Oxytocin and vasopressin are transferred from hypothalamus to neurohypophysis through:
A. Venous channels
B. Lymphatics
C. Nerve axons
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C.Nerve axons
8. The levator ani muscle :
A. Is a voluntary muscle
B. Is attached laterally to the ”white line of the pelvis ”
C. Is composed of pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus muscle
D. Contracts to prevent spillage of urine during strain
E. All of the above
Answer: E.All of the above
9. The function of round ligament is :
A. Vestigial with no apparent function
B. To prevent retrodisplacement of the uterus
C. To prevent uterine prolapse
D. To provide nerve supply of the upper vagina
E. None of the above
Answer: B.To prevent retrodisplacement of the uterus
10. The definitive epithelium of vagina is derived from :
A. Wolfian duct
B. Mullerian duct
C. Urogenital epithelium
D. Coelomic epithelium
E. none
Answer: C.Urogenital epithelium
11. Causes of post partum amenorrhoea may be :
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Cervical atresia
C. Chlorpromazaine therapy
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.Any of the above
12. The cyclic production of pituitary hormones is dependant upon:
A. Normal menstruation
B. An intact pituitary- portal system
C. An adult anterior pituitary gland
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B.An intact pituitary- portal system
13. The clots passed with menorrhagia perhaps indicate
A. No endometrial regeneration
B. No terminal arteriolar spasm
C. Large amount of bleeding
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C.Large amount of bleeding
14. Monilial vagintis occurs frquently during pregnancy because :
A. Glycosuria is commoner
B. The vagina contains more glycogen
C. Higher vaginal acidity suppresses other organisms
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
15. Physical exam reveals the uterus to be about 6 wk size. Vaginal bleeding is scanty with no discernible tissue in the cervical os. There are no palpable adnexal masses. The uterus is mildly tender. Ultrasonographic exam does not reveal a gestational sac. Which of the following should be recommended?
A. Dilatation & curettage.
B. Culdocentesis.
C. Observation followed by serial B-HCG determinations.
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy.
E. Laparotomy
Answer: D.Diagnostic laparoscopy.
16. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system:
A. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
B. This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
C. This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia
D. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially
E. none
Answer: A.There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
17. Myxoma peritonei may occur as a consequence of rupture of which ovarian cyst ?
A. Dermoid
B. Struma ovarii
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Mucinous cystadenoma
E. Cystadenofibroma
Answer: D.Mucinous cystadenoma
18. Lutein and theca lutein cysts may be associated with all the following except :
A. Mole
B. Chorionepithelioma
C. Stein-leventhal syndrome(PCO)
D. Pregnancy
E. Abortion
Answer: C.Stein-leventhal syndrome(PCO)
19. The site of primary infection in patients with pelvic tuberculosis is usually
A. Tubal
B. Uterine
C. Cervical
D. Ovarian
E. Lungs
Answer: E.Lungs
20. The preferred treatment of ruptured tubo-ovarian abscess is :
A. Cul-de-sac drainage
B. Removal of uterus , tubes and involved ovary
C. Removal of uterus , tubes and ovaries
D. Removal of ruptured tube and ovary
E. Removal of adenexae and drainage
Answer: C.Removal of uterus , tubes and ovaries
21. The cysts of Stein -Leventhal ovary or PCOD are of which kind?
A. Lutein
B. Germinal inclusion
C. Follicular
D. Theca lutein
E. Endometrial
Answer: C.Follicular
22. Clinical findings of PCOD include all except :
A. Obesity
B. Olgomenorrhoea
C. Infertility
D. Tall stature
E. none
Answer: D.Tall stature
23. Pyogenic infections of genital tract usually spread via :
A. Mucous membrane
B. Veins
C. Lymphatics
D. Fistulous tracts
E. B+C
Answer: E.B+C
24. Presence of pyometra in a post menopausal females strongly suggests:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Degenerating myoma
C. Senile endometritis
D. Malignancy
E. Sexual promiscuity
Answer: D.Malignancy
25. The most common symptom associated with adenomyosis is :
A. Infertility
B. Menorrhagia
C. Haematometra
D. Dyspareunia
E. Metrorrhagia
Answer: B.Menorrhagia
26. Adenomyosis is often associated with all of the following except :
A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Myoma
C. Endometriosis
D. Mymetrial hypertrophy
E. Subinvolution of uterus
Answer: E.Subinvolution of uterus
27. Medadteam.org More than you dream125. A 63 old lady presents with abdominal mass & weight loss , was diagnosed as having an ovarian tumor , the most common ovarian tumour in this woman would be…:
A. epithelial tumour
B. germ cell tumour
C. stromal tumour
D. sex cord tumour
E. trophoblastic tumour
Answer: A.epithelial tumour
28. There is a 5% incidence of primary extrauterine malignancy associated with endometrial cancer, the most frequent site for such is :
A. Stomach
B. lung
C. Breast
D. Bone
E. Spleen
Answer: C.Breast
29. The cause of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is :
A. Defect in cortisol synthesis
B. defect in ACTH synthesis
C. Defect in testosterone synthesis
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: A.Defect in cortisol synthesis
30. Anterior pituitary function may be blocked by:
A. Blood levels of steroids
B. Emotional factors
C. Sensory stimuli
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
31. Subnuclear vaculoes in the endometrial mucosa are evidence of activity of:
A. Cholesterol
B. Progesterone
C. Pregnendiol
D. Androstenendione
E. Oestrogen
Answer: B.Progesterone
32. Common ovulation induced drugs are
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Tamoxifen or the newer letrozole
C. Gonadotrophins
D. GnRh analogue down regulation protocols
E. All of the above
Answer: E.All of the above
33. The commonest cause of death in cancer cervix is :
A. Infection
B. Uraemia
C. Haemorrhage
D. Cachexia
E. Distant metastasis
Answer: B.Uraemia
34. Failure to find sperm in postcoital examination may be due to :
A. Excessive oestrogen effect on cervical mucous
B. Excessive vaginal lactic acid
C. Oligospermia
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C.Oligospermia
35. The differential diagnosis of vaginal cysts include :
A. Cystocele
B. Urethral diverticulum
C. Urethrocoele
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
36. Factors in cervical cancer development EXCEPT:
A. HIV infection
B. Chlamydia infection
C. Breast cancer
D. Smoking
E. Immunosuppression
Answer: C.Breast cancer
37. A synthetic progestin. What is the most likely explanation for the contraceptive action of this drug?
A. Replacement of the LH surge by an FSH surge.
B. Abolition of the LH surge
C. Enhanced positive feedback of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
D. Increased conversion of testosterone to estradiol.
E. Inadequate decidualization of the uterus.
Answer: E.Inadequate decidualization of the uterus.
38. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genitaltract infection in users of progestin releasing IUDs, except:
A. Reduced retrograde menstruation
B. Decreased ovulation
C. Thickened cervical mucus
D. Decidual changes in the endometrium
E. All of the above
Answer: E.All of the above
39. Non-neoplastic ovarian cysts include all of the following except:
A. follicular cyst
B. theca lutein cyst
C. dermoid cyst
D. corpus luteum cyst
E. endmetroid cyst
Answer: C.dermoid cyst
40. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion duringpregnancy?
