300+ TOP A Level Physics MCQs and Answers Quiz Exam

A Level Physics Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter: Accelerated Motion

1. Gradient of line of velocity-time graph is tells us the
A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. distance
D. time

2 A stone is thrown upwards with initial velocity of \$\$\$20ms^{-1}\$\$\$, the height that stone will reach would be
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 40 m
D. 50 m

3. Projectile will attain its maximum range, if it is fired at an angle of
A. 30°
B. 47°
C. 90°
D. 45°

4. Horizontal component of a bouncing ball is
A. affected by gravity
B. unaffected by gravity
C. affected by weight
D. affected by contact force

5. Only force acting on a bouncing ball is
A. gravity
B. weight of ball
C. friction
D. a and b both

Answer: D a and b both

6. Accelerometer detects the
A. small acceleration
B. large acceleration
C. small deceleration
D. large acceleration and deceleration

Answer: D large acceleration and deceleration

7. If the gradient of a graph is negative, then the acceleration is
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. 1

8. If a student drops a stone from a cliff of height 30 m and the time it takes to reach the ground is 2.6 s, then the acceleration due to gravity is
A. \$\$\$9ms^{-2}\$\$\$
B. \$\$\$10ms^{-2}\$\$\$
C. \$\$\$4ms^{-2}\$\$\$
D. \$\$\$8.8ms^{-2}\$\$\$

9. When ball having a projectile motion is rising up, it
A. decelerates
B. accelerates
C. rises up with constant acceleration
D. acceleration becomes zero

10. Equation of motion can be used for
A. straight line motion only
B. curved motion only
C. motion along the circular path
D. all types of motion

Answer: A straight line motion only

11. Acceleration of free fall depends on the
A. surface
B. weight of object
C. distance from center of Earth
D. size of object

12. If initial velocity of an object is zero, then distance covered by it in time t and acceleration of \$\$\$9.8ms^{-2}\$\$\$ would be
A. \$\$\$2.9\:t^{2}\$\$\$
B. \$\$\$3\:t^{2}\$\$\$
C. \$\$\$4\:t^{2}\$\$\$
D. \$\$\$4.9\:t^{2}\$\$\$

13. As the ball falls towards the ground, its velocity
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. becomes zero

A. velocity
B. displacement
C. distance
D. acceleration

15. An object whose velocity is changing is said to be in a state of
A. acceleration
B. rest
C. equilibrium
D. Brownian motion

16. Acceleration of train when it is moving steadily from \$\$\$4.0\:ms^{-1}\$\$\$ to \$\$\$20\:ms^{-1}\$\$\$ in 100s is
A. \$\$\$1\:ms^{-2}\$\$\$
B. \$\$\$2\:ms^{-2}\$\$\$
C. \$\$\$0.16\:ms^{-2}\$\$\$
D. \$\$\$3\:ms^{-2}\$\$\$

17. If we get a straight line with positive slope then its acceleration is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. zero
D. constant

18. If a spinster staring from rest has acceleration of {{5 m s-2}} during 1st 2.0s of race then her velocity after 2 s is
A. 20 m s-1
B. 10 m s-1
C. 15 m s-1
D. 5 m s-1

19. Horizontal distance travelled by a ball if it’s thrown with initial velocity of {{20 m s-1}} at an angle of 30° is
A. 24 m
B. 56 m
C. 35.3 m
D. 36.3 m

20. If a car starting from rest reaches a velocity of {{18 m s-1}} after 6.0 s then its acceleration is
A. 1 m s-2
B. 2 m s-2
C. 3 m s-2
D. 4 m s-2

21. A train travelling at \$\$\$20m s^{-1}\$\$\$ accelerates at \$\$\$ 0.5ms^{-2}\$\$\$ for 30 s, the distance travelled by train is
A. 825 m
B. 700 m
C. 650 m
D. 600 m

22. Area under velocity-time graph tells us the
A. time
B. acceleration
C. displacement
D. velocity

Chapter: Alternating Current

23. If a secondary coil has 40 turns, and, a primary coil with 20 turns is charged with 50 V of potential difference, then the potential difference in the secondary coil would be
A. 50 V in secondary coil
B. 25 V in secondary coil
C. 60 V in secondary coil
D. 100 V in secondary coil

Answer: D 100 V in secondary coil

24. Generators at a power station produce electric power at voltage
A. 45 kW
B. 50 kW
C. 60 kW
D. 25 kW

25. Equation which measures alternating voltage is
A. Vsin ω
B. sin t
C. Vo sinωt
D. V=IR

26. In transformer, alternating current is induced in
A. primary coil
B. secondary coil
C. iron core
D. resistor

A. less power loss
B. more power loss
C. high current
D. high resistance

28. Graph of alternating current is a
A. cos wave
B. tan wave
C. curve
D. sine wave

29. A component that allows only unidirectional current to pass through it is
A. resistor
B. inductor
C. transformer
D. diode

30. Average power dissipated in resistor if sinusoidal p.d of peak value 25V is connected across a 20 Ω resistor is
A. 15.6 W
B. 15 W
C. 16 W
D. 17 W

31. Amount of d.c voltage as compare to Vo is
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

32. A well designed transformer loses power under
A. 10%
B. 1.20%
C. 0.1%
D. 20%

33. Ratio of voltages is equal to ratio of
A. iron sheets in core
B. coil
C. number of turns in coil
D. all of above

Answer: C number of turns in coil

34. Process in which A.C is converted into D.C is called
A. induction
B. rectification
C. inversion
D. dispersion

35. Steady d.c voltage is also known as
A. square velocity
B. root mean square velocity
C. root velocity
D. velocity

Answer: B root mean square velocity

36. Ratio of voltages is inverse ratio of the
A. transformer
B. resistor
C. iron core
D. current

37. If output voltage is greater than input voltage, then transformer is
A. step up
B. step down
C. faulty
D. fatal

38. Highest point on AC graph is known as
A. peak value
B. amplitude
C. frequency
D. wave front

Chapter: AS Level Physics

39. There are three equations of uniformly accelerated motion, the odd one out is
A. final_velocity = initial_velocity + (acceleration × time
B. distance_moved = (initial_velocity × time) + (0.5 × acceleration × time²
C. final_velocity² = initial_velocity² + (2 × acceleration × distance_moved
D. final_velocity = initial_velocity + (2 × acceleration × distance_moved

Answer: D final_velocity = initial_velocity + (2 × acceleration × distance_moved

40. Kinetic friction is always
A. lesser than static friction
B. greater than static friction
C. equal to static friction
D. equal to contact force

Answer: A lesser than static friction

41. Gravitational potential is always
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. infinity

42. In order to keep a body moving in a circle, there exists a force on it that is directed toward the center of the circle. This force is known as
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Gravitational Force
D. magnetic force

43. A rectangle-shaped open-to-sky tank of water has a length of 2 m and a width of 1 m. If the atmospheric pressure is assumed to be 100 kPa and thickness of the tank walls is assumed to be negligible, the force exerted by the atmosphere on the surface of water is
A. 20 kN
B. 50 kN
C. 100 kN
D. 200 kN

44. If we have a positive and a negative charge, then force between them is
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. infinite

45. Electrical force exerted by two point charges on each other is inversely proportional to
A. sum of their charges
B. product of their charges
C. distance between them
D. square of distance between them

Answer: D square of distance between them

46. Unit for pressure used in weather maps is millibar. 1 millibar is equal to
A. 1000 bar
B. 100 kPa
C. 100 Pa
D. 1 atm

47. Speed of stationary waves is {{}}
A. 1 m s-1
B. 2 m s-1
C. 3 m s-1
D. zero

48. If charge is placed at infinity, it’s potential is
A. zero
B. infinite
C. 1
D. -1

49. Most appropriate instrument for measurement of internal and external diameter of a tube is
A. vernier callipers
B. micrometer screw gauge
C. meter rule
D. measuring tape

50. When distance from center is doubled then electric field strength will
A. decrease by the factor of four
B. increase by factor of four
C. will be same
D. decrease by factor of two

Answer: A decrease by the factor of four

51. Liquid A and liquid B exert same amount of pressure on each other, but the density of A is twice the density of B. The height of liquid B is 10 cm, then the height of liquid A would be
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 40 cm

52. Incorrect statement for co-efficient of friction could be that
A. The coefficient of friction is denoted by the Greek letter µ.
B. The coefficient of friction is directly proportional to the force of friction
C. The coefficient of friction is constant even in the conditions of fast slipping and high contact pressure
D. The coefficient of friction is inversely proportional to the force pressing the surfaces together

Answer: C The coefficient of friction is constant even in the conditions of fast slipping and high contact pressure

53. If we move a positive charge to a positive plate, then potential energy of charge is
A. decreased
B. increased
C. remains constant
D. dissipated

54. An instrument commonly used for the measurement of atmospheric pressure is known as
A. Manometer
B. Barometer
C. Calorimeter
D. Potentiometer

55. Phase difference between a node and an antinode is
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 180°
D. 360°

56. Our weight, as measured by the spring weighing machine is equivalent of
A. The total gravitational force that Earth exerts on us
B. The total centripetal force required to keep us moving on Earth’s axis
C. The total gravitational force that Earth exerts on us + The total centripetal force required to keep us moving on Earth’s axis
D. The total gravitational force that Earth exerts on us – The total centripetal force required to keep us moving on Earth’s axis

Answer: D The total gravitational force that Earth exerts on us – The total centripetal force required to keep us moving on Earth’s axis

57. Point where spring oscillates with maximum amplitude is called
A. node
B. antinode
C. fixed end
D. movable end

58. According to Newton’s law of universal gravitation, any two particles of finite mass attract one another with a force which is
A. Inversely proportional to the product of their masses and directly proportional to the square of their distance apart
B. Inversely proportional to the product of their masses and directly proportional to their distance apart
C. Directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to their distance apart
D. Directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of their distance apart

Answer: D Directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of their distance apart

59. Correct example of vector quantities could be
A. Distance and Speed
B. Displacement and Velocity
C. Distance and Displacement
D. Speed and Velocity

60. In a stationary wave, nodes are at
A. fixed points
B. movable points
C. there are no nodes
D. random points

61. In the formation of stationary waves, at T⁄2 the waves are
A. out of phase
B. in phase
C. diminished
D. twice the amplitude

62. A vector quantity is one which has
A. direction as well as magnitude
B. magnitude only
C. direction only
D. no direction, no magnitude

Answer: A direction as well as magnitude

63. Centripetal force is dependent on three factors, the odd one out of these factors is
A. Mass of the rotating object
B. Speed of the rotating object
C. Volume of the rotating object

Answer: C Volume of the rotating object

64. Graph of potential energy against distance is
A. curve
B. parabolic
C. hyperbolic
D. straight line

65. On all instruments like measuring cylinder, pipette and burette, readings are always taken at the bottom of the meniscus of liquid. This is not true for liquids like
A. Oil
B. Ink
C. Mercury
D. Seawater

66. In a weather map, lines joining all those regions with same atmospheric pressure are called
A. Bars
B. Millibars
C. Isobars
D. Atmospheric bars

67. For a given system, the minimum frequency of a standing wave is in a
A. fundamental mode
B. lowest mode
C. highest mode
D. peak mode

68. In an electric field, energy per unit positive charge is
A. voltage
B. current
C. frequency
D. resistance

69. In Kundt’s dust tube, dust accumulates at
A. nodes
B. antinodes
C. at the end
D. at troughs only

70. A node having twice the frequency of the fundamental is called
A. half harmonic
B. harmonic
C. double harmonic
D. triple harmonic

