300+ TOP Advanced Instrumentation Techniques MCQs and Answers

Advanced Instrumentation Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following organic compound with molecular formula C3H C12 exhibits only one signal in the IH NMR spectrum?
A. 2, 2-dichloropropane
B. 1, 2-dichloropropane
C. 1, 3-dichloropropane
D. 1, 1-dichloropropane
Answer: A

2. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?
A. Radioactive materials
B. Insoluble chemical compounds
C. Liquids
D. Gases
Answer: C

3. NMR is the study of absorption of ____ by nuclei in a magnetic field?
A. Radioactive radiation
B. IR radiation
C. Radio frequency radiation
D. Microwaves
Answer: C

4. NMR spectrometer provides ______ and ____ method of determining structure in soluble chemical compounds.
A. Accurate, destructive
B. Accurate, non-destructive
C. Inaccurate, destructive
D. Inaccurate, non-destructive
Answer: B

5. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the _____ and spatial positions of_______
A. Electrons, Protons
B. Neutrons, electrons
C. Nuclei, electrons
D. Nuclei, neighbouring nuclei
Answer: D

6. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in strong magnetic field must be irradiated by which of the following?

A. Perpendicular and stronger field
B. Perpendicular and weaker field
C. Parallel and stronger field
D. Parallel and weaker field
Answer: B

7. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting a substance to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?
A. Both fields should be stationary
B. Both fields should be varying
C. One field should be stationary and the other should be varying
D. It must be subjected to only one field
Answer: C

8. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in signal developed by which of the following components?
A. Amplifier
B. Photo detector
C. GM counter
D. Radio frequency detector
Answer: D

9. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation?
A. IR radiation
B. Micro waves
C. UV radiation
D. Radio waves
Answer: D

10. The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for which of the following?
A. Excite an atom
B. Vibrate an atom
C. Vibrate a molecule
D. Affect the nuclear spin of an atom
Answer: D

11. Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have _______ spin.
A. Integral spin
B. Half integral spin
C. Zero spin
D. Positive spin
Answer: B

12. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be which of the following?
A. Integral spin
B. Half integral spin
C. Zero spin
D. Positive spin
Answer: C

13. The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some arbitrary chosen compound is which of the following?
A. Field shift
B. Matrix effects
C. Chemical shift
D. Resonance shift
Answer: C

14. Which of the following has three types of hydrogens in the following compounds?
A. Br-CH = CH2
B. CH3 – CH2 – CH3
C. C6H5CH2
D. CH3– CH2 – CH(CH3) – N02
Answer: A

15. Which of the compound show only one signal is present in the PMR spectra?
A. C3H4, C3H6
B. C4H6, C5H12
C. C8H18, C2H6O
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: D

16. The distance between the centers of the peaks of doublet is called as?
A. Coupling constant
B. Spin constant
C. Spin-spin coupling
D. Chemical shift

Answer: A

17. H2, CH4, C2H6 and C6H6 exhibit which PMR spectra?
A. Singlet
B. Doublet
C. Triplet
D. Quintet
Answer: A

18. A proton Hb is coupled to four equivalent protons Ha. The multiplicity and the relative intensity of lines in the signal Hb is?
A. Doublet, I : 4
B. Triplet, I : 4 : 6
C. Quintet, 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
D. Quartet, 1 : 4 : 6 : 4
Answer: C

19. Nuclei with odd number of protons and odd number of neutrons will have spin quantum number as
A. 1/2
B. 3/2
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: D

20. The possible spin states of a nucleus with spin quantum number 1/2 are
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C

21. More the shielding effect
A. Lower the chemical shift
B. No change in chemical shift
C. Higher the chemical shift
D. More the peak splitting
Answer: A

22. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

A. Shielding effect
B. Spin-spin decoupling
C. Spin-spin coupling
D. Deshielding effect
Answer: C

23. Which mass number of nuclei are NMR active?
A. Odd
B. Even
C. A&B
D. None
Ans: a

24. Which of the following are expected to show nuclear spin orientations?
A. 1H
B. 12C
C. 16O
D. 18O
Answer: A

25. 13C NMR counts no of
A. Protons
B. Carbon
C. Hydrogen
D. All
Answer: B

26. PMR counts no. of protons by using_____rule
A. 2n
B. n
C. (n+1)
D. none of this
Answer: C

27. Coupling constant is_______between adjacent peaks.
A. Distance
B. Distance ration
C. Height
D. All
Answer: A

28. ______Spin state has high energy of nucleus.
A. β
B. α
C. γ
D. All
Answer: B

29. The exact value of δ or τ for protons in various chemical environments depends to a large degree of
A. Substitution effect
B. Solvent
C. Hydrogen bonding
D. All
Answer: D

30. An anisotropic effect causes shielding in the following molecule
A. Alkynes
B. Alkene
C. Benzene
D. Aldehyde
Answer: A

31. Which of the following can be used as solvent for NMR spectroscopy?
A. Deuterochloroform
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Carbon disulphide
D. All
Answer: D