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
E. none
Answer: C.Dermoid cyst
41. Magnesium sulphate toxicity include all EXCEPT:
A. CNS depression
B. This drug acts only on motor end plate
C. Respiratory depression
D. muscle relaxant
E. none
Answer: B.This drug acts only on motor end plate
42. In DUB all are right except,:
A. may be associated with hypothyroidism
B. may be associated with post-menopausal bleeding
C. may be associated with functional ovarian cysts
D. may present as menorrhagia
E. may be present as metropathia hemorrhagica
Answer: B.may be associated with post-menopausal bleeding
43. Metabolic causes of anovulatory DUB include all except :
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Halban’s syndrome
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. diabetes mellitus
Answer: B.Halban’s syndrome
44. The primary drainage of the lower vagina is to :
A. external iliac nodes
B. Sacral nodes
C. Femoral nodes
D. superficial inguinal nodes
E. internal iliac nodes
Answer: D.superficial inguinal nodes
45. The most common causative organism in acute bartholinitis is
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Colon bacillus
D. Gonococcus
E. Trichomonas
Answer: D.Gonococcus
46. The uterine artery supplies the
A. Vagina
B. Lower cevix
C. Ovary
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
47. Common accompaniments salpingitis are :
A. Pelvic mass
B. Bleeding
C. Pain
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C.Pain
48. he ovary of new born may contain :
A. Small folicular cysts
B. Corpora lutea
C. Lutenized grnulosa cells
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: E.None of the above
49. Cervical amputation :
A. Is followed frequently by abortion
B. Is associated with high incidence of post operative sterility
C. Is not frequently followed by cervical dystocia in patients who become pregnant
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
50. The effect of ovarian steroid on anterior pituitary is
A. Direct stimulation
B. Direct inhibition
C. Mediated via hypothalamus
D. Unknown
E. Direct stimulation and inhibition
Answer: C.Mediated via hypothalamus
51. What are the signs of ovulation on Ultrasonography :
A. Irregular follicle wall
B. Collapse of follicle
C. Fluid in cul de sac
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
52. The uterus is held in anteflexed position by :
A. The ventral pull of round ligament
B. The dorsal pull of uterosacral ligaments
C. Its weight
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
53. The most common symptom of adenomyosis is :
A. Dysmenorrhoea
B. Menorrhagia
C. Pain
D. Fever
E. None of the above
Answer: B.Menorrhagia
54. The commonest cause of stress incontinence is
A. Constipation
B. Raised intra abdominal pressure
C. Congenital weakness of sphincter
D. Childbirth trauma
E. Estrogen deficiency
Answer: D.Childbirth trauma
55. Perforation of the uterus while doing endometrial biopsy in non pregnant uterus, needs
A. Laparoscopy
B. Observation
C. Immediate laparotomy
D. Hysterectomy
E. none
Answer: A.Laparoscopy
56. Least common type of uterine anomaly in patients with recurrent pregnancy loss :
A. Unicornuate
B. Arcuate
C. Septate
D. Bicornuate
E. Didelphys
Answer: A.Unicornuate
57. Diagnosis of stress incontinence coded by which of the following before taking the patient for surgery
A. History
B. Subjective demonstration of stress incontinence
C. Objective demonstration of stress incontinence
D. Urodynamic studies
E. none
Answer: D.Urodynamic studies
58. The following are the factors associated with CIN EXCEPT
A. Onset of coitus at early stage
B. Multiple sexual partners
C. Lower socioeconomic status
D. Nulliparity
E. H/o veneral disease
Answer: D.Nulliparity
59. Best treatment for severe stress incontinence without prolapse is
A. Pelvic floor exercise
B. Kelly’s repair
C. Burch colposuspension
D. MMK operation
E. Urethral collagen implant
Answer: B.Kelly’s repair
60. Bartholin’s gland duct opens in…..
A. Upper third of labia majora
B. Middle third of labia majora
C. Upper third of labia minora
D. Middle third of labia minora
E. none
Answer: D.Middle third of labia minora
61. A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat pelvic examination in 1 year
B. Repeat pelvic ultrasound in 6 weeks
C. Prescribe the oral contraceptive pill
D. Perform hysteroscopy
E. perform laparotomy
Answer: E.perform laparotomy
62. A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?
A. Breast cancer
B. Elevated LDL cholesterol
C. Endometrial changes
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Osteoporosis
Answer: C.Endometrial changes
63. A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Cone biopsy
C. Dilation and curettage
D. Hysteroscopy
E. Hysterectomy
Answer: E.Hysterectomy
64. Ovarian precursors of oestradiol include :
A. Oestrone
B. Androstenedione
C. Testosterone
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
65. Female patient with endometrial hyperplasia could be all of these except:
A. thecoma
B. fibroma
C. Brenner tumor
D. follicular cyst
E. none
Answer: B.fibroma
66. Endometroid cyst, on examination:
A. adenexal tenderness
B. cyst felt in thin people
C. cyst fixed and tender
D. all of the above .
E. none
Answer: D.all of the above .
67. Considering epithelial neoplasm of the ovaries all true except :
A. the commonest
B. mucinous cystadenoma lined by tubal epithelium
C. Brenner tumor lined by urinary tract epithelium
D. embryologically arise from wolffian epithelium .
E. none
Answer: B.mucinous cystadenoma lined by tubal epithelium
68. The Commonest ovarian neoplasm complicated with torsion during pregnancy:
A. fibroma
B. teratoma
C. simple serous cyst
D. thecoma .
E. none
Answer: B.teratoma
69. Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :
A. hemorrhagic teratoma
B. disturbed ectopic pregnancy
C. appendicitis
D. peritonitis .
E. none
Answer: A.hemorrhagic teratoma
70. Considering mucinous cystadenoma :
A. the commonest neoplasm
B. usually bilateral
C. sometimes fill the entire abdominal cavity
D. lined by tubal epithelium .
E. none
Answer: C.sometimes fill the entire abdominal cavity
71. Considering Brenner tumor all true except :
A. potential malignant is common
B. histologically has epithelial nests and coffe bean nuclei
C. vaginal bleeding reported with it
D. usually in childbearing women
E. none
Answer: D.usually in childbearing women
72. Considering Meig’s syndrome it is associated with :
A. ovarian fibroma
B. left side pleural effusion
C. ascitis
D. a&b
E. a&c
Answer: E.a&c
73. Considering malignant ovarian neoplasm histologically may be all except :
A. epithelial tumors
B. germ cells tumor
C. cystic and solid tumors
D. sex cord tumors .
E. none
Answer: C.cystic and solid tumors
74. For endometrial cyst all true except :
A. choclate cyst on TVS
B. laparoscope is indicated
C. C125 is a specific test
D. associated with dysmenoorrhoea .
E. none
Answer: C.C125 is a specific test
75. Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lowerabdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :
A. assurance sending home
B. hold ovarian stimulatin drug
C. laparotomy
D. non of the above .
E. none
Answer: B.hold ovarian stimulatin drug
76. Considering endometroid cyst :
A. not uncommon
B. due to menstrual reaction
C. torsion is common
D. a&b .
E. all the above
Answer: D.a&b .
77. Considering endometrial cyst ttt all true except :
A. GNRH is of benefit
B. laparosope idicated in small cyst
C. laparotomy is preferred
D. recurrence is not common
E. none
Answer: D.recurrence is not common
78. Considering the follicular cyst it is rarely associated with :
A. endometrial hyperplasia
B. acute abdomen
C. polycystic ovary
D. On PV in obese patient it may rupture .
E. none
Answer: B.acute abdomen
79. Female patient with history of endometriosis , menstrual disorders complaining from pain on right iliac fossa , on examination there was tenderness on right iliac fossa with no rebound pain no rigidity , on CBC it was normal , most likely :
A. peritonitis
B. appendicitis
C. follicular cyst
D. non of the above
E. none
Answer: C.follicular cyst
80. Considering a case of follicular cyst it need all of following except :
A. assurance follow up
B. OCP
C. usually surgical removal
D. repeated US
E. none
Answer: C.usually surgical removal
81. Considering the follicular cyst all of following is true except :
A. associated with metropathia hemorrhagica
B. OCP indicated in ttt
C. the second common functional cyst
D. TAS is the gold standard diagnostic method
E. none
Answer: C.the second common functional cyst
82. Considering the endometroid cyst :
A. associated with dysmenorrhoea
B. associated with pelvic pain
C. associatd with pelvic endometriosis
D. All of the above
E. none
Answer: D.All of the above
83. Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to be :
A. follicular cyst
B. theca lutein cyst
C. corpus luteum cyst
D. none of the above .
E. all
Answer: B.theca lutein cyst
84. A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells, favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is:
A. Vaginal hysterectomy
B. Radical hysterectomy/Radiotherapy
C. Cold-knife conization of the cervix
D. Loop excision of the cervical tranformation zone
E. none
Answer: C.Cold-knife conization of the cervix
85. The following about human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are correct EXCEPT:
A. It is the most common viral STDs.
B. It may lead CIN and cervical cancer.
C. It is due to RNA virus.
D. Infection may be warty or flat condyloma.
E. Infection is usually associated with others STDs.
Answer: C.It is due to RNA virus.
86. The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is to the following lymph nodes EXCEPT:
A. The femoral lymph nodes.
B. The internal iliac lymph nodes.
C. The para-cervical lymph nodes.
D. The pre-sacral lymh nodes.
E. The Obturator lymph nodes
Answer: A.The femoral lymph nodes.
87. The commonest secondary change in uterine fibroids is:
A. Fatty degeneration
B. Myxomatous degeneration.
C. Hyaline degeneration
D. Cystic degeneration
E. Calcification
Answer: C.Hyaline degeneration
88. The following is correct about the ovarian ligaments:
A. Contain ureters.
B. Contain ovarian arteries.
C. Are attached laterally to pelvic wall.
D. Lie anterior to the broad ligament.
E. Are homologous to part of the gubernaculums testis in the male
Answer: B.Contain ovarian arteries.
89. The severity of CIN is graded
A. 1-3
B. 1a-4a
C. I-III+ I-IV
D. A-C
E. none
Answer: A.1-3
90. Cervical polyps
A. causes spontaneous abortion
B. are cause of antepartum hge
C. cause watery vaginal discharge
D. are covered by squamous epithelium
E. cause intermenstrual bleeding
Answer: E.cause intermenstrual bleeding
91. Involves pelvic LN clearance, hysterectomy, removal of the parametrium and theupper third of the vagina.
A. Wartman’s hysterectomy
B. Wertheim’s hysterectomy
C. Wertheims Trachelectomy
D. Radical trachelectomy
E. Trachelems hysterectomy
Answer: B.Wertheim’s hysterectomy
92. 5 year survival for someone with stage 3-4 cervical carcinoma
A. 10-30%!!!
B. 80-95%
C. 2-10%
D. 65-80%
E. 45-60%
Answer: A.10-30%!!!
93. Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Microinvasion of the basement membrane, <7mm across, with no lymph/vascular space invasion
A. Stage 1b
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 4
D. Stage 1a
E. Stage 2a
Answer: D.Stage 1a
94. Acetic acid turns a portion of the cervix _____ in a patient with a CIN
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Brown
D. Orange
E. White
Answer: E.White
95. Typical cells are found only in the lower third of the epithelium
A. CIN III
B. CIN I
C. CIN V
D. CIN IV
E. CIN II
Answer: E.CIN II
96. A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
A. Perform a Pap smear
B. Perform a cold-knife conization
C. Give the patient a course of intravaginal Metronidazole gel followed by reexamination in 6 weeks
D. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion
E. none
Answer: D.Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion
97. The area where cervical carcinoma usually originates
A. Neoplastic zone
B. Metaplastic field
C. Retrograde area
D. Transformation zone
E. Transition field
Answer: D.Transformation zone
98. Cervical carcinoma is most common between the ages of
A. 45-55
B. 16-18
C. 18-22
D. 35-45
E. 25-35
Answer: A.45-55
99. Cervical carcinoma characteristically spreads in the
A. Tissue
B. Lymph
C. Bone
D. Blood
E. Mucus
Answer: B.Lymph
100. Which of the following is thought to be protective against CIN?
A. HIV
B. Oral contraceptive usage
C. Long term sexual abstinence
D. Smoking
E. Long term steroid use
Answer: C.Long term sexual abstinence
101. Cervical carcinoma that can be treated with cone biopsy
A. Stage 5
B. Stage 1a
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 2a
E. Stage 4a
Answer: B.Stage 1a
102. The presence of atypical cells within the squamous epithelium
A. Cervical dyskaryosis
B. Nabothian follicles
C. Dysplasic dyskaryosis
D. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
E. Cervicitis
Answer: D.Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
103. 5 year survival for someone with stage 1a cervical carcinoma
A. 95%
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 80%
E. 60%
Answer: A.95%
104. Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Invasion of the lower vagina or pelvicwall, or causing ureteric obstruction
A. Stage 1a
B. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 2a
E. Stage 1b
Answer: C.Stage 3
105. HPV types _________ are the most significant and account for 70% of allcervical cancers
A. 45 and 46
B. 31 and 33
C. 14 and 16
D. 16 and 18
E. 12 and 14
Answer: D.16 and 18
106. Anovulatory infertility in PCO is due to:
A. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by dysregulation of GnRH pulse generator
B. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by adrenal & ovarian hyperandrogenism
C. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by insulin resistance
D. alteration in folliculogenesis caused by alteration of ovarian growth factors
E. all of the above
Answer: E.all of the above
107. Ovarian tumors which may produce chorionic gonadotrophins include :
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
108. Pathology of endometriosis may be explained by :
A. coelemic metaplasia
B. endometrial hyperplasia
C. retrograde menstruation
D. intraperitoneal immunologic deficit
E. lymphatic diffusion
Answer: C.retrograde menstruation
109. The cysts in Polycystic Ovarian syndrome are formed by:
A. Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosis
B. Oocyte proliferation
C. Multiple corpus lutea
D. Cystic degeneration of ovarian cortex
E. none
Answer: A.Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosis
110. An ‘ in situ ‘ stage has not been officially recognized in which of the following :
A. Ovarian carcinoma
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Cervical carcinoma
D. Vulvar carcinoma
E. Vaginal carcinoma
Answer: A.Ovarian carcinoma
111. The gastrointestinal primary of a Krukenberg tumour of the ovary is most oftenfound in the :
A. Gall bladder
B. Rectum
C. Pylorus
D. Colon
E. Small intestine
Answer: C.Pylorus
112. Functional ovarian cysts include:
A. Follicular cysts.
B. Endometriomas.
C. Dermoid cysts.
D. fibromas.
E. none
Answer: A.Follicular cysts.
113. In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumor, a benign tumor has which of the following gross features?
A. Excrescences on the surface.
B. Peritoneal implants.
C. Intra-cystic papillations.
D. Free mobility.
E. Capsule rupture.
Answer: D.Free mobility.
114. A 54-year-old woman is found to have endometrial hyperplasia on endometrialbiopsy. A functional ovarian tumor to be suspected is a:
A. Lipid cell tumor.
B. Granulosa-theca cell tumor.
C. Sertoli-Leydig yumor.
D. Muncious cystadenocarcinoma.
E. Polycystic ovary
Answer: B.Granulosa-theca cell tumor.
115. A uni-locular ovarian cyst measuring 4.4 cm by 4.9 cm found on routine ultrasonograrhy during the 8th week of gestation . best management for this case is
A. observation and repeated ultrasonography
B. laparoscoic aspiration of the cyst
C. immediate laparotomy and cystectomy
D. immediate laparotomy and ovariectomy
E. laparotomy and cystectomy postponed to 14 weeks
Answer: A.observation and repeated ultrasonography
116. Germ cell tumours include all the following except
A. choriocarcinoma
B. gonadoblastoma
C. endodermal sinus tumour
D. begnin cystic teratoma
E. solid teratoma
Answer: B.gonadoblastoma
117. Which is the major cause of cancer death in women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Lung cancer
E. Ovarian cancer
Answer: A.Breast cancer
118. Endometrial carcinomas associated with estrogen therapy “ caused by unopposedestrogen therapy “ :
A. well differentiated
B. are deeply invasive
C. are sensitive to progesterone therapy
D. generally have poor prognosis
E. have high rates of reccurence
Answer: C.are sensitive to progesterone therapy
119. Ovarian cancer:
A. Separate FIGO staging systems exist for epithelial and sex-cord/stromal ovarian tumors
B. Granulosa Cell Tumor has an excellent prognosis because most patients present with early-stage disease
C. Meigs’ syndrome consists of ascites; hydrothorax and a malignant ovarian tumor
D. Krukenberg tumours are metastatic ovarian neoplasms originating exclusively in the stomach
E. none
Answer: B.Granulosa Cell Tumor has an excellent prognosis because most patients present with early-stage disease
120. Regarding ovarian tumours
A. adenocarcinoma is more commonly bilateral than mucinous
B. the use of oral contraceptives is a risk factor for ovarian cancer
C. Sertoli-Leydig tumours of the ovary are typically estrogen secreting
D. Fat saturation MRI images are of value in diagnosing cystic teratomas
E. RI (Resistive index) values of intratumoral areas can differentiate between benign and malignant ovarian tumours
Answer: A.adenocarcinoma is more commonly bilateral than mucinous
121. A Krukenberg tumour is an ovarian neoplasm which :
A. Is primary in the ovary
B. Is associated with hydrothorax
C. Is secondary to any GIT cancer
D. Shows characteristic mucoid epithelial change
E. None of the above
Answer: D.Shows characteristic mucoid epithelial change
122. CA-125 is ?
A. A mucin-type glycoprtein
B. A ganglioside
C. A tumor-specific transplantation antigen
D. Useful for ovarian cancer screening in the general patient population
E. An antigen which is commonly expressed by mucinous ovarian carcinomas
Answer: A.A mucin-type glycoprtein
123. A young female came to you with complaint of oligomenorrhea ,hirsutism & weightgain ,US reveals bulky ovaries with subcapsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is
A. ovarian cancer
B. cushing syndrome
C. PCOD
D. DM
E. PID
Answer: C.PCOD
124. A large cystic tumour is detected in a woman in routine antenatal examination.The most common complication she can encounter?
A. Torsion
B. rupture
C. hemorrhage
D. infection
E. degeneration
Answer: A.Torsion
125. A 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Mammogram
C. Pap smear
D. Pelvic ultrasound
E. Sigmoidoscopy
Answer: C.Pap smear
126. Hilus or Leydig cell tumour may be associated with :
A. Reinke crystals
B. Oestrogen effect on endometrium
C. Clinical virilism
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D.All of the above
127. A multiparous woman aged 40 years, presents with menorahagia and progressively increasing dysmenorrhoea. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ca Cervix
B. Ca Endometrium
C. Adenomyosis
D. DUB
E. none
Answer: C.Adenomyosis
128. Female with history of frequent micturition may be :
A. prolapse
B. incarcerated fibroma
C. pregnancy
D. a&c
E. all above .
Answer: E.all above .