71. If frequency of certain wave is f, then it’s velocity is {{}}
A. v = fλ
B. v = T⁄λ
C. T2
D. 1⁄T2

72. Origin of gravitational field is
A. charges
B. masses
C. Earth’s core
D. matter

73. At separation between a node and antinode, wavelength becomes
A. λ
B. λ⁄2
C. λ⁄4
D. 2λ

Chapter: Capacitance

74. If the plates of capacitor are oppositely charged then the total charge is equal to
A. negative
B. positive
C. zero
D. infinite

75. Area under current-time graph represents
A. magnitude of charge
B. dielectric
C. amount of positive charge
D. amount of negative charge

76. If charge stored on plates of capacitor is large, then capacitance will be
A. small
B. large
C. zero
D. infinite

77. insulator which is placed between 2 plates of capacitor is
A. electric
B. dielectric
C. inductor
D. resistor

78. Combined capacitance is equal to the
A. sum of all capacitance of capacitors
B. product of all the capacitance
C. difference between the capacitors
D. average capacitance of capacitors

Answer: A sum of all capacitance of capacitors

79. capacitance and charge on plates are
A. inversely related
B. directly related
C. not related at all
D. always equal

80. If the capacitors are connected in parallel, then the potential difference across each capacitor is
A. same
B. different
C. zero
D. infinite

81. Total capacitance of 300 mF capacitor and a 600 mF in series is
A. 300 mF
B. 500 mF
C. 200 mF
D. 1000 mF

82. Work done in charging a capacitor is given by
A. (1⁄2)QV
B. 2QV
C. QV
D. 2V

83. Device used to store energy in electrical circuits is
A. resistor
B. inductor
C. capacitor
D. diode

84. Energy stored in a 2000 mF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 10 V is
A. 0.12 J
B. 1.3 J
C. 0.10 J
D. 3 J

85. Capacitor is fully charged if potential difference is equal to
A. e.m.f
B. current
C. resistance
D. power

Chapter: Charged Particles

86. An electron is travelling at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 1.2 mT with a speed of {{8 × 10 6 m s -1}} , the radius of circular path followed by electron is
A. 3.8 cm
B. 3.7 cm
C. 3.6 cm
D. 3.5 cm

87. Hall voltage is directly proportional to
A. current
B. electric field
C. magnetic flux density
D. all of above

88. Force due to magnetic field and velocity is
A. at right angles to each other
B. at acute angles with each other
C. at obtuse angle with each other
D. antiparallel to each other

Answer: A at right angles to each other

89. Force on a moving charge in a uniform magnetic field depends upon
A. magnetic flux density
B. the charge on the particle
C. the speed of particle
D. all of above

90. Electric field strength related to hall voltage is given by
A. VHd
B. VH⁄d
C. VHE
D. Ed

91. Hall probe is made up of
A. metals
B. non metals
C. semiconductor

92. For an electron, magnitude of force on it is
A. BeV
B. eV
C. Be
D. BV

93. When current is parallel to magnetic fields, force on conductor is
A. zero
B. infinite
C. 2 times
D. same

94. Direction of conventional current is
A. direction of neutron flow
B. direction of electron flow
C. direction of flow of positive charge
D. same as that of electric current

Answer: C direction of flow of positive charge

95. According to the equation ‘r =(mv)⁄(Be)’, the faster moving particles
A. move in smaller circle
B. move straight
C. move in bigger circle
D. move randomly

Answer: C move in bigger circle

96. In Hall effect, voltage across probe is known as
A. hall voltage
B. e.m.f
C. potential difference
D. hall potential

Chapter: Circular Motion in Physics

97. Angle through which an object has moved is called it’s
A. linear displacement
B. linear distance
C. angular displacement
D. angular distance

98. Angular velocity of second hand of clock is 0.105 rad s-1 and length of hand is 1.8 cm, then speed of tip of hand is {{}}
A. 0.189 cm s-1
B. 1 cm s-1
C. 0.189 m s-1
D. 2 m s-1

99. Object moving along a circular path is
A. in equilibrium
B. not in equilibrium
C. not moving with constant speed
D. in random motion

100. At the fairground, the force that balances out our weight is
A. centripetal force
B. centrifugal force
C. friction
D. gravitational force

101. If an object moves a circular distance ‘s’ of radius ‘r’, then it’s angular displacement is {{}}
A. s⁄r
B. r⁄s
C. rs
D. r2s

102. Speed of an object travelling around a circle depends upon
A. angular velocity
C. circumference
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

103. Number of degree a complete circle represents is
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360°

104. When a body is moving along a circular path, it’s velocity is directed towards
A. center
B. normal
C. tangent
D. parallel to circle

105. Speed is unchanged because work done on an object is
A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. infinite

106. 180° is equal to{{}}

107. For the minute hand of the clock, the angular velocity is equal to {{}}

108. 105° in radians is equal to

109. 1 rad is equal to
A. 57.3°
B. 54°
C. 45°
D. 90°

110. According to Newton’s 2nd law the object’s acceleration and centripetal force are
A. at right angles to each other
B. anti parallel to each other
C. make acute angle with each other
D. in same direction

111. A stone whirling in a horizontal circle on the end of string depicts
A. conical pendulum
B. cone
C. pendulum
D. eclipse

112. Centripetal force is directed towards the
A. tangent to circle
B. center
C. normal to circle
D. parallel to circle

113. Velocity required by an object to orbit around Earth is{{}}
A. 9 km s-1
B. 7 km s-1
C. 8 km s-1
D. 10 km s-1

Chapter: Communication Systems

114. As compared to sound waves the frequency of radio waves is
A. lower
B. higher
C. equal
D. may be higher or lower

115. Decrease in strength of signal is known as
A. tuning
B. modulation
C. attenuation
D. amplification

116. If frequency of modulated wave is less than frequency of carrier wave, then input signal is
A. negative
B. positive
C. zero
D. infinite

117. At the end of communication system, the signal is converted from radio to
A. sound
B. mechanical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. potential energy

118. Energy is lost in wires due to
A. heating
B. resistance
C. conduction
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

119. Voltage signal generated by a microphone is
A. digital in nature
B. analogue in nature
C. consists of bits and bytes
D. hybrid in nature

120. Phenomena in which signal transmitted in one circuit creates undesired effect in other circuit is known as
A. crosstalk
B. signal attenuation
C. sampling

121. Digital number 9 can be represented in binary number as
A. 110
B. 1001
C. 1010
D. 1011

122. Geostationary satellite has period
A. twice of Earth
B. same as Earth
C. half of Earth
D. quarter of Earth

123. Bit on left hand side has
A. lowest value
B. zero value
C. highest value
D. infinite value

124. A digital quantity has
A. only 2 values
B. more than 2 values
C. no values
D. less than 2 values

125. Frequency of sky waves is
A. less then 3 MHz
B. more than 3 MHz
C. less than 2 MHz
D. exactly 2 MHz

Answer: B more than 3 MHz

126. Each digit in a binary number is known as a
A. bit
B. byte
C. number
D. digit

127. Value of sampled signal is used to produce a
A. binary number
B. decimal number
C. octal number
D. all of above

128. Data in compact disc is stored in form of
A. analogue signal
B. digital signal
C. noise
D. colors

129. With a 30 m long coaxial cable, the bandwidth can exceed
A. 100 MHz
B. 1000 MHz
C. 50 MHz
D. 300 MHz

130. Amplitude of modulated wave is in phase with
A. output
B. system
C. frequency
D. signal

131. Variation in amplitude or frequency of carrier wave is called
A. amplitude modulation
B. frequency modulation
C. modulation
D. bandwidth

132. In frequency modulation, amplitude of modulated wave is
A. positive
B. negative
C. constant
D. zero

133. High quality music only needs frequencies up to
A. 10 Hz
B. 15 Hz
C. 20 kHz
D. 15 kHz

134. Binary system has base
A. 10
B. 11
C. 1
D. 2

135. In FM, frequency of modulated wave varies with
A. amplitude
B. time
C. wavelength
D. energy

136. Unwanted signal that distorts a transmitted signal is called
A. analogue
B. noise
C. digital
D. tuning

137. First communication satellites used frequencies of

138. A wave of frequency 1 GHz has wavelength of
A. 0.4 m
B. 0.5 m
C. 0.2 m
D. 0.3 m

Chapter: Electric Current, Potential Difference and Resistance

139. Semiconductors have electron number density of order{{}}
A. 10 24 m-3
B. 10 20 m-3
C. 10 12 m-3
D. 10 23 m-3

140. A straight line symbol shows the
A. fuse
B. diode
D. switch

141. Rate of flow of electric charge is
A. electric current
B. conventional current only
C. electronic current only
D. potential difference

142. instrument which transfers energy to electric charges in a circuit is
A. battery
B. voltmeter
C. ammeter
D. galvanometer

143. Electric power is related to
A. current in component
B. potential difference
C. electrical resistance
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

144. If a current of 1 A passes through a point in 1 s then charge passes that point is
A. 2 C
B. 3 C
C. 1 C
D. 6 C

145. Energy transferred per unit charge is
A. e.m.f
B. current
C. potential difference
D. conventional current

146. Current in a circuit when a charge of 180 C passes a point in a circuit in 2 minutes is
A. 1:00 AM
B. 2:00 AM
C. 3:00 AM
D. 1.5 A

147. Electrons which are free to move around are also called
A. conduction electrons
B. valence shell electrons
C. inner electrons
D. electron sea

148. Number of conduction electrons per unit volume is
A. electron number
B. number density
C. proton number
D. neutron number

149. Current in a circuit if resistance of 15 Ω and potential difference of 3.0 V is applied across it’s ends is
A. 1 A
B. 2 A
C. 0.5 A
D. 0.20 A

150. Number density for copper is {{}}
A. 10-29 m-3
B. 10 30 m-3
C. 10 29 m-3
D. 10 20 m-3

151. Mean drift velocity of electron in a copper wire having cross-sectional area 5.0 × 10 -6 m2 carrying current of 1 A and having number density 8.5 × 10 28 m3 is {{}}
A. 0.015 mm s-1
B. 0.1 mm s-1
C. 0.5 mm s-1
D. 0.25 mm s-1

152. Magnitude of charge is known as
A. charge count
B. elementary charge
C. elementary count
D. charge number

153. 1 Ω is equal to
A. 1 V A-2
B. 1 V A-1
C. 1 V-1 A
D. 2 V A-1

154. To protect wiring from excessive passing of current is
A. voltmeter
B. fuse
C. galvanometer
D. resistance

155. Current in a 60 W light bulb when it is connected to a 230 V power supply is
A. 0.26 A
B. 1.5 A
C. 2.6 A
D. 3.9 A

156. Grid cables are 15 km long with a resistance of 0.20 Ω km-1, powers wasted as heat in these cables are
A. 50 kW
B. 60 kW
C. 20 kW
D. 30 kW

157. Actual velocity of electrons between collisions is
A. 1030 m s-1
B. 1020 m s-1
C. 102 m s-1
D. 105 m s-1

158. By increasing the current, the drift velocity
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. becomes zero

159. Current in a circuit depends on
A. resistance
B. potential difference
C. both A and B
D. e.m.f

Answer: C both A and B

160. If direction of current is from positive to negative, then it is called
A. electronic current
B. conventional current only
C. positronic current
D. protonic current