32. The higher the electro negativity of the atom_______is the deshielding caused to proton.
A. Neutral
B. Less
C. Greater
D. none of this
Answer: C

33. The distance of the proton from the electronegative atoms increases, deshielding effect______
A. Decreasec
B. Increases
C. Neutral
D. All
Answer: A

34. If the external magnetic field is applied, the number of possible orientation is calculated by
A. 2I +2
B. 2I + 3
C. 2I +1
D. 2I +4
Answer: C

35. The ratio between the nuclear magnetic moment and angular moment is called
A. Magneto gyric ratio
B. Precessional movement
C. Gyromateric ratio
D. All of the above
Answer: A

36. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?
A. Composition in sample
B. Concentration of elements in sample
C. Relative mass of atoms
D. Properties of sample
Answer: C

37. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be analyzed is bombarded with which of the following?
A. Protons
B. Electrons
C. Neutrons
D. Alpha particles
Answer: B

38. Mass spectrometer separates ions on the basis of which of the following?
A. Mass
B. Charge
C. Molecular weight
D. Mass to charge ratio

Answer: D

39. In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which of the following ways?
A. By accelerating them through electric field
B. By accelerating them through magnetic field
C. By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field
D. By applying a high voltage
Answer: C

40. The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with which of the following processes?
A. The sample is bombarded by electron beam
B. The ions are separated by passing them into electric and magnetic field
C. The sample is converted into gaseous state
D. The ions are detected
Answer: C

41. In mass spectrometer, the ion currents are measured using which of the following?
A. Scintillation counter
B. Ion counter
C. Electrometer tube
D. Electric fields
Answer: C

42. Which of the following ions pass through the slit and reach the collecting plate?
A. Negative ions of all masses
B. Positive ions of all masses
C. Negative ions of specific mass
D. Positive ions of specific mass
Answer: D

43. Which of the following statements is not true about mass spectrometry?
A. Impurities of masses different from the one being analysed interferes with the result
B. It has great sensitivity
C. It is suitable for data storage
D. It is suitable for library retrival
Answer: A

44. Which of the following statement is false for mass spectroscopy?
A. Mass spectroscopy is used to identify unknown compounds within a sample, and to elucidate the structure and chemical properties of different moleculea
B. Particle are characterized by their mass to charge ratios (m/z) and relative abundances
C. This technique basically studies the effect of ionizing energy on molecules
D. This technique can be used on all state of matter
Answer: D

45. Which of the following main component of mass spectroscopy deal with resolving the ions into their characteristics mass components according to their mass-to-charge ratio?
A. Ion Source
B. Analyzer
C. Detector System
D. Analyzer tube
Answer: B

46. Who discovered the mass spectrometer?
A. Francis Aston
B. J. J Thomson
C. Ernest O. Lawrence
D. Walter Kaufmann
Answer: B

47. In which state of matter mass spectroscopy is being performed?
A. solid
B. liquid
C. gaseous
D. plasma
Answer: C

48. What are the main criteria on which mass spectrometer used for?
A. Composition in sample
B. Relative mass of atoms
C. Concentration of elements in the sample
D. Properties of sample
Answer: B

49. Separation of ions in mass spectrometer takes place on the basis of which of the following?
A. Mass
B. Charge
C. Molecular weight
D. Mass to charge ratio
Answer: D

50. Which type of ionic species is allowed to pass through the slit and reach the collecting plate?
A. Negative ions of all masses
B. positive ions of the specific mass
C. Negative ions of the specific mass
D. Positive ions of all masses
Answer: B

51. What is use of mass spectroscopy?
A. Determination of molecule weight
B. Elucidating the chemical structures of molecules
C. A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C

52. Mass spectra is also called
A. Positive ion spectra
B. Line spectra
C. A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C

53. Highest m/z peak in mass spectrum is called as
A. Base peak
B. Fragment peak
C. Isotopic peak
D. Parent peak
Answer: A

54. Mass spectrometer requires
A. High temprature
B. High cooling
C. High vaccume
D. High pressure
Answer: C

55. Which ratio is measured by mass detector ?
A. z/m
B. e/m
C. m/e
D. m/z
Answer: D

56. Most intense peak in mass spectrum is known as
A. Parent peak
B. Isotope peak
C. Metastable peak
D. Base peak
Answer: D

57. When a molecule or ion contains odd number of nitrogen atoms, it will have an_____value of molecular weight.
A. Even
B. Odd
C. Both
D. None of these
Answer: B

58. When number of nitrogen atoms in a compound or ion is zero, the molecular weight will be_____ numbered.
A. Odd
B. Zero
C. Even
D. All
Answer: C

59. The molecular ion peak gives them______of the compound
A. Atomic weight
B. Atomic number
C. Molecular weight
D. All
Answer: C

60. Compound containing chlorine and bromine have
A. M+2
B.M+1
C. M+
D.All
Answer: A

61. Faradays cup are based on the measurement of direct_______ produced when an ion hits the surface.
A. Potential
B. conductance
C. radiations
D. charge current
Answer: D