129. Considering dysgerminoma all true except :
A. the commonest germ cell tumor
B. usually in young females
C. lymphatic spread is so late
D. elevate lactic dehydrogenase level .
E. none
Answer: C.lymphatic spread is so late
130. Ordering accord to the commonest cancers in female genital tract the right is :
A. cervical , endometrial ,ovarian
B. ovarian , cervical , endometrial
C. endometrial , cervical , ovarian
D. endometrial , ovarian , cervical .
E. none
Answer: C.endometrial , cervical , ovarian
131. Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is
A. laparotomy
B. iv fluids
C. CBC
D. PV examination
E. none
Answer: B.iv fluids
132. Considering ovarian cancer :
A. surgery is preferred to be last line
B. early discovered with good prognosis
C. chemotherapy is good in most tumors
D. germ cell tumors show good response to chemotherapy
E. none
Answer: D.germ cell tumors show good response to chemotherapy
133. A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
A. Mature cystic teratoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
D. Fibrothecoma
E. Krukenberg tumor
Answer: D.Fibrothecoma
134. Vaginal adenocarcinomas in children is caused by
A. Virus
B. Administration of DES to pregnant mothers
C. Hormonal changes
D. All of the above
E. none
Answer: B.Administration of DES to pregnant mothers
135. Carcinoma cervix with involvement of upper 2/3 of vagina is stage
A. II
B. II B
C. III A
D. III B
E. none
Answer: A.II
136. A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past 5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
A. Endometrial adenocarcinoma
B. Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma
C. Mesothelioma
D. Ovarian mature cystic teratoma
E. Adenocarcinoma of fallopian tube
Answer: B.Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma
137. Ovarian masses:
A. Are malignant in presence of ascites
B. Include benign teratomas
C. Of germ cell origin may secrete hormones
D. May be confused with develpomental abnormalities of renal tract
E. If malignant can be reliably staged pre-operatively
Answer: B.Include benign teratomas
138. A 4-year-old girl is noted to have breast enlargement and vaginal bleeding. On physical examination, she is noted to have a 9-cm pelvic mass. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?
A. Cystic teratoma
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Endodermal sinus tumor
D. Granulosa cell tumor
E. Mucinous tumor
Answer: D.Granulosa cell tumor
139. Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following execpt:
A. Air insufflation
B. Sonosalpingography
C. Hysterrosalpingography
D. Laparoscopic chromotubation
E. all of the above
Answer: E.all of the above
140. Before puberty, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body ?
A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1
C. 1 : 3
D. 1 : 4
E. none
Answer: B.2 : 1
141. As regard mastalgia:
A. in cyclic mastalgia pain is usaully max. postmenestrual
B. is treaeted surgically
C. bromocriptine may be used
D. gammaleinoliec acid is contraindicated
E. none
Answer: C.bromocriptine may be used
142. Pap smear
A. the next step in dysplastic smear is colposcopy
B. is simple but inaccurate
C. should be carried out every 5 years
D. has no role in screening of assymptomatic women
E. all of the above
Answer: A.the next step in dysplastic smear is colposcopy
143. A 40-years-old female with history of fibroid on investigation showed CIN-2 changes. Treatment of choice in this case is :
A. Hysterectomy
B. Conization
C. Cryotherapy
D. Laser ablation
E. none
Answer: A.Hysterectomy
144. Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding (DUB) is defined as abnormal uterine bleeding ?
A. Secondary to hormonal dysfunction
B. Caused by cancer
C. In a patient with von Willebrand’s disease
D. With no organic cause
E. Caused by an endometrial polyp
Answer: D.With no organic cause
145. Abnormal Uterine bleeding (AUB) is defined by all of the following except ?
A. Excessive Blood loss (>80 ml) during menses
B. Menstrual length less than 7 days
C. An interval of less than 21 days between the starts of successive menses
D. Irregular bleeding episodes between menses
E. Extended (>35 days) intervals between menses
Answer: B.Menstrual length less than 7 days
146. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is said to present when there is bleeding due to :
A. Fibroid
B. Endometriosis
C. Irregular ripening and irregular shedding
D. Chronic endometritis
E. none
Answer: C.Irregular ripening and irregular shedding
147. Post menopausal bleeding does not occur in….
A. Use of combined OCP’s
B. Atrophic vaginitis
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. CA-Endometrium
E. none
Answer: A.Use of combined OCP’s
148. Bicornute uterus may predispose to all the following except:
A. recurrent PTL
B. primary amenorrhea
C. retention of placenta after delivery
D. menorrhagia
E. none
Answer: B.primary amenorrhea
149. A couple presented in OPD with H/0 infertility since last 2 years. Husbands semen analysis was advised. What is WHO criterion – for minimum sperm count in normal semen?
A. 10 million.
B. 20 million.
C. 30 million.
D. 40 million.
E. 70 million.
Answer: B.20 million.
150. A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is:
A. Ampulla.
B. Isthmus.
C. Fimbrial end.
D. Abdomin.
E. Cervix.
Answer: A.Ampulla.
151. Mean age for menopause is:
A. 40 years.
B. 45 years.
C. 51 years.
D. 48 years.
E. 39 years.
Answer: C.51 years.
152. Second degree uterovaginal prolapse is characterized by:
A. Complete protrusion of uterus outside introitus.
B. Descent of genital tract within vagina.
C. Descent of genital tract upto introitus.
D. Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.
E. Descent of cervix below the ischeal spines.
Answer: D.Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.
153. A 63 years old lady presents with abdominal mass and weight loss, was diagnosed as having an ovarian tumour. The most common ovarian tumour in this woman would be:
A. Epithelial tumour.
B. Germ cell tumour.
C. Stromal tumour.
D. Sex cord tumour.
E. Trophoblastic tumour.
Answer: A.Epithelial tumour.
154. A young girl, 23 years old is presented with complaint of abdominal pain, menorrhagia and 18 weeks size mass arising from hypogastrium. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Endometriosis.
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
C. Ovarian cyst.
D. Fibroid uterus.
E. Mesenteric cyst.
Answer: D.Fibroid uterus.
155. A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is:
A. Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.
B. Inducing endometrial atrophy.
C. Increasing cervical mucous hostility.
D. Inducing endometritis.
E. Inhibiting prolactin.
Answer: A.Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.
156. Women complaining of milky whitish discharge with fishy odour. No history of itching. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Bacterial vaginosis.
B. Trichomoniasis.
C. Candidiasis.
D. Malignancy.
E. Urinary tract infection.
Answer: A.Bacterial vaginosis.
157. A young medical student has come to you with complaints of oligomenorrrhea, hirsuitism and weight gain, ultrasound reveals bulky ovaries with sub-capsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Ovarian cancer.
B. Cushing’s syndrome.
C. Polycystic ovarian disease.
D. Diabetes mellitus.
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
Answer: C.Polycystic ovarian disease.
158. A 43 year old, lecturer has come to you with complaints of heavy but regular menstrual bleeding with flooding and clots. There is no anatomical reason for heavy flow. The most effective remedy for reducing her menstrual flow is:
A. Tranexemic acid.
B. Dilatation and Curettage.
C. Depomedroxy progesterone acetate.
D. Misoprostol.
E. Ergometrine maleate.
Answer: A.Tranexemic acid.
159. A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be:
A. Dilatation & Curettage.
B. Cone biopsy of cervix.
C. Pap smear.
D. Colposcopy.
E. Laparoscopy.
Answer: C.Pap smear.
160. A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be:
A. Continued observation.
B. Endometrial biopsy.
C. Hysterectomy.
D. Pelvic ultrasonography.
E. Laparoscopy.
Answer: D.Pelvic ultrasonography.
161. The most effective treatment of pruritis vulvae associated with atrophic vulvitis is:
A. Antihistamines.
B. Hydrocortisone.
C. Alcohol injections.
D. Tranquilizers.
E. Topical estrogen therapy.
Answer: E.Topical estrogen therapy.
162. The most common cause of rectovaginal fistula is:
A. Obstetrical.
B. Irradiation of the pelvis.
C. Carcinoma.
D. Crohn’s disease.
E. Endometriosis.
Answer: A.Obstetrical.
163. A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of:
A. Fistula.
B. Stress incontinence.
C. Urge incontinence.
D. Urethral diverticulum.
E. Urinary tract infection.
Answer: B.Stress incontinence.
164. A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Septic induced abortion.
B. Twin pregnancy.
C. Gestational trophoblastic disease.
D. Ectopic pregnancy.
E. Fibroid uterus.
Answer: C.Gestational trophoblastic disease.
165. The maximum number of oogonia are formed at what ageof female life:
A. One month intrauterine.
B. Five month intrauterine.
C. At birth.
D. At puberty.
E. At 21 years of age.
Answer: B.Five month intrauterine.
166. Menarche usually occurs at age of:
A. 8 and 10 years.
B. 11 and 13 years.
C. 14 and 16 years.
D. 17 and 18 years.
E. 18 and above.
Answer: B.11 and 13 years.
167. The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) in under developed countries would be:
A. Obstetrical injuries.
B. Pelvic irradiation.
C. Carcinoma .
D. Haemorrhoidectomy.
E. Operative injury.
Answer: A.Obstetrical injuries.
168. A 28 year old patient complains of amenorrhea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Kallman’s Syndrome.