161. A voltmeter arranged across the power supply measures
A. potential difference
B. e.m.f
C. current
D. resistance

Chapter: Electric Field

162. Particles involved in the movement within material are
A. protons
B. electrons
C. neutrons
D. positrons

163. Phenomena in which a charged body attract uncharged body is called
A. electrostatic induction
B. electric current
C. charge movement
D. magnetic induction

164. An uncharged object has
A. more protons
B. more electrons
C. equal electrons and protons
D. no protons and electrons

Answer: C equal electrons and protons

165. Fields that act on objects with masses are
A. electric fields
B. magnetic fields
C. force fields
D. gravitational fields

166. Where an electric charge experiences a force, there is an
A. electric field
B. magnetic field
C. electric current
D. conventional current

167. A field that spreads outwards in all directions is
C. strong
D. weak

168. At all the points the uniform fields have
A. different strength
B. same strength
C. zero strength
D. infinite strength

169. Electric field strength on a dust particle having charge equal to 8 × 10 – 19 when plates are separated by distance of 2 cm and have a potential difference of 5 kV is {{}}
A. 2.0 × 10 -13 N
B. 3 N
C. 5 N
D. 20 N

Answer: A 2.0 × 10 -13 N

170. Electric field strength can be defined as
A. E =Q⁄F
B. E = W⁄F
C. E =F⁄Q
D. E =P⁄Q

171. When one material is rubbed against the other, then it becomes electrically
A. neutral
B. charged
C. positively charged
D. negatively charged

172. When an electron is moving horizontally between oppositely charged plates, it will move in the
A. straight line
B. fall directly downwards
C. move towards positive plates
D. curved path

Chapter: Electromagnetic Induction

173. E.M.F can be induced in a circuit by
A. changing magnetic flux density
B. changing area of circuit
C. changing the angle
D. all of above

174. A straight wire of length 0.20 m moves at a steady speed of {{}} 3.0 m s-1 at right angles to the magnetic field of flux density 0.10 T. The e.m.f induced across ends of wire is
A. 0.5 V
B. 0.06 V
C. 0.05 V
D. 0.04 V

175. By accelerating the magnet inside the coil, the current in it
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. reverses

176. Consequence of motor effect is
A. electromagnetic induction
B. current
C. voltage
D. e.m.f

177. Total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is called
A. magnetic flux density
B. magnetic flux
C. e.m.f
D. voltage

178. Magnitude of induced e.m.f is proportional to
A. rate of change of current
B. rate of change of voltage
C. rate of change of magnetic flux linkage
D. rate of change of resistance

179. In transformer, the core is made up of soft iron in order to pass the maximum
A. flux
B. current
C. magnetic flux
D. voltage

180. For a straight wire, induced current depends upon
A. the speed of movement of wire
B. the length of wire
C. the magnitude of magnetic flux density
D. all of above

181. In generators, the rate of change of flux linkage is maximum when the coil is moving through the
A. vertical position
B. horizontal position
C. diagonal position
D. at an angle of 45°

182. E.M.F for a coil depends upon
A. the cross sectional area
B. no. of turns of wire
C. the magnitude of magnetic flux density
D. all of above

183. Currents that flow in circles inside a disc are known as
A. eddy currents
B. circular currents
C. air currents
D. alternating curents

184. When field is parallel to plane of area, magnetic flux through coil is
A. zero
B. infinite
C. 2
D. 5

185. Moving a coil in and out of magnetic field induces
A. force
B. potential difference
C. e.m.f
D. voltage

186. Induced current in coil by a magnet turns it into an
A. straight wire
B. magnet
C. ammeter
D. electromagnet

Chapter: Electromagnetism and Magnetic Field

187. Strength of magnetic field is known as
A. flux
B. density
C. magnetic strength
D. magnetic flux density

188. Unit of luminous intensity is
A. m
B. kg
C. cd
D. mol

189. For a hydrogen atom the electrical force as compared to gravitational force is{{}}
A. 1039 times
B. 10 40 times
C. 10 41 times
D. 10 42 times

190. Weakest force in nature is
A. electric force
B. gravitational force
C. weak force
D. magnetic force

191. Magnetic field can be produced by using
A. permanent magnet
B. electric current
C. temporary magnet
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

192. Whenever there is force on magnetic pole, there exists
A. magnetic field
B. electric field
C. current
D. voltage

193. If the magnetic flux density and current are at right angles, then component of force acting on the conductor is
A. BIL cosθ
B. BIL sinθ
C. BIL tanθ
D. BL sinθ

194. Unraveling an electromagnetic gives
A. stronger field
B. weaker field
C. moderate field
D. wider field

195. Force per meter on two wires carrying a current of 1 A placed 1 m apart is equal to {{}}
A. 6.7 × 10 -11 N
B. 9.0 × 10 9 N
C. 2.0 × 10 -7 N
D. 3.0 × 10 -4 N

Answer: C 2.0 × 10 -7 N

196. F = BIL can only be used if the magnetic field and electric current are
A. at right angles to each other
B. in same direction
C. anti-parallel to each other
D. anti-perpendicular to each other

Answer: A at right angles to each other

197. Derived unit Tesla is related to
A. A
B. kg
C. s
D. all of above

198. If we reverse the direction of electric current, then the direction of magnetic field will be
A. reversed
B. remains same
C. becomes tangent
D. becomes normal

199. 1 Tesla is equal to {{}}
A. 50 N A-1 m-1
B. 100 N A-1 m-1
C. 1 N A-1 m-1
D. 1000 N A-1 m-1

Answer: C 1 N A-1 m-1

200. Field which does not have magnetic poles is
A. straight lined
B. normal to the wire
C. tangent to the wire
D. circular

201. A flat coil and solenoid has
A. different fields
B. same physical properties
C. same fields
D. same chemical properties

202. Flux density is defined by {{}}
A. FIL
B. F⁄(IL
C. IL
D. I⁄(FL

203. Strength of magnetic field of solenoid can be increased by adding core made of
A. copper
B. ferrous
C. silver
D. aluminum

204. In Fleming’s left hand rule, thumb shows direction of
A. current
B. field
C. motion
D. charge

205. If the Earth’s magnetic field lines pass through the Hall probe in opposite direction, then the change in reading of voltmeter is
A. thrice the Earth’s magnetic flux density
B. four times the Earth’s magnetic flux density
C. five times the Earth’s magnetic flux density
D. twice the Earth’s magnetic flux density

Answer: D twice the Earth’s magnetic flux density

Chapter: Electronics
206. LED starts to conduct when voltage is about
A. 1 V
B. 4 V
C. 3 V
D. 2 V

207. For non-inverting amplifier the input and output is
A. out of phase
B. in phase
C. have phase difference of 180°
D. have phase difference of 90°

208. A sensing device is also called
A. transistor
B. thermistor
C. sensor
D. transducer

209. Op-amp can provide maximum output current of
A. 25 mA
B. 30 mA
C. 35 mA
D. 40 mA

210. Output resistance of an actual op-amp is
A. 45Ω
B. 46Ω
C. 70Ω
D. 75Ω

211. Impedance of ideal op-amp is
A. zero
B. 1
C. infinite
D. 2

212. Change in length and cross-sectional area of metal wire changes
A. current
B. voltage
C. resistance
D. magnetic effect

213. Amplifier produces output with more
A. power only
B. voltage only
C. current only
D. power and voltage

214. Number of power supplies required to get output of op-amp is
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. three

215. A device used to avoid the relay destroying the op-amp is
A. diode
B. LED
C. reverse bias diode
D. forward biased diode

216. As long as op-amp is not saturated, the potential difference between inverting and non-inverting inputs is
A. zero
B. infinite
C. 1
D. 2

217. A light dependent resistor is made up of
A. low resistance semiconductor
B. low resistance metal
C. high resistance semiconductor
D. high resistance metal

218. In inverting amplifier, the phase difference between input and output voltages must be
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°

219. An infinite slew rate refers to
A. no time delay
B. small time delay
C. large time delay
D. variable time delay

220. To limit current in LED, resistor should be connected in
A. parallel
B. series
D. ionized tube

221. A component whose property changes when there is a change in any physical quantity of a device is
A. processor
B. sensor
C. output device
D. portable device

222. Benefits of negative feedback include
A. less distortion
B. increased bandwidth
C. low output resistance
D. all of above

223. When temperature rises, resistance of negative temperature coefficient thermistor
A. increases
B. decreases
C. zero
D. infinity

224. If current of 20 mA is passing through op-amp and voltage drop across series resistor is 10 V then value of resistance is
A. 500Ω
B. 400Ω
C. 300Ω
D. 200Ω

225. Graph of resistance of thermistor to temperature is
A. exponential decrease
B. linear decrease
C. exponential increase
D. linear increase

Chapter: Electronics
226. Output current from an LED is
A. 20 mA
B. 30 mA
C. 40 mA
D. 50 mA

227. In an inverting amplifier the non-inverting input (+) is connected to
A. 1 V line
B. 0 V line
C. 2 V line
D. 3 V line

228. Actual op-amp may have an open loop gain of{{}}
A. 102
B. 105
C. 103
D. 104

229. Coil of relay is connected to the
A. input of op-amp
B. output of op-amp
C. midpoint of op-amp
D. anywhere in between input and ouput of op-amp

Chapter: Forces, Vectors and Moments
230. Pair of forces that cause steering wheel of a car to rotate is called
A. couple
B. friction
C. normal force
D. weight

231. If the principle of moments for any object holds, then object is in state of
A. inertia
B. equilibrium
C. suspension
D. motion

232. Combined effect of several forces is known as
A. net force
B. resultant force
C. normal force
D. weight

233. To form a couple, the force should be
A. equal in magnitude
B. parallel and opposite
C. separated by distance
D. all of above

234. Moment of force depends upon
A. magnitude of force
B. perpendicular distance of force from pivot
C. both A and B
D. axis of rotation

Answer: C both A and B

235. Two perpendicular components are
A. independent of each other
B. dependent on each other
C. anti parallel to each other
D. parallel to each other

Answer: A independent of each other

236. Object is in equilibrium if resultant force acting on it is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. zero
D. becomes constant

237. Center of gravity of an irregular body lies on the
A. edge
B. center of body
C. point of intersection of lines
D. along the axis of rotation

Answer: C point of intersection of lines

238. Number of forces a falling tennis ball experiences is
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

239. Point where all weight of object acts is called
A. central point
B. center of gravity
C. edge
D. center of mass

240. If weight of a falling tennis ball is 1.0 N and drag force acting on it is 0.2 N then resultant force is
A. 0.8 N
B. 0.5 N
C. 1 N
D. 2 N

241. If the resultant vector forms an angle of 45°, then the two components are
A. parallel to each other
B. perpendicular to each other
C. anti parallel to each other
D. anti perpendicular to each other

Answer: B perpendicular to each other

Chapter: Gravitational Field
242. Force acting on two point masses is directly proportional to
A. sum of masses
B. difference of masses
C. distance between masses
D. product of masses

243. Mass of Earth when it’s radius is 6400 km and gravitational field strength is 9.81 N kg -1 is {{}}
A. 6.0 × 1024 kg
B. 5 × 1023 kg
C. 40 × 109 kg
D. 9 × 10 24 kg

Answer: A 6.0 × 1024 kg

244. On scale of building, gravitational field is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. uniform
D. varying

245. Decrease in field strength on top of Mount Everest is
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 1%
D. 0.3%

246. Work done on an object to bring it to certain point in space is called
A. gravitational potential energy
B. potential energy
C. kinetic energy
D. mechanical energy

247. N kg-1is equivalent to{{}}
A. m s-2
B. m s-1
C. m s
D. m s-3

248. Mass of satellite orbiting Earth is
A. considered
B. irrelevant
C. should be infinite
D. should be zero

249. Spacing between field lines indicates
A. direction of field lines
B. strength of field lines
C. magnitude of field lines
D. work done by field lines

Answer: B strength of field lines

250. Square of orbital period is proportional to
D. square of diameter

251. Number of satellites in geostationary orbits are
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

252. Geostationary satellites have lifetime of nearly
A. 20 years
B. 10 years
C. 50 years
D. 60 years

253. Time taken to complete a revolution around a planet is called
A. orbital period
B. time period
C. frequency
D. wavelength

254. As distance increases, value of gravitational field strength
A. also increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease

255. All objects are attracted towards
A. center of Earth
B. sun
C. mars
D. moon

256. Satellite around Earth follows a circular path because
A. gravitational force is parallel to velocity
B. gravitational force is anti parallel to velocity
C. gravitational force is perpendicular to velocity
D. gravitational force is anti perpendicular to

Answer: C gravitational force is perpendicular to velocity

257. Each 1 kg mass experiences force of
A. 7 N
B. 9.81 N
C. 20 N
D. 100 N

258. Gravitational potential is always
A. infinite
B. zero
C. positive
D. negative

259. The closer satellite is to Earth, its speed should be
A. more fast
B. more slow
C. zero
D. any constant value

Chapter: Ideal Gas
260. Normal force exerted per unit area by gas on walls of container is
A. temperature
B. energy
C. pressure
D. friction

261. Surface area of a typical person is about
A. 1 m2
B. 2 m2
C. 3 m2
D. 4 m2

262. If we double the temperature of an ideal gas, then it’s average kinetic energy will be
A. halved
B. triple the original
C. fourth times of original
D. doubled

263. Escape velocity for a particle is about{{}}
A. 5 km s-1
B. 8 km s-1
C. 11 km s-1
D. 14 km s-1

264. Force exerted on a person by atmosphere is
A. 200 000 N
B. 300 000 N
C. 400 000 N
D. 500 000 N

265. 10 mole of carbon contains
A. 6.02 × 10 24 atoms
B. 6.03 × 10 23 atoms
C. 6.02 × 10 23 atoms
D. 6.04 × 10 24 atoms

Answer: A 6.02 × 10 24 atoms

266. Space occupied by gas is
A. area
B. volume
C. space
D. mass

267. At absolute zero, volume of gas is equal to
A. 0 m3
B. 1 m3
C. 2 m3
D. 3 m3

268. Number of moles in 1.6 kg of oxygen is
A. 30 mol
B. 50 mol
C. 40 mol
D. 60 mol

269. Quantity R/NA defines
A. Plank’s constant
B. Boltzmann constant
C. gravitational constant

270. Molar gas constant has value {{}}
A. 7 J mol -1 K-1
B. 8 J mol -1 K-1
C. 8.31 J mol -1 K-1
D. 5 J mol -1 K-1

Answer: C 8.31 J mol -1 K-1

271. If average kinetic energy of molecules is higher, then temperature of gas is
A. high
B. low
C. zero
D. infinite

272. The ideal gas equation is
A. PV = constant
B. PT = constant
C. V⁄T
D. PV = nRT

273. Graph of p against 1⁄V is
A. curve
B. straight line
C. parabola
D. hyperbola

274. Gases deviate from gas laws at
A. high temperature only
B. low pressure only
C. high pressure and low temperature
D. low temperature only

Answer: C high pressure and low temperature

275. Law which relates pressure and volume of gas is
A. Charles’s law
C. Boyle’s law
D. ideal gas law

276. As compared to the volume occupied by gas, the volume of particles is
A. more
B. infinite
C. negligible
D. less than the volume of gas

277. Pressure of gas depends on the
A. density of gas
B. mean square speed of gas molecules
C. both A and B
D. temperature

Answer: C both A and B

278. At standard pressure and temperature the average speed of molecules is
A. 400 m s -1
B. 500 m s -1
C. 600 m s -1
D. 700 m s -1

Answer: A 400 m s -1

Chapter: Kinematics Motion

279. Speed of sound in water is 1500 m s -1, depth of water when reflected sound waves are detected after 0.40 s is {{}}
A. 700 m
B. 600 km
C. 600 m
D. 750 km

280. If a snail crawls 12 cm in 60 s then it’s average speed in mm s -1 is {{}}
A. 2 mm s -1
B. 5 mm s -1
C. 10 mm s -1
D. 20 mm s -1

Answer: A 2 mm s -1

281. Speed of a body in particular direction can be called
A. acceleration
B. displacement
C. velocity
D. distance

282. If distance is increasing uniformly with time, then velocity is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. zero

283. If the slope of a graph is zero and so the displacement, then velocity is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. zero

284. Speed of snail as compared to speed of a car will be in units {{}}
A. cm s-1
B. m s-1
C. km s-1
D. km h-1

285. {{}} If a river flows from west to east with constant velocity of 1.0 m s -1 and a boat leaves south bank heading towards north with velocity of 2.40 m s -1 , then resultant velocity of boat is
A. 2.6 m s-1
B. 2.7 m s-1
C. 2.8 m s-1
D. 2.9 m s-1

286. Two sides of a rectangular table are 0.8 m and 1.2 m, the displacement of spider when it runs a distance of 2.0 m is
A. 1.5 m
B. 1.4 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 1.7 m

287. Distance travelled by a body in time ‘t’ is
A. instantaneous speed
B. average velocity
C. average acceleration
D. instantaneous acceleration

288. Displacement is a
A. scalar quantity
B. vector quantity
C. base quantity
D. derived quantity

289. A car is travelling at 15 m s-1, the distance it will travel in 1 hour is {{}}
A. 54 km
B. 55 km
C. 56 km
D. 57 km

290. A car travelled south-west for 200 miles depicts
A. distance
B. speed
C. velocity
D. displacement

Chapter: Kirchhoff’s Laws

291. Sum of e.m.f around any loop equals
A. sum of current
B. sum of potential difference
C. sum of resistances
D. sum of charges passing through it per second

Answer: B sum of potential difference

292. Current entering and leaving a point in a circuit should be
A. equal
B. decreasing
C. increasing
D. variable

293. Current through each resistor when they are connected in series is
A. different
B. same
C. can be both A and B
D. decreasing

294. If a billion electrons enter a point in 1 s, then number of electrons leaving that point in 1 s are
A. 2 billion
B. 3 billion
C. 1 billion
D. 10 billion

295. Three resistances 20 Ω, 30 Ω and 60 Ω are connected in parallel, their combined resistance is given by
A. 110 Ω
B. 50 Ω
C. 20 Ω
D. 10 Ω

296. Kirchhoff’s 2nd law deals with
A. current in circuit
B. voltage in circuit
C. e.m.f in circuit
D. both B and C

Answer: D both B and C

297. Combined resistance of 5 Ω and 10 Ω is equal to
A. 10 Ω
B. 16 Ω
C. 15 Ω
D. 20 Ω

298. Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is
A. 5 Ω
B. 0.2 Ω
C. 15 Ω
D. 20 Ω

299. Kirchhoff’s 2nd law is consequence of law of conservation of
A. energy
B. charge
C. momentum
D. power

300. Ammeter should always have a
A. high resistance
B. low resistance
C. low voltage
D. high voltage

301. 1 V is equal to {{}}
A. 1 J C-1
B. 2 J C-1
C. 1 J-1 C
D. 2 J-1 C

302. Ideal resistance of ammeter is
A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
C. 0 Ω
D. infinite

Chapter: Matter and Materials

303. Density of water in kg m-3 is {{}}
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 10 000
D. 4000

304. Normal force acting per unit cross sectional area is called
A. weight
B. pressure
C. volume
D. friction

305. Ratio of tensile to strain is
A. Young’s modulus
B. stress
C. stiffness
D. tensile force

306. Gradient of force-extension graph is
A. variable
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. force constant

307. Energy in deformed solid is called
A. stress energy
B. potential energy
C. kinetic energy
D. strain energy

308. Units of stress are
A. Newton
B. Joules
C. Pascal
D. Watt

309. Concentration of matter in a material is
A. volume
B. mass
C. density
D. weight

310. Units of strain are
A. Newton
B. Joules
C. Watt
D. no units

311. Stress is force applied on
A. volume
B. cross sectional area
C. unit length
D. across diagonal

312. The larger the spring constant, the spring would be more
A. extensible
B. stiffer
C. compressive
D. brittle

313. Height of atmosphere, if atmospheric density is 1.29 kg m-3 and atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa, is {{}}
A. 7839.4 m
B. 7829.4 m
C. 7849.4 m
D. 7859.4 m

314. Pressure in fluid depends upon
A. depth below the surface
B. density of fluid
C. the value of g
D. all of above

315. As depth increases, pressure in a fluid
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. varies

316. If extension in spring is proportional to load applied, then material obeys
A. Newton’s law
B. gravitational law
C. Charles’s law
D. Hooke’s law

317. If a spring is squashed, then forces are
A. extensible
B. compressive
C. normal
D. abnormal

318. Fractional increase in original length is called
A. stress
B. strain
C. tensile force
D. compression

319. If a force of 50 N is applied across the cross-sectional area of 5 × 10 – 7m2 then stress applied on it is {{}}
A. 1 × 10 8 Pa
B. 20 Pa
C. 50 Pa
D. 100 Pa

Answer: A 1 × 10 8 Pa

320. Mass of steel sphere having density 7850 kg m-3 and radius 0.15 m is
A. 112 kg
B. 290 kg
C. 110.9 kg
D. 300 kg

321. In a force-extension graph, force is taken along horizontal axis because
A. force is independent variable
B. extension is independent variable
C. force is dependent variable
D. all of above

Answer: A force is independent variable

322. Extension and applied force are
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. are independent of each other
D. inversely related

323. 1 Pa is equal to
A. 1N m
B. 1 kg
C. 1 N m-1
D. 1 N m-2

324. Spring constant of spring is also called
B. tensile forces
C. stiffness
D. compression

Chapter: Mechanics and Properties of Matter

325. Tensile strain is equal to
A. Force per unit area
B. Force per unit volume
C. Extension per unit length
D. Force per unit length

Answer: C Extension per unit length

326. In elastic collisions,
A. only the total momentum of the colliding objects is conserved.
B. only the total kinetic energy is conserved.
C. both of the momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved.
D. neither momentum of the colliding bodies nor the total kinetic energy are

Answer: C both of the momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved.

327. Total angular momentum of a body is given by
A. I × ω; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
B. I² × ω; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
C. I² × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
D. I × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity

Answer: A I × ω; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity

328. Force that acts on a mass of 1 g and gives it an acceleration of 1 cm s -2 is defined as {{}}
A. 1 newton
B. 1 dyne
C. 1 pound-force
D. 1 pa-force

329. An object moving in a circle of radius ‘r’ with a constant speed ‘v’ has a constant acceleration towards the center equal to
A. v²⁄r
B. v⁄r
C. v²×r
D. v×r

330. Einstein’s mass-energy relationship states that if the mass decreases by Δm, the energy released ΔE is given by {{}}
A. ΔE = Δm × c, where “c” denotes the speed of light.
B. ΔE = Δm × c², where “c” denotes the speed of light.
C. ΔE = Δm ⁄ c, where “c” denotes the speed of light.
D. ΔE = Δm ⁄ c², where “c” denotes the speed of light.