B. Turner’s Syndrome.
C. Asherman’s Syndrome.
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
E. Anorexia nervosa.
Answer: C.Asherman’s Syndrome.
169. A large cystic ovarian tumour is detected in a woman on routine antenatal check up. The most common complication she can encounter is:
A. Torsion.
B. Rupture.
C. Haemorrhage.
D. Degeneration.
E. Infection.
Answer: A.Torsion.
170. Which of the following is used to take cervical smear:
A. Colposcope.
B. Vaginoscope.
C. Ayre’s spatula.
D. Laparoscope.
E. Forceps.
Answer: C.Ayre’s spatula.
171. Normal duration of menstrual cycle is:
A. 1-3 days.
B. 1-4 days.
C. 2-7 days.
D. 7-10 days.
E. 1-2 days.
Answer: C.2-7 days.
172. a 20 year old medical student presents with five years history of weight gain, irregular periods and worsening fascial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Polycystic ovarian disease.
B. Hypothyroidism.
C. Obesity.
D. Cushing’s Syndrome.
E. Nephrotic Syndrome.
Answer: A.Polycystic ovarian disease.
173. 28 years old woman with previous history of having baby with Down’s Syndrome is now 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her:
A. Amniocentesis.
B. Obstetric ultrasound.
C. Chorionic villus sampling.
D. Fetal blood sampling.
E. Wait till eighteen weeks for detailed ultrasound and amniocentesis.
Answer: C.Chorionic villus sampling.
174. A newly married girl comes to gynae OPD with history of dysuria, burning, micturition and sore perineum. What is your likely diagnosis:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis.
B. Candida infection.
C. Trauma due to coitus.
D. Honey moon cystitis.
E. Genital herpes.
Answer: D.Honey moon cystitis.
175. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:
A. ACTH.
B. Growth hormone.
C. Leutinising Hormone (LH).
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).
E. Opiate peptides.
Answer: C.Leutinising Hormone (LH).
176. Serum prolactin levels are highest in which of the following conditions:
A. Menopause.
B. Ovulation.
C. Parturition.
D. Sleep.
E. Running.
Answer: C.Parturition.
177. Main uterine support is:
A. Uterosacral ligaments.
B. Round ligaments.
C. Transverse cervical ligaments.
D. Ovarian ligaments.
E. Broad ligaments.
Answer: C.Transverse cervical ligaments.
178. The most likely cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in 13years old girl is:
A. Uterine cancer.
B. Ectopic pregnancy.
C. Anovulation.
D. Systemic bleeding diatheses.
E. Trauma.
Answer: C.Anovulation.
179. Which of the following pubertal event would occur even in the absence of ovarian estrogen production:
A. Thelarche.
B. Menarche.
C. Pubarche.
D. Skeletal growth.
E. Vaginal cornification.
Answer: C.Pubarche.
180. 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be:
A. Colposcopy.
B. Pap smear.
C. Cone biopsy.
D. D & C (dilatation & Curettage).
E. Hysteroscopy.
Answer: D.D & C (dilatation & Curettage).
181. Red degeneration of fibroid is seen in ?
A. Early pregnancy
B. Mid pregnancy
C. Puperium
D. Nulliparous women
Answer: B
182. Radical hysterectomy in stage lb ca cervix better than radiotherapy all are true except ?
A. Chance of survival more
B. Chance of recurrence less
C. Ovary function can be preserved
D. Less complicated
Answer: A
183. Bilateral ovarian carcinoma + capsule + ascitis+ paraaortic LN. Which stage ?
A. 1C
B. 2C
C. 3C
D. 4C
Answer: A
184. Radiation to point A in cervix is ?
A. 8000 rad
B. 6000 rad
C. 10000 rad
D. 4000 rad
Answer: A
185. Most common presentation of cervical cancer is
A. Deep pelvic pain
B. Rectal pain
C. Bleeding per vaginum
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
186. Treatment of simple hyperplasia of endometrium is ?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Hysterectomy
D. Cryosurgery
Answer: A
187. Most common presenting feature of complete mole is ?
A. Vomiting
B. Amenorrhoea
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Bleeding per vaginum
Answer: D
188. Androgenic XX chromosome is ?
A. Partial mole
B. Complete mole
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. Stein leventhal syndrome
Answer: B
189. High chance of rupture in tubal pregnancy are seen in which ?
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Interstitial
D. Fimbrial
Answer: B
190. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is
A. Tubal
B. Abdominal
C. Ovarian
D. Uterine
Answer: A
191. % of ectopic pregnancy seen in fallopian tube is?
A. 75%
B. 90%
C. 80%
D. 67%
Answer: B
192. Drugs used in ectopic pregnancy ?
A. PGE2
B. PGI
C. PGF2
D. None
Answer: C
193. Most common congenital uterine anomaly is ?
A. Bicornuate uterus
B. Septate uterus
C. Unicornuate uterus
D. Arcuate uterus
Answer: B
194. When is copper T inserted ?
A. 3 days after periods are over
B. Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle
C. PID just before menstruation
D. Just after menstruation
Answer: B
195. Most common cause of annular cervix is ?
A. Obstructive labor
B. Prepitate labor
C. Primary cervical dystocia
D. Iatrogenic
Answer: C
196. Intrauterine adhesions best seen by?
A. USG
B. CT
C. Hysteroscopy
D. MRI
Answer: C
197. Insulin resistance in pregnancy is due to ?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. HPL
D. GH
Answer: A:C
198. Gestational diabetes mellitus ?
A. Is first recognized during pregnancy
B. Previous history of IUGR
C. There is no recurrance of GDM in future pregnancy
D. No risk of overt diabetes
Answer: A
199. True about gestational diabetes is ?
A. These are increased chances of congenital malformation
B. Only 2% of women present with overt diabetes
C. There is chance of macrosomia
D. Usually diagnosed in early pregnancy
Answer: C
200. Most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis is
A. Abdominal pain
B. Infertility
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Vaginal discharge
Answer: B
201. PID after insertion of IUD is seen in how many weeks?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14
Answer: A
202. Acute PID, most common route of spread ?
A. Descending
B. Ascending infection
C. Lymphatics
D. Hematogenous
Answer: B
203. Best way to look at endometrial activity is by
A. HSG
B. Biopsy
C. USG
D. Colposcopy
Answer: B
204. Block given in forceps delivery ?
A. Pudendal
B. Ilio inguinal
C. Genitofemoral
D. Posterior femoral
Answer: A
205. Cause of big baby ?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Multiparity
D. Post maturity
Answer: A:B:C:D
206. Decubitus ulcer is ?
A. Due to trauma
B. Due to venous congestion
C. Due to friction created by thighs
D. Due to
Answer: B
207. Patient with history of vaginal prolapse with ulcer on it. Diagnosis ?
A. Carcinoma
B. Pressure erosion
C. Syphilis
D. Decubitus ulcer
Answer: D
208. SERMs are ?
A. Agonist on estrogen receptor
B. Antagonist on estrogen receptor
C. Some are agonist some antagonist on estrogen receptor
D. Used due to reduced chances of hot flushes, thromboembolism
Answer: C
209. Female with hirsutism with ammenorrhoea and obesity. Diagnosis ?
A. PCOD
B. Ovarian tumor
C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Answer: A
210. HAIRAN syndrome is seen in ?
A. PCOD
B. Endometeriosis
C. CA ovary
D. Adrenal tumours
Answer: A
211. Regarding PCOD all are true except ?
A. High FSH/LH
B. High DHEA
C. Raised LH
D. T Estrogen
Answer: A
212. Which hormone increases in PCOD ?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. TSH
Answer: A
213. Stein Levinthal syndrome what hormone is raised?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. Progesterone
Answer: A
214. What should not be done during delivery of Rh negative?
A. IV Fluids
B. External version
C. Manual removal of placenta should be done gently
D. Ergometire to be withheld at delivery of ant. shoulder
Answer: A
215. History of yellow green watery discharge and pruritus?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Candida
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Clamydia tracomatis
Answer: B
216. Most common genital infection in pregnancy is ?
A. Candida
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trachoma
D. Cytomegalo virus
Answer: A
217. Decreased fetal heart sound is due to which drug
A. Oxytocin
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. IV fluids
D. Iron
Answer: A
218. Dose of mifepristone in MTP is ?
A. 10mg
B. 20 mg
C. 100mg
D. 200mg
Answer: A
219. A young sexually active female has intensive pruritus and watery discharge, smear shows ?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Candida vaginitis
C. Gardenlla vaginalis
D. HIV
Answer: D
220. Treatment for trichomonas vaginalis is ?
A. Metronidazole
B. Azithromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. None
Answer: A
221. Which organism causes puerperal sepsis ?
A. CMV
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
D. Group B beta hemolytic streptococci
Answer: C
222. The prostaglandin most commonly used at term for induction of labor is ?
A. PGI2
B. PGE1
C. PGE2
D. PGF2a
Answer: C
223. HCG levels at which Expectant management of Ectopic pregnancy can be done :
A. 10000 IU/L
B. 1000 IU/L
C. 2500 IU/L
D. 5000 IU/L
Answer: B
224. MC cause of Primary Amenorrhea is ?
A. Constitutional/idiopathic
B. RMKH syndrome
C. Ovarian dysgenesis
D. None of the above
Answer: C
225. An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next treatment of choice is ?
A. IVF
B. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
C. Tuboplasty
D. Hydrotubation
Answer: B
226. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all, EXCEPT?