Answer: B ΔE = Δm × c², where “c” denotes the speed of light.

331. Bernoulli’s principle states that, for streamline motion of an incompressible non-viscous fluid:
A. the pressure at any part + the kinetic energy per unit volume = constant
B. the kinetic energy per unit volume + the potential energy per unit volume = constant
C. the pressure at any part + the potential energy per unit volume = constant
D. the pressure at any part + the kinetic energy per unit volume + the potential energy per unit volume = constant

Answer: D the pressure at any part + the kinetic energy per unit volume + the potential energy per unit volume = constant

332. While Young’s modulus ‘E’ relates to change in length and bulk modulus ‘K’ relates to change in volume, modulus of rigidity ‘G’ relates to change in:
A. weight
B. density
C. shape
D. temperature

333. Young’s modulus is defined as
A. tensile strain/tensile stress
B. tensile stress/tensile strain
C. tensile stress × tensile strain
D. length/area

334. Velocity of escape is equal to
A. r × √(2g); where r: radius of Earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field strength
B. g × √(2r); where r: radius of Earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field strength
C. √(2g) ⁄ r; where r: radius of Earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field strength
D. √(2gr); where r: radius of Earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field strength

Answer: D √(2gr); where r: radius of Earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field strength

335. Speed ‘v’ with which wave travels through a medium is given by
A. modulus of elasticity/density of the medium
B. modulus of elasticity/√(density of the medium
C. √(modulus of elasticity/density of the medium
D. v=d/t

Answer: C √(modulus of elasticity/density of the medium

336. Hooke’s law states that
A. the extension is proportional to the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded
B. the extension is inversely proportional to the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded
C. the extension is independent of the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded
D. load is dependent on extension

Answer: A the extension is proportional to the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded

337. Dimensions of strain are {{}}
A. [L]
B. [M] [L]-1[T]-2
C. [L]-1
D. It’s a dimensionless quantity

Answer: D It’s a dimensionless quantity

338. Due to energy dissipation by viscous forces in air, if simple harmonic variations of a pendulum die away after some time, then oscillation is said to be:
A. undamped
B. free
C. damped
D. dependent

339. At ‘yield point’ of a copper wire
A. the load hasn’t exceeded the elastic limit yet; so, Hooke’s law applies
B. the load has already exceeded the elastic limit and the material has become plastic
C. even the plastic stage has passed and the wire has snapped already
D. Like Brass and Bronze, Copper has no yield point

340. Stationary waves are also called
A. static waves
B. standing waves
C. progressive waves
D. All of the above

341. When the work done in moving a particle round a closed loop in a field is zero, the forces in the field are called
A. Zero forces
B. Non-Conservative forces
C. Conservative forces
D. Viscous forces

342. Substances that elongate considerably and undergo plastic deformation before they break are known as
A. brittle substances
B. breakable substances
C. ductile substances
D. elastic substances

343. 1 torr is equal to
A. 1 N⁄m²
B. 1 mm Hg
C. 1 bar
D. All of the above

344. Velocity of sound waves through any material depends on
A. the material’s density ‘d’ only
B. the material’s density ‘d’ as well as its modulus of elasticity ‘E’
C. the material’s modulus of elasticity ‘E’ only
D. neither the material’s density ‘d’ nor its modulus of elasticity ‘E’

Answer: B the material’s density ‘d’ as well as its modulus of elasticity ‘E’

345. Period of simple harmonic motion of a spiral spring or elastic thread is given by
A. T = 2π × (extension produced/gravitational field strength
B. T = 2π × (extension produced/√(gravitational field strength
C. T = 2π × (√(extension produced)/gravitational field strength
D. T = 2π × √(extension produced/gravitational field strength

Answer: D T = 2π × √(extension produced/gravitational field strength

346. In order to slip one surface over another, maximum frictional force has to be overcome, this maximum frictional force between the two surfaces is also known as
A. kinetic frictional force
B. maximal frictional force
C. limiting frictional force
D. resisting force

347. Van der Waals derived an expression for the ‘pressure defect’, if the observed pressure is denoted as ‘p’ and volume is denoted as ‘V’, the gas pressure in the bulk of the gas is equal to:
A. p + a/V; where a: constant for the particular gas
B. p + a/(V²); where a: constant for the particular gas
C. p + (a × V); where a: constant for the particular gas
D. p + (a × V²); where a: constant for the particular gas

Answer: B p + a/(V²); where a: constant for the particular gas

348. “Upthrust = Weight of the liquid displaced” is known as
A. Bernoulli’s Principle
B. Archimedes’ Principle
C. Pascal’s Law
D. Coulomb’s law

349. Assuming uniform density of the core, the acceleration due to gravity below the Earth’s surface is
A. inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the center of the Earth
B. inversely proportional to the distance from the center of the Earth
C. directly proportional to the square of the distance from the center of the Earth
D. directly proportional to the distance from the center of the Earth

Answer: D directly proportional to the distance from the center of the Earth

350. When a gas or a liquid is subjected to an increased pressure, the substance contracts, the bulk strain is defined as
A. final volume ⁄ original volume
B. final pressure ⁄ original pressure
C. change in volume ⁄ original volume
D. original volume ⁄ change in volume

Answer: C change in volume ⁄ original volume

351. Tensile stress is equal to
A. Force per unit area
B. Force per unit volume
C. Extension per unit length
D. Extension per unit area

Answer: A Force per unit area

352. Dimensions of relative density are
A. mass × length-3
B. mass × length3
C. It has no dimensions, since it’s a ratio of two densities
D. length 3 × mass -1

Answer: C It has no dimensions, since it’s a ratio of two densities

353. Dimensions of gravitational constant ‘G’ are: {{}}
A. [M]-1[L]3[T]-2
B. [M] [L]3[T]-2
C. [M]-1[L]2[T]-1
D. [M] [L]-1[T]2

354. A person of mass ‘m’ kg jumps from a height of ‘h’ meters, he will land on the ground with a velocity equal to:
A. √(2 × g × h
B. 1/h × √(2 × g
C. 2gh
D. 2√(g × h

Answer: A √(2 × g × h

355. In linear motion, the energy is given by 1⁄2mv 2. Similarly, in rotational motion, the rotational energy is given by {{}}
A. 1/2 × I × ω; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
B. 1/2 × I² × ω; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
C. 1/2 × I × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity
D. 1/2 × I² × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity

Answer: C 1/2 × I × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of the body, ω: angular velocity

356. Boyle’s law states that
A. pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume i.e. P × V = constant
B. pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume i.e. P⁄V = constant
C. pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the square of its volume i.e. P × V² = constant
D. pressure of a gas is directly proportional to the square of its volume i.e. P ⁄ V² = constant

Answer: A pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume i.e. P × V = constant

357. Isothermal bulk modulus is equal to
A. Υ × P; where Υ: the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas, P: pressure
B. Pressure
C. The ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas
D. Υ ⁄ P; where Υ: the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas, P: pressure

358. Adiabatic bulk modulus is equal to:
A. Υ × P; where Υ: the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas, P: pressure
B. Pressure
C. The ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas
D. Υ ⁄ P; where Υ: the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas, P: pressure

Answer: A Υ × P; where Υ: the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas, P: pressure

359. Bernoulli’s principle shows that, at points in a moving fluid where the potential energy change is very small
A. the pressure is low where the velocity is low and similarly, the pressure is high where the velocity is high
B. the pressure is low where the velocity is high and conversely, the pressure is high where the velocity is low
C. pressure becomes independent of the velocity of the moving fluid
D. pressure remain independent of the speed of the stationary fluid

Answer: B the pressure is low where the velocity is high and conversely, the pressure is high where the velocity is low

360. 1 N (newton) is equal to {{}}
A. 102 dynes
B. 103 dynes
C. 104 dynes
D. 105 dynes

361. Torricelli’s theorem states that the velocity ‘v’ of the liquid emerging from the bottom of the wide tank is given by √(2gh). In practice, this velocity is:
A. equal to √(2gh
B. greater than √(2gh
C. lesser than √(2gh
D. independent of height and gravitational field strength

362. Dimensions of Young’s modulus are {{}}
A. [M]-1[L]-1[T]-2
B. [M]-1[L]-2[T]-2
C. [M] [L]-2[T]-2
D. [M] [L]-1[T]-2

363. Kepler’s 3rd law states that…
A. the periods of revolution of the planets are proportional to the cube of their mean distances from sun
B. the periods of revolution of the planets are inversely proportional to the cube of their mean distances from sun
C. the squares of the periods of revolution of the planets are proportional to the cube of their mean distance from sun
D. the squares of the periods of revolution of the planets are inversely proportional to the cube of their mean distance from sun

Answer: C the squares of the periods of revolution of the planets are proportional to the cube of their mean distance from sun

Chapter: Medical Imaging

364. Gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it passes through material is called
A. attenuation
B. decay
D. imaging

365. Attenuation coefficient of bone is 600 m-1 for x-rays of energy 20 keV and intensity of beam of x-rays is 20 Wm-2, then intensity of beam after passingthrough a bone of 4mm is {{}}
A. 3 Wm-2
B. 2.5 Wm-2
C. 2.0 Wm-2
D. 1.8 Wm-2

366. For protons, the gyromagnetic ratio has the value {{}}

367. Energy passing through unit area is
A. intensity of x-ray
B. frequency of x-ray
C. wavelength of x-ray
D. amplitude of x-ray

368. speed of ultrasound depends upon
A. medium
B. amplitude
C. material
D. wavelength

369. Bones look white in x-ray photograph because
A. they are bad absorbers of x-rays
B. they reflect x-rays
C. they are good absorbers of x-rays
D. they are bad absorbers of ultraviolet rays

Answer: C they are good absorbers of x-rays

370. Larmor frequency depends upon the
A. individual nucleus
B. magnetic flux density
C. both A and B
D. energetic flux unit

Answer: C both A and B

371. Acoustic impedance of human skin is {{}}
A. 1.65 × 106 kg m2 s-1
B. 1.71 × 106 kg m-2 s-1
C. 2 × 10 6 kg m-2 s-1
D. 2 × 107 kg m-3 s-2

Answer: B 1.71 × 106 kg m-2 s-1

372. In the best piezo-electric substances, the maximum value of strain is about
A. 0.5 %
B. 0.4 %
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.1 %

373. With gel between skin and transducer percentage of reflected intensity of ultrasonic is
A. 0.03%
B. 0.05%
C. 0.06%
D. 0.08%

374. Attenuation coefficient depends on
A. frequency of x-ray photons
B. wavelength of x-ray photons
C. energy of x-ray photons
D. amplitude of x-ray photons

Answer: C energy of x-ray photons

375. x-rays are filtered out of human body by using
B. carbon absorbers
C. copper absorbers
D. aluminum absorbers

376. Wavelength of x-rays is in range
A. 10 -8 to 10 -13 m
B. 10 -7 to 10 -14 m
C. 10 -10 to 10 -15 m
D. 10 2 to 10 9 m

Answer: A 10 -8 to 10 -13 m

377. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are
A. alpha rays
B. beta rays
C. gamma rays
D. x-rays

378. As the x-rays pass through matter, it’s intensity
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on the object

379. X-rays have
A. short wavelength
B. high frequency
C. both A and B
D. longest wavelength

Answer: C both A and B

380. Acoustic impedance is defined as
A. ρ⁄c
B. ρc
C. c⁄ρ
D. ρ+c

381. A sound wave which has frequency higher than the upper limit of human hearing is
A. infra sonic
B. ultrasonic
C. supersonic
D. megasonic

382. Fatty tissues have
A. relaxation time of several seconds
B. relaxation time of several hundred nanoseconds
C. intermediate relaxation times
D. relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds

Answer: D relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds

383. Angular frequency of precision is called
A. Lower frequency
B. higher frequency
C. Larmor frequency
D. linear frequency

384. Scattered x-ray beams approach the detector screen
A. perpendicularly
B. parallel
C. anti-parallel
D. at an angle

385. Maximum energy an x-ray photon can have is {{}}
A. e⁄V
B. e
C. eV
D. V

386. Soft x-rays have
A. high energies
B. low energies
C. lowest frequency
D. longest wavelength

387. Intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing
A. frequency
B. current
C. voltage
D. resistance

388. Bone thickness is equal to {{}}
A. cΔt/2
B. cΔt
C. c/t
D. t/2

389. Hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing
A. voltage
B. current
C. frequency
D. wavelength

390. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is
A. 100 keV
B. 200 keV
C. 300 keV
D. 400 keV

391. Change in speed of ultrasound causes
A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. refraction
D. image

392. Type of x-rays used to detect break in bone is
A. hard
B. soft
C. both A and B
D. moderate

393. Wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in tissue is
A. 7.5 × 10-4 m
B. 8 × 10-5 m
C. 8.5 × 10-6 m
D. 9.2 × 10-3 m

Answer: A 7.5 × 10-4 m

394. Intensifier screens reduces the patient’s exposure to x-rays by a factor of
A. 500-600
B. 1000-2000
C. 100-500
D. 10-100

395. Contrast media consist of elements with
A. lower atomic number
B. higher atomic number
C. metalloids
D. inert gases

396. Thickness of material which decreases intensity of x-ray material to half of original value is
A. quarter thickness
B. half thickness
C. half life
D. 2 times of thickness

397. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and
A. parallel x-rays
B. perpendicular x-rays
C. anti-parallel x-rays
D. anti-perpendicular x-rays

Chapter: Momentum

398. Speed of Earth when a rock of mass 60 kg falling towards Earth with speed of 20 m s-1 is {{}}
A. 2.4 × 10-22 m s-1
B. 3.5 × 10-33 m s-1
C. −2.0 × 10-22 m s-1
D. −3 × 1034 m s-1

Answer: C −2.0 × 10-22 m s-1

399. Force exerted by bat on ball if it strikes a ball of mass 0.16 kg initially hits bat with speed of 25 m s-1 with time impact of 0.003 s is {{}}
A. 145 N
B. 1333.33 N
C. 1456.7 N
D. 6543 N

400. Momentum of electron having mass 9.1 × 10 -31 kg and velocity 2.0 ×107 is {{}}
A. 1.91 × 10-23
B. 2.34 × 10-23
C. 3.11 × 10-19
D. 7.88 × 10-34

401. To replace a ball with another ball by collision, a snooker player must consider the condition that
A. the collision must be head on
B. The moving ball must not be given any spin
C. both A and B
D. no conditions required

Answer: C both A and B

402. Direction of momentum is direction of object’s
A. mass
B. acceleration
C. velocity
D. frictional force

403. In a springy collision, if the fast moving trolley collides with a slow one, then the fast one will bounce back at speed of
A. slow one
B. less than slow one
C. more than slow one
D. with the same speed as before

404. An object travelling with constant velocity has
A. constant momentum
B. zero momentum
C. increasing momentum
D. decreasing momentum

405. If a trolley collides with a stationary trolley of double mass, then they move off with
A. half of the original velocity
B. one third of original velocity
C. double the original velocity
D. triple the original velocity

Answer: B one third of original velocity

406. In a perfectly elastic collision, momentum and energy are
A. not conserved
B. conserved
C. becomes zero after collision
D. equal before collision

407. Mass and velocity are combined to give
A. angular momentum
B. equilibrium
C. acceleration
D. linear momentum

408. If the total kinetic energy and momentum of a system becomes zero after collision, then the collision is
A. elastic
B. inelastic
C. conserved
D. not conserved

409. Momentum of two objects moving with same speed but in opposite direction upon collision is
A. increased
B. decreased
C. is zero
D. is infinite

410. Forces on interacting bodies are
A. equal
B. opposite
C. both A and B
D. parallel

Answer: C both A and B

411. Resultant force acting on object and rate of change of linear momentum are
A. inversely related
B. not related at all
C. directly related
D. directly proportional

412. In a perfectly elastic collision, the relative speed of approach and relative speed of separation are
A. equal
B. in equal
C. zero
D. infinite

413. {{}} A white ball of mass 1.0 kg moving with initial speed u = 0.5 m s -1 collides with stationary red ball of same mass, they move forward making angle of 90° between their paths. Their speed is
A. 1 m s -1
B. 0.354 m s -1
C. 2 m s -1
D. 3 m s -1

Answer: B 0.354 m s -1

414. In fireworks the momentum provided by chemicals is directed
A. upwards
B. left side
C. right side
D. downwards

415. Total momentum within a closed system is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. zero
D. constant

416. Average force acting on 900 kg car if it’s velocity ranges from 5 m s -1 to 30 m s -1 in 12 s is {{}}
A. 1875 N
B. 2000 N
C. 3000 N
D. 1560 N

417. Interaction that causes an object’s momentum to change is
A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. power
D. force

418. Momentum possessed by spinning objects is called
A. linear momentum
B. angular momentum
C. normal momentum
D. degrees’ momentum

419. In a perfectly inelastic collision, kinetic energy
A. totally disappears
B. is increased
C. is decreased
D. is unchanged

Chapter: Motion Dynamics

420. Contact force always acts at
A. acute angles to the surface producing it
B. right angles to the surface producing it
C. obtuse angle to the surface producing it
D. parallel to the surface producing it

Answer: B right angles to the surface producing it

421. Combinations of base units are
A. simple units
B. derived units
C. scalars
D. vectors

422. Two forces which make up Newton’s third law can
A. act on same objects
B. act on different objects
C. not act at same time
D. not act oppositely

Answer: B act on different objects

423. Rate of falling object in vacuum is
A. independent of weight
B. dependent on mass
C. independent of mass
D. dependent of weight

424. At terminal velocity the
A. air resistance and weight are equal
B. air resistance is less than weight
C. weight is more than air resistance
D. air resistance is more than weight

Answer: A air resistance and weight are equal

425. Vehicle will accelerate as long as
A. air resistance is greater than thrust
B. air resistance is greater than inertia
C. thrust is greater than air resistance and friction
D. friction is greater than thrust

Answer: C thrust is greater than air resistance and friction

426. 1 N is equal to {{}}
A. 1 kg m s-2
B. 10 kg m s-1
C. 10 kg m s-2
D. 100 kg m s-2

Answer: A 1 kg m s-2

427. Density of air is
A. 1⁄8 of water
B. 1⁄7 of water
C. 1⁄45 of water
D. 1⁄800 of water

428. Until a force acts on a body, it’s velocity is
A. zero
B. constant
C. increasing
D. decreasing

429. If there is no net force acting on body, then its acceleration is
A. zero
B. constant
C. increasing
D. decreasing

430. Acceleration of a rocket having mass 5000 kg and resultant force acting on it is 200,000 N is {{}}
A. 50 m s-2
B. 56 m s-2
C. 70 m s-2
D. 40 m s-2

431. Force which makes it difficult to run through shallow water is called
A. viscosity
B. up thrust
C. friction
D. drag

432. Prefix for 10-9is {{}}
A. micro
B. deci
C. centi
D. nano

433. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is
A. 9.9 m s-2
B. 9.5 m s-2
C. 6.1 m s-2
D. 1.6 m s-2

434. An object immersed in fluid experiences an upward force named
A. viscosity
B. drag force
C. up thrust
D. friction

435. If each term in an equation has same base units then the equation is said to be
A. homogeneous
B. non homogeneous
C. equation of straight line
D. equation of circle

436. A force similar to friction is
A. forward force
B. pulling force
C. drag force
D. contact force

437. Forces acting on an object are balanced if resultant force on object is
A. constant
B. zero
C. increasing
D. decreasing

438. Base unit among following is
A. Newton
B. Joule
C. Candela
D. Watt

439. Force provided by breaking system of train if it is decelerating at rate of -3 m s -2 and having mass 10,000 kg is {{}}
A. -30,000 N
B. -40,000 N
C. -50,000 N
D. 30,000 N

440. Force applied on a body and its acceleration are
A. inversely related
B. directly related
C. not related at all
D. inversely proportional

441. The larger the mass of a moving object the
A. larger the acceleration produced
B. acceleration becomes constant
C. smaller the acceleration
D. acceleration becomes zero

442. 500 MW can be written in powers of 10 as {{}}
A. 500 × 106
B. 500 × 103
C. 500 × 10-6
D. 500 × 109

443. Point where entire weight of an object acts is
A. edge
B. center of gravity
C. central point
D. can be anywhere in body

444. Another name for force of gravity acting on an object is
A. friction
B. air resistance
C. weight
D. mass

445. When two objects are in contact, they exert forces in
A. opposite direction
B. same directions
C. can be both A and B
D. perpendicular direction

Chapter: Nuclear Physics

446. Activity is proportional to number of
A. daughter nuclei
B. decayed nuclei
C. undecayed nuclei
D. father nuclei

447. Energy given to nucleus to dismantle it increases the
A. kinetic energy of individual nucleons
B. mechanical energy of individual nucleons
C. potential energy of individual nucleons
D. chemical energy of individual nucleons

Answer: C potential energy of individual nucleons

A. random process
B. non-spontaneous process
C. regular process
D. massive process

449. 1 u is equal to {{}}
A. 1.660 × 10-27 kg
B. 2 × 10-27 kg
C. 3 × 10-27 kg
D. 5 × 10-27 kg

Answer: A 1.660 × 10-27 kg

450. In gamma emission, the change in nucleon number is
A. zero
B. definite
C. increase by 1
D. decreases by 1

451. At higher energy, the bodies have
A. small mass
B. large mass
C. zero mass
D. smaller weight

452. Time taken by a radioactive substance to decay half is called
A. time delay
B. half life
C. time constant
D. half period

453. Most stable isotope in nature is of
A. iron-56
B. carbon-12
C. uranium-235
D. uranium-238

454. Activity of one decay per second is equal to
A. 1 Bq
B. 1 atm
C. 1 mol
D. 1 Cd

455. The greater the decay constant
A. the less the activity
B. the greater the activity
C. the greater the size
D. the less the size

Answer: B the greater the activity

456. Total amount of mass and energy together in a system is
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. zero
D. constant

457. Process by which energy is released in sun is
A. fission
B. Haber’s process
C. fusion

458. Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is called
A. ionization energy
B. electron affinity
C. chemical energy
D. binding energy

459. Mass excess for U-235 is
A. 0.034 u
B. 0.043 u
C. 0.05 u
D. 0.06 u

460. As compared to proton, mass of neutron is
A. 10% greater
B. 5% greater
C. 1% greater
D. 0.1% greater

461. 1 mole of uranium-238 has potential to emit total energy equal to about
A. 109 J
B. 1010 J
C. 1011 J
D. 1012 J