A. Cordocentesis
B. Amniocentesis
C. CVS
D. Fetal skin biopsy
Answer: D
227. 55 year old lady complaints of mass in the vagina, which is reducible & increases on defecation. The diagnosis is?
A. Rectal prolapse
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Cervical fibroid
D. Vaginal cancer
Answer: B
228. Moschowit’s surgery is done for
A. Cervical cancer
B. Fundal fibroids
C. Uterine prolapse
D. Enterocele prevention
Answer: D
229.Which of the following is used in quantifying hirsutism?
A. Bishop score
B. Rotterdam criteria
C. Ferriman-Gallwey score
D. All of the above
Answer: C
230. MC heart disease in pregnancy is ?
A. MS
B. AS
C. MR
D. WPW syndrome
Answer: A
231. Rate of cervical dilatation in primigravida is ?
A. 0.8 cm/hour
B. 1.2 cm/hour
C. 1.5 cm/hour
D. 2 cm/hour
Answer: A
232. Complications of pre eclampsia are all except ?
A. Post datism
B. DIC
C. Blindness
D. None of the above
Answer: A
233. What is monitored in a patient of pre eclamsia ?
A. Uric acid
B. Platelet count
C. LFT
D. All of the above
Answer: D
234. Not an absolute contraindication for methylergometrine use is ?
A. Eclampsia
B. Heart disease
C. Rh incompatibility
D. After delivery of first baby in twin pregnancy
Answer: C
235. A lady with 35 weeks of pregnancy is admitted in view of first episode of painless bout of bleeding yesterday. On examination Hb 10g%, BP 120/70 mmHg, uterus relaxed, and cephalic floating. FHS regular. Next line of management is ?
A. Cesarean section
B. Induction of labor
C. Wait and watch
D. Blood transfusion
Answer: C
236. G3P2L2 with previous 2 LSCS with anterior placenta previa has got a very high risk of which complication?
A. Placenta acreta
B. Vasa previa
C. Abruption
D. None of the above
Answer: A
237. B-Lynch suture is applied on ?
A. Cervix
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Ovaries
Answer: B
238. A 28-year-old primigravida with 33 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complains of headache, oliguria, and blurred vision. Her BP is 180/110 and urine albumin is +3. The line of further management is ?
A. Wait and watch
B. LSCS
C. Induction of labor
D. Anticonvulsant + antihypertensive therapy
Answer: D
239. Which of the following statements concerning abdominal pregnancy is correct?
A. Gastrointestinal symptoms are quite often very severe
B. Fetal survival is approximately 80%
C. Aggressive attempts should be made to remove the placenta at
the time of initial surgery
D. Placenta can be left in situ at the time of surgery
Answer: D
240. Complete vesicular mole is associated Theca leutin csyts in what percentage of cases ?
A. <5
B. 5-15
C. 20-40
D. 60-70
Answer: C
241. Patient with 3 months amenorrhoea, c/o hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since one month. O/E=uterus 16 weeks with absent fetal heart sound. The diagnosis is ?
A. Vesicular mole
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. IUFD
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer: A
242. Patient with choriocarcinoma & jaundice, treatment of choice is ?
A. Methotreaxate
B. Actinomycin D
C. Suction evacuation
D. Combination of all
Answer: B
243. EMACO regime is for ?
A. Ca cervix
B. Ca endometrium
C. Ca ovary
D. Chorio carcinoma
Answer: D
244. Stage lb cervical cancer is diagnosed in a young woman. Assuming that the cancer is confirmed to the cervix and that intraoperative biopsies are negative, which of the following structure would not be removed during the radical hysterectomy?
A. Uterosacral and uterovesical ligaments
B. Pelvic nodes
C. The entire parametrium on both sides of the cervix
D. Both ovaries
Answer: D
245. In vaginal hysterectomy, the first clamp includes:
A. Uterine artery
B. Fallopian tube & round ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. None of the above
Answer: C
246. Therapeutic conization is indicated in?
A. Microinvasive carcinoma cervix stage lal
B. CIN III
C. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia
D. Cervical metaplasia
Answer: A
247. Cervical cancer III B treatment is ?
A. Wertheim’s operation
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Chemoradiation
Answer: D
248. Wertheim’s hysterectomy is done for ?
A. 1A1 cervical cancer
B. IB cervical cancer
C. Germ cell ovarian cancer
D. All of the above
Answer: B
249. Radio isotope used in Ca cervix Brachytherapy ?
A. Cobalt
B. Iridium
C. Cesium
D. All of the above
Answer: D
250. Ca vulva spreads to all except ?
A. Urethra
B. Deep inguinal nodes
C. Superficial inguinal nodes
D. Paraaortic nodes
Answer: D
251. Which ovarian tumour can present with menorrhagia ?
A. Demoid cyst
B. Epithelial ovarian cancer
C. Granulosa cell tumour
D. Yolk sac tumour
Answer: C
252. All are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy except ?
A. Past history
B. Tubal ligation failure
C. IVF
D. LNG IUCD
Answer: D
253. A 21-year-old female presents to emergency ward with 2 months of amenorrhea with pain in abdomen and shock. BP 90/60 mmHg and Hb 6 gm%. Urine pregnancy test is found positive. Next immediate line of treatment is ?
A. Laparotomy
B. IV fluids & cross match
C. Medical management
D. Laparoscopy
Answer: B
254. DOC for medical management of ectopic pegnancy ?
A. Actinomycin D
B. Intramuscular Methotrexate
C. Intramuscular Methotrexate
D. PGf2 alpha
Answer: B
255. What is not used in PCOS ?
A. OC pills
B. Cyclical progesterones
C. Myoinositol
D. Danazol
Answer: D
256. Pearl necklace appearance is characteristic of ?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PCOS
C. Endometriosis
D. PID
Answer: B
257. Violin string adhesion [violent string sign] is seen in ?
A. PCOS
B. Endometriosis
C. Fitz – high -curtis syndrome
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Answer: C
258. Dysgerminoma spreads mainly via ?
A. Hematogenous route
B. Lymphatic route
C. Direct spread
D. Does not spread
Answer: B
259. Triad of symptoms of endometriosis are all except ?
A. Infertility
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Dyspareunia
D. Cyclical hematuria
Answer: D
260. Complication of Benign Ovarian Cysts is ?
A. Torsion
B. Intracystic hemorrhage
C. Pseudomyxoma perotonei
D. All of the above
Answer: D
261. Level 1 support of uterus & vagina is ?
A. levator ani
B. Perineal body
C. Uterosacral ligaments
D. All of the above
Answer: C
262. MC presenting symptom of fibroid is ?
A. Menorrhagia
B. Infertility
C. Lump
D. Compression
Answer: A
263. Medical management of fibroids is with all except
A. Progesterone
B. Mifepristone
C. Ulipristal acetate
D. Misoprostol
Answer: D
264. Endometriosis is ?
A. Endometrium within the myometrium
B. Functional endometrium outside the uterus
C. Myometrium within the endometrium
D. Rare squamous variety of CA endometrium
Answer: B
265.Samson’s theory for Development of Endometriosis is ?
A. Celomic metaplasia
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Lymphatic spread
D. Retrograde menstruation
Answer: D
266. Examination of a 26 years old obese infertile female reveals. Fixed retroverted uterus & Nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A. PCOS
B. Endometriosis
C. Adenomyosis
D. TB
Answer: B
267. Investigation of choice for endometriosis ?
A. USG
B. CA 125
C. MRI
D. Laparoscopy
Answer: D
268. Powder burnt lesion seen in ?
A. PID
B. PCOS
C. Endometriosis
D. All of the above
Answer: C
269. Treatment of choice in patient with infertility & endometriosis ?
A. IUI
B. Surgery
C. Danozol
D. Ovulation induction
Answer: B
270. Surgery of choice in 42 year old P3L3 with diffuse endometriosis is ?
A. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis
B. Hysterectomy
C. Hysterectomy with BSO with resection of endometrial implants
D. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis & resection of implants
Answer: C
271. The most common Mullerian anomaly is?
A. Mullerian agenesis (RMKH)
B. Unicornuate uterus
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Septate uterus
Answer: D
272. SEAM used in DUB is ?
A. Clomiphene
B. Raloxifene
C. Ormiloxifene
D. Mifepristone
Answer: C
273. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
D. No treatment
Answer: D
274. A 46-year-old P3L3 complains of menorrhagia since 3 months. Next line of management is ?
A. D & C
B. Progesterone x 6 months
C. OC pills x 6 months
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: A
275. Simple hyperplasia with atypia will progress to ca endometrium in % of cases ?
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 8-9
D. 20
Answer: C
276. Grade 1 Ca endometrium, there is presence of % non sqoumaous growth ?
A. <5 B. 6-25 C. 25-50 D. >50
Answer: A
277. Definitive treatment of adenomyosis is ?
A. OC pills
B. NSAIDS
C. Endometrial ablation
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: D
278. MC cause for hysterectomy is ?
A. Prolapse
B. Fibroids
C. Ca endometrium
D. Acute PID
Answer: B
279. Prolonged surgery time of vaginal hysterectomy would lead to damage to which nerve ?
A. Obturator
B. Pudendal
C. Peroneal
D. Sural
Answer: C
280.Which of the following is not a part of PID
A. Endometritis
B. Cervicitis
C. Tuboovarian abcess
D. Peritonitis
Answer: B
281. Triad for clinical diagnosis PID includes all except ?
A. Fever
B. Lower abdominal pain
C. Cervical motion tenderness
D. Bilateral adnexal tenderness
Answer: A
282. Acute salpingitis is most commonly caused by ?
A. N. gonorrhoeae
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Mycoplasma
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: B
283. Tumor marker for germ cell malignancy are all except?
A. LDH
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. AFP
D. CA-125
Answer: D
284. Acute pelvic pain could be due to ?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. PID
C. Corpus luteum hematoma
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Ans. D. All of the above
285. Nugent score includes all except
A. Lactobacillus
B. Gardnerella
C. Mobiluncus
D. Gonococcus
Answer: D
286. Clue cells are seen in?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Chlamydiasis
D. Trichomoniasis
Answer: A
287. HSG findings suggestive of genital koch ?
A. Beaded tubes
B. Honeycomb uterus
C. Golf club tube
D. All of the above
Answer: D
288. A pregnant lady presents with genital warts. The best management for her is ?
A. Imiquimod
B. Trichloroacetic acid
C. Podophyllin
D. Cryotherapy
Answer: D
289. 28 year old female complaints of foul smelling yellowish urethral discharge since 4 days. History of burning micturation. History of sexual contact with multiple partners 2 days before the onset of symptoms. Most likely diagnosis is ?
A. Syphilis
B. Chancroid
C. Gonococcal urethritis
D. Non-infective urethritis
Answer: C
290. Twin-peak sign is seen in ?
A. All Monozygotic twins
B. Monochorionic twins
C. Dichorionic twins
D. Siamese twins
Answer: C
291. In ca Cervix treatment, point A receives ?
A. 3000 cGy
B. 5000 cGy
C. 7000 cGy
D. 10,000 cGy
Answer: C
292. Ashermans syndrome is characterized by ?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Menorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. All of the above
Answer: A
293. GARDASIL vaccine is for
A. HPV 16,18
B. HSV
C. HPV 6,11,16,18
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: C
294. LNG content of Mirena is
A. 20 gms
B. 20 mg
C. 52 gms
D. 52 mgs
Answer: D
Ans. D. 52 mgs
295. Which of the following decreases the risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease ?
A. Cu T
B. Spermicidal agents
C. O.C. pills
D. Today vaginal sponge
Answer: C
296. Patient with 45 XO , what HRT to be given ?
A. Growth hormone + E+P
B. Estrogene
C. No HRT Needed
D. HRT only after 45 years
Answer: A
297. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of which cancer?
A. Breast
B. Endometrium
C. Ovary
D. All of the above
Answer: A
298. Raloxifene decreases the risk of which cancer?
A. Breast
B. Cervix
C. Ovary
D. All of the above
Answer: A
299. Least failure rate ?
A. CuT
B. MIRENA
C. DMPA
D. O.C. PILLS
Answer: B
300. Nuva ring contains ?
A. EE+ etonogestrel
B. LNG + EE
C. LNG
D. EE+ drosperinone
Answer: A
301. Which drug used for endometriosis can cause increase in hepatic enzyme & adverse lipid profile
A. 0. C. pills
B. GnRh analogues
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
302.Norgestimate in OC pills has the following advantage ?
A. Reduces venous thrombosis
B. Is cheaper than standard OC pills
C. Reduces acne and hirsutism
D. Useful in heart disease
Answer: C
303. Which of the following is not an ideal candidate for IUCD insertion ?
A. Previous LSCS
B. Lactating mother
C. Acute PID
D. All of the above
Answer: C
304. Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except ?
A. Fetal lung maturity
B. Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage
C. Prevents periventricular leukomalacia
D. Prevent PPH
Answer: D
305. A 32-year-old female with mild hypertension. Two days after normal delivery, she develop seizures, headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction and hematoma 3x2cm.The most probable cause is?
A. Eclampsia
B. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
C. Pituitary apoplexy
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: B
306. Penicillamine use in pregnancy is associated with this fetal complication ?
A. Conradi syndrome
B. Renal anomalies
C. Thymus hypolplasia
D. Cutis laxa
Answer: D
307. DOC for malaria in pregnancy ?
A. Chloroquin
B. Quinine
C. Primaquin
D. Artesunate
Answer: A
308. Prophylactic methergin given for ?
A. Induction of labour
B. Induction of abortion
C. To stop excess bleeding from uterus
D. All of the above
Answer: C
309. 6 year old son of pregnant women is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant women ?
A. Acyclovir
B. Acyclovir + immunoglobulin
C. Only immunoglobulin
D. Vaccination
Answer: B
310. Maximum chance of transmission during
delivery?
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. VZV
D. Rubella
Answer: A
311. Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii in pregnancy?
A. SMZ/TMP
B. Primaquine
C. Dapsone
D. Pentamidine
Answer: A
312. A pregnant woman in first trimester has four fold rise in IgG against toxoplasmosis. it indicates ?
A. Protective antibodies
B. Acute infection
C. Chronic infection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
313. HRT is given in ?
A. Symptomatic postmenopausal women
B. Following hysterectomy
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. All of the above
Answer: D
314. Methergin is given for prophylaxis of ?
A. Anaemia
B. Cardiac disease
C. Renal disease
D. Lung disease
Answer: A
315. All of the following occurs because of prostaglandin use except?
A. Excess water retention
B. Flushes
C. Increased motility of bowel
D. Nausea
Answer: A
316. Definite use for PGE2 is all except ?
A. Contraception
B. Induces labour
C. Therapeutic abortion
D. Keeps patency of PDA
Answer: A
317. Which of following most commonly clinically used?
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. Ant post diameter of inlet
C. Transverse diameter of outlet
D. Oblique diameter of pelvis
Answer: A
318. Least diameter of inlet of gynecoid pelvis is?
A. Transverse
B. Oblique
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric conjugate
Answer: D
319. Tdap vaccine is give in between which weeks of pregnancy?
A. 10-16 weeks
B. 17-22 weeks
C. 22-26 weeks
D. 27-36 weeks
Answer: D
320. If 300 microgram anti D is given to mother , amount of blood it will neutralise ?
A. 30m1
B. 40m1
C. 50m1
D. 60m1
Answer: A
321. Maximum success after reversal of tubal ligation?
A. Cauterization
B. Pomeroy’s technique
C. Clip method
D. Fimbriectomy
Answer: C
322. Failure rate of Pomeroy’s method of tubal ligation is ?
A. 0.2%
B. 0.4%
C. 0.6%
D. 0.8%
Answer: B
323. Least failure rate is of ?
A. OC pills
B. IUDs
C. Condom
D. DMPA
Answer: A
324. Cholestasis of pregnancy false is ?
A. Bilirubin level >2mg%
B. Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
C. Oestrogen is involved
D. Manifestations usually appear in last trimester
Answer: B
325. I-pill is used when ?
A. Accidental sexual exposure
B. OCP forgotten
C. Of choice in young
D. All of the above
Answer: A
326. Emergency contraceptive should must be started with in how much time after unprotected intercourse?
A. 24 hrs
B. 48 hrs
C. 72 hrs
D. 96 hrs
Answer: C
327. 35 year old with history of repeated D&C. She now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Kallman syndrome