462. If energy is released from a system, it’s mass
A. decreases
B. increases
C. constant
D. zero

463. New nucleus after alpha particle decays, is called
A. parent nucleus
B. daughter nucleus
C. decayed nucleus
D. undecayed nucleus

464. If nucleus is formed from separate nucleons, then energy is
A. gained
B. released
C. converted
D. absorbed

Chapter: Oscillations

465. Maximum displacement from equilibrium position is
A. frequency
B. amplitude
C. wavelength
D. period

466. Displacement-time graph depicting an oscillatory motion is
A. cos curve
B. sine curve
C. tangent curve
D. straight line

467. In s.h.m, velocity at equilibrium position is
A. minimum
B. constant
C. maximum
D. zero

468. Natural frequency of a guitar string can be changed by changing it’s
A. area
B. diameter
C. length
D. stiffness

469. Over-damping results in
C. equilibrium is never achieved

470. Our eyes detect the oscillations up to
A. 8 Hz
B. 9 Hz
C. 6 Hz
D. 5 Hz

471. For s.h.m, maximum speed is proportional to
A. wavelength
B. acceleration
C. time
D. frequency

472. A force that acts to return the mass to it’s equilibrium position is called
A. frictional force
B. restoring force
C. normal force
D. contact force

473. In cars, springs are damped by
A. shock absorbers
B. engine
C. tyres
D. brake pedals

474. If time period of an oscillation is 0.40 s, then it’s frequency is
A. 2 Hz
B. 2.5 Hz
C. 3 Hz
D. 3.5 Hz

475. As amplitude of resonant vibrations decreases, degree of damping
A. increases
B. remains same
C. decreases
D. varies

Chapter: Physics Problems AS Level

501. Least count of screw gauge is
A. 0.01 cm
B. 0.5 cm
C. 0.1 cm
D. 0.01 mm

502. Increase in kinetic energy of car having mass 800 kg and velocities ranging from 20 m s -1 to 30 m s -1 is {{}}
A. 300 KJ
B. 500 KJ
C. 400 KJ
D. 200 KJ

503. Work done by a person having weight 600 N and he needs to climb up a mountain of height 2000 m is
A. 1000 kJ
B. 1300 kJ
C. 1400 kJ
D. 1200 kJ

504. Internal resistance of cell when there is current of 0.40 A when a battery of 6.0 V is connected to a resistor of 13.5 Ω is
A. 1.5 Ω
B. 2.3 Ω
C. 3.5 Ω
D. 4.5 Ω

505. Barrel of screw gauge has
A. 100 divisions
B. 50 divisions
C. 10 divisions
D. 45 divisions

506. A measurement which on repetition gives same or nearly same result is called
A. accurate measurement
B. average measurement
C. precise measurement
D. estimated measurement

507. A motor of the lift provides a force of 20 kN which rises it by 18 m in 10 s, the output power of motor is
A. 36 kW
B. 46 kW
C. 56 kW
D. 66 kW

508. Actual range of values around a measurement is called
A. error
B. uncertainty
C. accuracy
D. precision

509. Depth of water in a bottle is 24.3 cm and uncertainty is 0.2 cm, percentage uncertainty in measurement is
A. 0.82%
B. 9%
C. 1%
D. 2%

510. While taking the reading, the line of sight should be
A. at acute angle to the scale
B. perpendicular to scale
C. at obtuse angle to the scale
D. parallel to the scale

511. Maximum current a battery of e.m.f 3.0 V and internal resistance 1.0 Ω is
A. 4.0 A
B. 5.0 A
C. 3.0 A
D. 30 A

512. In potential dividers, the output voltage depends upon the
A. single resistor
B. relative values of all resistors
C. current
D. temperature

Answer: B relative values of all resistors

513. Calipers are used to measure the
A. diameter
B. length
C. thickness
D. volume

514. Smallest division on stopwatch is
A. 0.1 s
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.01 s
D. 1 s

Chapter: Waves

A. 1.0 kW m-2
B. 20 kW m-2
C. 5 kW m-2
D. 8 kW m-2

516. When light enters from vacuum in to glass, it’s velocity
A. decreases
B. remains same
C. increases
D. varies depending on mass of glass

517. As wave travels, intensity
A. increases
B. remains same
C. decreases
D. varies

518. Waves that move through materials are called
A. progressive waves
B. EM waves
D. UV waves

519. Speed of sound in air is {{}}
A. 280 m s-1
B. 300 m s-1
C. 350 m s-1
D. 330 m s-1

520. Particles vibrate about their mean positions and transfer
A. frequency
B. wavelength
C. energy
D. power

521. Speed of electromagnetic radiation is independent of
A. wavelength
B. amplitude
C. time period
D. frequency

522. Mechanical waves include
A. sound
B. light
C. EM waves
D. UV waves

523. A complete cycle of wave is around
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 45°
D. 360°

524. Changing magnetic field induces
A. charge
B. current
C. frequency
D. voltage

525. Phase difference is measured in
A. degrees
B. meters
C. seconds
D. newton

526. Speed at which stars and galaxies are moving away from us is determined by phenomena of
A. blue shift
B. yellow shift
C. red shift
D. orange shift

527. Electric and magnetic fields vary at angle of
A. 30°
B. 90°
C. 45°
D. 180°

528. Unification of electromagnetic and weak nuclear forces was done by
A. Maxwell
C. Kirchhoff
D. Abdus-Salam

529. Frequency and time period are
A. directly related
B. not related
C. inversely related
D. directly proportional

530. Amount by which one oscillation leads or lags behind another is called
A. in phase
B. intensity
C. phase difference
D. superposition

531. Number of oscillations per unit time is called
A. wavelength
B. amplitude
C. displacement
D. frequency

532. If the particles of medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of velocity then wave is
A. longitudinal
B. transverse
C. abrupt
D. sound

533. Intensity of a wave is directly proportional to the
A. amplitude
B. square of amplitude
C. cube of amplitude
D. frequency

534. Wave speed is directly proportional to
A. frequency
B. amplitude
C. wavelength
D. energy

535. Longitudinal waves gives rise to
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. wavelength
D. high and low pressure regions

Answer: D high and low pressure regions

536. Ranges of waves which overlap are
A. x-rays and gamma rays
B. x-rays and infrared rays
C. gamma rays and infrared rays
D. UV rays and infrared rays

Answer: A x-rays and gamma rays

Chapter: Quantum Physics

537. In order to find the internal structure of nucleus, electrons should be accelerated by voltages up to
A. 105 V
B. 107 V
C. 109 V
D. 1011 V

538. High speed electrons have wavelength of order
A. 10-15 m
B. 10-14 m
C. 10-16 m
D. 10-17 m

539. Wavelength of slow moving neutrons is about
A. 10-34 m
B. 10-20 m
C. 10-19 m
D. 10-10 m

540. High speed electrons from particle detectors are used to determine
A. arrangement of atoms in metals
B. diameter of atomic nuclei
C. inter atomic distance
D. circumference of atomic nuclei

Answer: B diameter of atomic nuclei

541. Energy of gamma photon is greater than
A. 102 J
B. 10-13 J
C. 1013 J
D. 105 J

542. Waves associated with electrons are referred to as
A. plasma waves
B. UV waves
C. gamma rays
D. matter waves

543. Frequency below which no electrons are emitted from metal surface is
A. minimum frequency
B. angular frequency
C. maximum frequency
D. threshold frequency

544. Loss of energy of an electron results in
A. absorption of photon
B. emission of photon
C. destruction of photon
D. formation of photon

545. Wavelength of a 65 kg person running at a speed of 3 m s -1 through an opening of width 0.80 m is {{}}
A. 34 m
B. 35 m
C. 3.4 × 10-36 m
D. 3.5 m

Answer: C 3.4 × 10-36 m

546. According to Newton, the light travels as
A. particles
B. waves
C. both A and B
D. dust

547. In electron diffraction, the rings behave as
A. particles
B. waves
C. both A and B
D. rays

548. Energy absorbed by electron is used in
A. escaping the metal
B. increasing kinetic energy
C. both A and B
D. increasing frequency

Answer: C both A and B

549. Diffraction of slow moving electrons is used to estimate
A. arrangement of atoms in metals
B. nature of atoms
C. number of atoms in metals
D. position of atoms in metalloids

Answer: A arrangement of atoms in metals

550. Energy of photon is directly related to the
A. wavelength
B. wave number
C. frequency
D. amplitude

551. When a charged particle is accelerated through a potential difference V, it’s kinetic energy
A. decreases
B. remains same
C. increases
D. varies depending on resistance of wire

552. Energy of an electron in an atom is
A. quantized
B. continuous
D. randomized

553. In dark, LDR has
A. low resistance
B. high current
C. high resistance
D. both A and B

554. 1 eV is equal to {{}}
A. 1.6 × 10 -19 J
B. 2.0 × 10 -20 J
C. 3 J
D. 4 J

Answer: A 1.6 × 10 -19 J

555. Electrons show diffraction effects because their de Broglie wavelength is similar to
A. spacing between atomic layers
B. no. of atomic layers
C. nature of atomic layers
D. positioning of atomic layers

Answer: A spacing between atomic layers

556. Characteristic properties of waves are
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. interference
D. all of above

557. Plank’s constant has units {{}}
A. J
B. s
C. J s-1
D. J s

558. Gas atoms that exert negligible electrical forces on each other are
A. molecules
B. compounds
C. isotopes
D. isolated atoms

559. Wavelength of red color is about {{}}
A. 7 × 10-7 m
B. 7 × 107 nm
C. 4 × 10-7 m
D. 4 × 10-7 nm

Answer: A 7 × 10-7 m

560. Quantum of electromagnetic energy is called
A. particles
B. photons
C. waves
D. energy

561. In photoelectric effect, electrons should be removed from the
A. inner shells
B. surface
C. from core
D. the nucleus

562. Light interacts with matter as
A. wave
B. particle
C. both A and B
D. rays

563. When white light is passed through cool gases, the spectra observed is called
A. line spectra
B. continuous spectra
C. emission line spectra
D. absorption line spectra

564. Wavelength of ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum is
A. 121 nm
B. 120 nm
C. 119 nm
D. 130 nm

565. In an insulator, the valence band is
A. fully occupied
B. fully empty
C. half filled
D. half charged

566. Most energetic photons are
A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. x-rays

567. Radius of nucleus ranges from {{}}
A. 10-15 m
B. 10-15 m to 10-14 m
C. 10-10 m
D. 10-10 m to 10-6 m

Answer: B 10-15 m to 10-14 m

568. Number of protons in an atom determine
A. chemical properties
B. physical properties
C. magnetic properties
D. electrical properties

569. In β+ decay, an UP quark becomes
A. a strange quark
B. a simple quark
C. a down quark
D. an anti-quark

570. Most of the space in an atom is
A. filled with positive charge
B. empty
C. filled with negative charge
D. filled with neutrons

571. A proton is made up of
A. one up quark and two down quarks
B. an up quark and down antiquark
C. two up quarks and a down quark
D. strange quark and an anti-strange quark

Answer: C two up quarks and a down quark

572. Neutrinos have electric charge of
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. muons

574. In a nuclear process, the quantity conserved is
A. mass-energy
B. momentum
C. mass only
D. energy only

575. A specific combination of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called
A. nucleons
B. nuclide
C. neutrino
D. nucleolus