C. Sheehan’s syndrome
D. Asherman’s syndrome
Answer: D
328. Asherman’s syndrome false is ?
A. Associated with menstrual irregularities
B. Progesterone challenge test is positive
C. Synechiae formation in uterus
D. May be secondary to TB
Answer: B
329. Most common site of endometriosis
A. Ovary
B. FT
C. Colon
D. LSCS Scar
Answer: A
Ans, A. Ovary
330. Gold standard diagnostic technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
A. Laproscopy
B. Ca 125 level
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI
Answer: A
331. TB uterus all is true except?
A. Mostly secondary
B. Increase incidence of ectopic pregnancy
C. Involvement of endosalpinx
D. Most common is ascending infection
Answer: D
332. Fallopian tube tuberculosis ?
A. Most common type of genital TB
B. Size of the tubes is unchanged
C. Is asymptomatic
D. Primary focus of infection is always in fallopian tubes
Answer: A:C
333. Initial drug for ovarian cancer ?
A. Cisplatin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Ifosfamide
D. Methotrexate
Answer: A
334. Diagnosis of adenomyosis is made by ?
A. Histopathology
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Laproscopy
Answer: D
335. Endometrial carcinoma involving cervix, stage is?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
336. Hydronephrosis is seen in which stage of Ca cervix?
A. 2a
B. 2b
C. 3a
D. 3b
Answer: D
337. Bartholin’s cyst treatment of choice
A. Excision
B. Antibiotics
C. Marsupialisation
D. Drainage
Answer: C
338. Definitive management of Adenomyosis is?
A. GNRH analogue
B. Danazole
C. LH
D. Hysterectomy
Answer: D
339. Most common degeneration of fibroids ?
A. Calcareous
B. Hyaline
C. Red
D. Cystic
Answer: B
340. Which of the following cannot be treated by laparoscopy
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Sterilization
C. Non descent of uterus
D. Genital prolapsed
Answer: C
341. Which is least injured in gynaecological procedures?
A. Ureter at pelvic brim
B. Renal pelvis
C. Urinary bladder
D. Ureter at infundibulopelvic ligament
Answer: B
342. Definitive treatment for preeclampsia?
A. Delivery of baby
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Rest
D. Diet
Answer: A
343. Best to diagnose unruptured ectopic pregnancy ?
A. Scopy
B. UPT
C. USG
D. Culdocentesis
Answer: A
344. Most of ectopic pregnancies are at ampulla as?
A. It is the narrowest part
B. Tubal movements are least here
C. Salpingitis produces least crypts here
D. Plicae are most numerous here
Answer: D
345.Prolapsed of uterus in nulliparous women, treatment is?
A. Sling used involving rectus sheath
B. Anterior colporrhaphy
C. Posterior colporrhaphy
D. Manchester operation
Answer: A
346. Exclusively Fetal blood loss occurs in ?
A. Vasa previa
B. Placenta praevia
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Oligohydramnios
Answer: A
347. Placenta previa, false is ?
A. Most common cause of APH
B. Painful vaginal bleeding
C. Usg is the investigation of choice
D. Increased maternal age is a risk factor
Answer: A
Ans. A. Most common cause of APH
348. 45 yr old female patient underwent hysterectomy, on 7th post op day complaints about continuous dribbling of urine and fever. Micturition was not voluntary, what diagnosis?
A. Vesico vaginal fistula
B. Uretero vaginal fistula
C. Vesico uterine fistula
D. Urethra vaginal fistula
Answer: C
349. Vacuum delivery produces?
A. Chingon
B. Cephalhematoma
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
350. HT indicated in menopausal women
A. Hot flash
B. Ca breast
C. Endometriosis
D. Uterine bleeding
Answer: A
351. In Uterine prolapse how to know if ring is in place?
A. If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure
B. If Bleeding does not occur
C. If patient feels discomfort
D. None
Answer: A
352. Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Folic acid
C. Beclomethasone
D. None
Answer: A
353. Best time to do quadruple test
A. 8-12 weeks
B. 11-15 weeks
C. 15-20 weeks
D. 18-22 weeks
Answer: C
354. Which One of the following is not a cause of secondary Postpartum Haemorrhage?
A. Placenta previa
B. Retained bits of placenta
C. Endometritis
D. Polyp
Answer: A
355. RDA of iodine in lactation in microgram
A. 150
B. 220
C. 100
D. 250
Answer: D
356. Paget’s is associated with which other cancer:
A. Vulva
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Uterus
Answer: A
357. Fimbriectomy procedure is known as
A. Uchida method
B. Irving method
C. Madlener technique
D. Kroener method
Answer: D
358. Establishment of fetoplacental circulation seen at
A. 11 to 13 days
B. 20 to 22 days
C. 7 days
D. 25 to 26 days
Answer: B
359. Dilatation & curettage (D&C. is contraindicated in
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. Endometriosis
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. None
Answer: A
360. Anteversion of uterus is maintained by?
A. Cardinal ligament
B. Uterosacral ligament
C. Pubocervical ligament
D. Round ligament
Answer: D
361. What is the effect of Progesterone only pills?
A. Completely suppresses ovulation
B. Thin lining of uterus
C. Thick cervical mucus
D. All of the above
Answer: D
362. Long-standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions?
A. Pyometra
B. Uterine polyposis
C. Pseudopregnancy
D. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia
Answer: A
363. Meiosis occurs in
A. Adult ovary
B. Prepubertal testis
C. At birth in ovary
D. All
Answer: A
364. Prolactin secreted maximum at
A. 24 hrs after delivery
B. REM
C. 2 hrs running
D. 24 hour after Ovulation
Answer: A
365. A sexually active female with the profuse frothy foul-smelling discharge with intense itching. Strawberry cervix revealed on examination. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Candidiasis
D. None
Answer: A
366. 18-year-old girl presents with 6 months of amenorrhea with h/o low-grade fever, weight loss, pain abdomen, generalized weaknesses. On PR examination, palpable left-sided pelvic mass felt… Diagnosis is
A. Fibroid with degeneration
B. TB pelvis with Tubo ovarian mass
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Granulosa cell tumour
Answer: B
367. A pregnant female had Meconium stained liquor and underwent emergency LSCS. A few days later her condition deteriorated. USG showed edematous bowels. What’s the cause?
A. Meconium peritonitis
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
D. Intra-abdominal abscess
Answer: B
368. Best treatment option for septate uterus
A. Tompkins Metroplasty
B. Jones metroplasty
C. Strassmann metroplasty
D. Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum
Answer: D
369. Distension media used for hysteroscopy with bipolar cautery?
A. Glycine
B. NS
C. Co2
D. Dextran 70
Answer: B
370. Most common site for Fertilization is
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Intramural
D. Fimbriae
Answer: A
371. A 22-year-old primigravida visits ANC OPD with 20 weeks POG. On examination uterine height reveals a 16-week size.USG shows reduced liquor. What will be the diagnosis?
A. Renal agenesis
B. Fetal anemia
C. Barter’s syndrome
D. Liddle syndrome
Answer: A
372. Which of the following is not an estrogen-dependent pubertal change?
A. Hair growth
B. Menstruation
C. Vaginal Cornification
D. Cervical mucus
Answer: B
373. A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attending menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal swelling seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most commonly seen?
A. Imperforate hymen
B. Transvaginal septum
C. Vaginal agenesis
D. MRKH
Answer: A
374. 13 yr old child visit gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attaining menarche with karyotype 46XX. On examination, clitoromegaly is seen. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient in the above condition?
A. 21 alpha-hydroxylase
B. 11 beta-hydroxylase
C. 17 alpha-hydroxylase
D. 3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Answer: A
375. In early pregnancy clinical signs of feeling the cer?vix and the body of bulky uterus separated be?cause of softened isthmus at 6 – 8 weeks of gestation :
A. Goodell’s sign
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Piskacek’s sign
D. Hegar’s sign
Answer: D
376. Misoprostol used in the induction of labour is an analogue of which of the following type of prostaglandin?
A. PG E1
B. PG E2
C. PG I2
D. PG F2alpha
Answer: A
377. Treatment of choice in patient with infertility & endometriosis ?
A. IUI
B. Surgery
C. Danozol
D. Ovulation induction
Answer: B
378. Surgery of choice in 42 year old P3L3 with diffuse endometriosis is ?
A. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis
B. Hysterectomy
C. Hysterectomy with BSO with resection of endometrial implants
D. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis & resection of implants
Answer: C
379. The most common Mullerian anomaly is?
A. Mullerian agenesis (RMKH)
B. Unicornuate uterus
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Septate uterus
Answer: D
380. SEAM used in DUB is ?
A. Clomiphene
B. Raloxifene
C. Ormiloxifene
D. Mifepristone
Answer: C
381. The most common symptom of endometrial hyperplasia is:
A. Vaginal discharge.
B. Vaginal bleeding.
C. Amenorrhea.
D. Pelvic pain.
E. Abdominal distention.
Answer: B.Vaginal bleeding.
382. 56 years old woman has come to you with the complaints of hot flushes irritability, joint pains with lack of sleep. Most appropriate treatment would be:
A. Hysterectomy.
B. Vitamins.
C. Combined oestrogen, progesterone preparations.
D. Phytooestrogens.
E. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS).
Answer: C.Combined oestrogen, progesterone preparations.
383. Which of the following is used as an emergency contraceptive:
A. Combined oral contraceptive pills.
B. Progesterone only.
C. Depoprovera.
D. Levonorgestril (EM-Kit).
E. Ergometrine.
Answer: D.Levonorgestril (EM-Kit).
good multiple choice questions in gynaecology