576. In β + decay, the nucleon number is
A. conserved
B. not conserved
C. unstable
D. stable

577. Particles that are un affected by strong nuclear force are
A. protons
B. leptons
C. neutrons
D. bosons

578. Number of isotopes neon has is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

579. Phenomena of radioactivity was discovered by Henri Becquerel in
A. 1896
B. 1895
C. 1894
D. 1893

A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. all of above

581. Elements undergo radioactive decay when proton number becomes greater than
A. 50
B. 40
C. 83
D. 73

582. Process in which α and β rays pass close to atoms and knock electrons out is called
A. atomization
B. ionization
C. decay
D. hydroxylation

583. Alpha particles have relatively
A. low kinetic energies
B. high potential energy
C. high mechanical energy
D. high kinetic energy

A. Alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. x-rays

585. The nucleon number consists of
A. Number of electrons
B. Number of protons
C. Number of electrons and protons
D. Number of protons and neutrons

Answer: D Number of protons and neutrons

586. Gamma radiation is emitted in order to
A. excite the atom
B. release excess energy from atom
C. destabilize the atom
D. stabilize the atom

Answer: B release excess energy from atom

587. Electrons move around nucleus in form of
A. clouds
B. dust particles
C. steam
D. charge

588. Particles like kaons and muons etc, were found out by
A. looking at cosmic rays
B. looking at particles in accelerators
C. looking closely at atom
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

589. Type of rays that affect the nucleus are
A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. EM

590. Force that acts on both quarks and leptons is
A. strong nuclear force
B. weak interaction
C. intermediate interaction
D. nuclear force

591. Particles that experience strong force are
A. leptons
C. both A and B
D. softons

592. Heavy nuclei have
A. more protons than neutrons
B. more electrons than neutrons
C. more neutrons than electrons
D. more neutrons than protons

Answer: D more neutrons than protons

593. The strong nuclear force acts over the distance
A. 10-13 m
B. 10-14 m
C. 10-15 m
D. 10-16 m

594. A decay in which a proton decays in to neutron and an electron neutrino is
A. β+ decay
B. β-
C. γ decay
D. α decay

595. Photon of electromagnetic radiation is
A. α ray
B. β ray
C. γ ray
D. x-ray

596. Mass of alpha particle is
A. 50 times the mass of electron
B. 100 times the mass of electron
C. 500 times the mass of electron
D. 1000 times the mass of electron

Answer: D 1000 times the mass of electron

597. Particle which explains about mass of matter is called
A. Higgs boson
B. protons
C. leptons
D. neutrons

598. Plum pudding model describes atom as
A. negative pudding with positive plums
B. negative pudding
C. positive pudding with negative plums
D. positive pudding only

Answer: C positive pudding with negative plums

599. Lepton among them are
A. electrons
B. neutrinos
C. protons
D. both A and B

Answer: D both A and B

600. Density of proton is equal to density of
A. electron
B. atom
C. neutron
D. neutrino

Chapter: Resistance and Resistivity

601. Resistivity of lead is {{}}
A. 22.5 × 10 -8 Ω m
B. 20.8 × 10 -8 Ω m
C. 10 Ω m
D. 5 Ω m

Answer: B 20.8 × 10 -8 Ω m

602. A filament lamp is
A. Ohmic
B. non-Ohmic
C. low resistive
D. non glowing

603. In case of filament lamp at higher voltages, the resistance of lamp
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. varies depending on the filament

604. If the connections across the resistor are reversed, then graph between current and potential difference is
A. variable
B. straight lined
C. constant
D. inverted

605. In semiconductors upon increasing temperature, conductivity
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. haphazard

606. In NTC thermistor on increasing temperature, the resistance
A. increases
B. remains constant
C. decreases
D. behaves abruptly

607. A component that allows unidirectional current to pass through it is
A. resistor
B. inductor
C. transformer
D. diode

608. A rectifier converts
A. DC to AC
B. AC to DC
C. voltage in to current
D. current in to voltage

609. Threshold voltage at which LED emits light is
A. less than 0.6
B. equal to 0.6
C. more than 0.6
D. more than 3

610. Resistivity is measured in
A. ohms
B. ohm per meter
C. ohm meter
D. ohm sq. meter

611. Component which obeys ohm’s law is called
A. resistive component
B. efficient component
C. Ohmic component
D. non-Ohmic component

612. At constant temperature, resistance and cross-sectional area are
A. directly related
B. not related
C. remains constant
D. inversely related

613. Current and voltage are
A. directly related
B. inversely related
C. not related
D. gives abnormal behavior on graph

614. At threshold voltage, resistance of diode
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. varies depending on the direction of voltage

615. Resistance of a particular wire depends upon
A. size and shape
B. shape and length only
C. size only
D. shape only

616. Resistance of metal is affected by
A. presence of impurities
B. temperature
C. both A and B
D. pressure

Answer: C both A and B

617. If current and potential difference are directly related then object follows
A. Ohm’s law
C. Ampere’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law

Chapter: Superposition of Waves

618. Effect of diffraction is greatest if waves pass through a gap with width equal to
A. frequency
B. wavelength
C. amplitude
D. wavefront

619. Visible light has wavelength of
A. 5 × 10-7 m
B. 3 × 108 m
C. 6 × 103 m
D. 4 × 104 m

Answer: A 5 × 10-7 m

620. From double-slit experiment, the quantities to be measured are
A. slit separation
B. fringe separation
C. slit-to-screen distance
D. all of above

621. For destructive interference, the path difference is
A. odd number of half wavelengths
B. even number of half wavelengths
C. whole number of wavelengths
D. even whole number of wavelengths

Answer: A odd number of half wavelengths

622. Constructive interference happens when two waves are
A. out of phase
B. zero amplitude
C. in phase
D. in front

623. Two waves with phase difference 180° have resultant of amplitude
A. one
B. zero
C. same as the single wave
D. doubles the single wave

624. If two waves are in phase and have same amplitude then resultant wave has
A. half of amplitude of single wave
B. same amplitude as single wave
C. twice of amplitude of single wave
D. thrice of amplitude of single wave

Answer: C twice of amplitude of single wave

625. For listening radio in cars, external radio aerials are used because
A. radio waves have shorter wavelength
B. radio waves have longer wavelength
C. radio waves cannot pass through window
D. radio waves require a medium to propagate

626. When two waves meet, their displacements
B. cancel out
C. destruct each other
D. subtract down

627. Splitting of white light in to constituent colors is called
A. diffraction
B. refraction
C. reflection
D. dispersion

628. Grating element is equal to
A. nλ/sinθ
B. nλ
C. sinθ
D. cosθ

629. With diffraction grating, the angles are
A. small
B. greater
C. zero
D. close to zero

630. Extra distance travelled by one of waves compared with other is called
A. path
B. displacement
C. phase difference
D. path difference

631. Spreading of wave as it passes through a gap or around an edge is called
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. superposition

632. Fringes are referred to as
A. minima
B. maxima
C. nodes
D. normal points

633. Principle of superposition can be applied to
A. EM waves
B. sound waves
D. all of above

634. Coherent sources emit waves that have
A. increasing phase difference
B. decreasing phase difference
C. constant phase difference
D. varying phase difference

635. Interference pattern of light and dark bands on screen is called
A. graphical pattern
B. line spectrum
C. light spectrum
D. fringes

636. Microwaves have wavelength of about
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm

637. In young double slit experiment, the wavelength of incident beams should be
A. same
B. different
C. zero
D. opposite

638. Wavelength of an incident light when it is incident normally on a diffraction grating having 3000 lines per centimeter angular separation is 10° is
A. 500 nm
B. 650 nm
C. 580 nm
D. 600 nm

Chapter: Thermal Physics

639. Supply of energy depends upon
A. mass of material
B. the change in temperature
C. the material itself
D. all of above

640. All substances have minimum internal energy at
A. absolute zero
B. 0°C
C. 0°F
D. 100K

641. Specific heat of aluminum when 26400 J of energy is supplied to 2 kg block and it’s temperature rises from 20 °C to 35 °C is {{}}
A. 1000 J kg-1 K-1
B. 70 J kg-1 K-1
C. 400 J kg1 K-1
D. 880 J kg -1 K-1

Answer: D 880 J kg -1 K-1

642. On compression, the gat gets hotter due to
A. increase in kinetic energy
B. decrease in kinetic energy
C. increase in potential energy
D. increase in atomic collisions

Answer: A increase in kinetic energy

643. If there is no transfer of energy between two objects then their temperature is
A. same
B. different
C. zero
D. infinite

644. Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to
A. internal energy
B. thermodynamic temperature
C. enthalpy
D. condensation point

645. Celsius scale is based on properties of
A. Mercury
B. Aluminum
C. Cesium
D. Water

646. Energy required per unit mass of substance to raise temperature of that substance by 1 K is called
A. enthalpy
B. internal energy
C. specific heat capacity
D. temperature

647. Measure of average kinetic energy of molecules is
A. temperature
B. energy
C. internal energy
D. enthalpy

648. Energy of molecules of any substance is known as
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. chemical energy

649. Due to evaporation from certain surface, it’s temperature
A. falls
B. increases
C. doesn’t change
D. becomes zero

650. Change of liquid in to gas without boiling is called
A. vaporization
B. sublimation
C. boiling
D. evaporation

651. On heating a solid, as the separation of atoms increases the potential energy
A. decreases
B. remains constant
C. increases
D. becomes zero

652. Temperature can’t be lower than
A. 0 °C
B. 0 °F
C. 0 K
D. 0 °R

653. When a substance is melted, it’s temperature doesn’t rise because
A. energy is lost somewhere
B. energy is used to break the bonds
C. energy is used to make bonds
D. energy is absorbed to make bonds

Answer: B energy is used to break the bonds

Chapter: Work, Energy and Power

654. As the object gains speed, it’s G.P.E (Gravitational Potential Energy)
A. increases
B. remains constant
C. decreases
D. varies depending on altitude

Answer: D varies depending on altitude

655. If energy loss is zero then decrease in G.P.E is equal to
A. decreases in kinetic energy
B. gain in kinetic energy
C. constant kinetic energy
D. zero kinetic energy

Answer: B gain in kinetic energy

656. Average power of all activities of our body is
A. 111 W
B. 113 W
C. 116 W
D. 120 W

657. Energy object possesses due to it’s position is called
A. kinetic energy
B. mechanical energy
C. potential energy
D. chemical energy

658. Change in G.P.E can be written as
A. mgh
B. mh
C. mg
D. gh

659. Efficiency of car engine is only about
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 80%

660. Work is defined as
A. F × S
B. F × a
C. m × a
D. F × m

661. Energy transferred to stone of weight 10 N falling from top of 250 m high cliff is
A. 25000 J
B. 250000 J
C. 2500 J
D. 250 J

662. If force of 1 N moves an object through 1 m, then work done is
A. 2 J
B. 1 J
C. 3 J
D. 4 J

663. SI units for energy and work are
A. Joules and kg
B. Joules and meter
C. Joules and newton
D. Joules

664. If the ball is thrown upwards, the energy changings are
A. K.E changes to G.P.E
B. G.P.E changes to K.E
C. K.E changes to mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy changes to K.E

Answer: A K.E changes to G.P.E

665. 1 W is equal to {{}}
A. 10 J s-1
B. 1 J s
C. 1 J s-1
D. 100 J s

666. Work done by force of gravity on a satellite of 500 N at height is
A. 0 J
B. 1 J
C. 2 J
D. 3 J

667. Rate of doing work is called
A. power
B. energy
C. velocity
D. force