62. ______ charged ions have lower the mass the more easily ion deflected in the magnetic field.
A. Singly
B. Doubly
C. Triply
D. All
Answer: A

63. If two fragments are in competition to produce a cation, fragment with the _______ ionization energy will be formed more frequently.
A. Highest
B. Lowest
C. Neutral
D. All
Answer: B

64. In a magnetic analyzer ions are separated on the basis of ______values
A. Atomic number
B. m/z
C. Atomic mass
D. None of these
Answer: B

65. The ability of mass spectrometer to separate two ions is defined by measuring the depth of the valleys between the peaks produced by the ions is known as
A. Resolution
B. Migration
C. Both
D. None of these
Answer: A

66. Thermal analysis is defined as ___________
A. Measurement of concentration of materials as a function of temperature
B. Measurement of solubility of materials as a function of temperature
C. Measurement of physical properties as a function of temperature
D. Measurement of line positions of crystals as a function of temperature
Answer: C

67. Which of the following method can be used for the measurement of change in weight of the oxysalts?
A. Thermoelectric analysis
B. Wagner analysis
C. Stockbarger analysis
D. Thermal analysis
Answer: D

68. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?
A. FTG AND DGG
B. MSP AND FCT
C. TGA AND DTA
D. TSA AND DGF
Answer: C

69. Dilatometry is also known as by which of the following names?
A. TGA
B. DTA
C. DSC
D. TMA
Answer: D

70. In thermogravimetric analysis, the result obtained appear as a __________
A. Continuous chart
B. Continuous parabola
C. Continuous circular positions
D. Discontinuous chart
Answer: A

71. What is the range of the rate in ◦Cmin-1 required during the heating process in TGA?
A. 1-20
B. 25-50

C. 100-200
D. 150-1000
Answer: A

72. Under conditions of ______________ heating, decomposition usually take place in thermogravimetry. Fill up the suitable option from the choices given below.
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. Dynamic
Answer: D

73. The Ti and Tf temperature depends on which of the following factor?
A. Cooling rate
B. Mechanical property of the material
C. Thermal expansion coefficient
D. Atmosphere above the sample
Answer: D

74. Which of the following option is appropriate for the TGA and DTA?
A. TGA and DTA measures only weight
B. TGA measures only weight while DTA measures other effects
C. TGA and DTA measures only temperature
D. TGA measures only temperature while DTA measures other effects
Answer: B

75. In the schematic DTA sequence having reversible and irreversible changes, starting with the hydrated material, which of the following steps occurs first on heating?
A. Esterification
B. Methylation
C. Rehydration
D. Dehydration
Answer: D

76. In the application of DTA and DSC which of the following parameters is measured for the glasses?
A. Concentration of the glass
B. Solubility of the glass
C. Cooling temperature
D. Transition temperature
Answer: D

77. DTA can be used for which of the following process?
A. Line positions of the crystals
B. Mechanical properties of the crystals
C. Phase diagrams
D. Catalytic properties of enzymes
Answer: C

78. A rapid TGA method is used for which of the following process?
A. Decomposition of polymers exothermally
B. Decomposition of enzymes exothermally
C. Decomposition of crystals endothermally
D. Decomposition of reactions isothermally
Answer: D

79. Which of the following parameters can be used, using the DSC and DTA cells?
A. Catalytic properties of enzyme
B. Elasticity of crystals
C. Enthalpy of substances
D. Line positions of phases
Answer: C

80. In_________technique in which a change in the weight of a substance is recorded as function of temperature or time.
A. Thermogravimerty
B. Differential thermal analysis
C. Differential scanning calorimetry
D. None of above
Answer: A

81. Thermogravimetry (TG) is concerned with the change in weight of a material as its…..,., Changes.
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Frequency
D. all
Answer: B

82. A plot of weight change versus temperature is referred to as the

A. DSC curve
B. DTA curve
C.TG curve
D. all
Answer: C

83. The difference in heat flow into the sample and reference is measured in
A. Heat flux DSC
B. Heat flux DTA
C. Heat flux TG
D. None of this
Answer: A

84. Sharp endothermic peaks give ideas of changes in
A. Amorphous processes
B. Crystallinity or fusion processes
C. Cleavage processes
D. None of this
Answer: B

85. In DTA, broad endothermic peak signify __________reactions.
A. Dehydration
B. Hydration
C. Fusion
D. All
Answer: A

86. In DTA, Physical changes give rise to_______ peak.
A. Positive
B. Endothermic
C. Exothermic
D. Negative
Answer: B

87. In DTA, chemical reaction gives rise to ______peak.
A. Maxima
B. Minima
C. Exothermic
D. Endothermic
Answer: C

88. Temperature at which the material goes from a glassy to a rubbery state is
called_________temperature
A. Rubber transition temperature
B. Plastic transition temperature
C. Chemical transition temperature
D. Glass transition temperature
Answer: D

89. DSC can measure directly both the temperature and the_______
A. Heat of reaction
B. Heat of combustion
C. Heat of formation
D. All
Answer: A

90. X-ray diffractometers are not used to identify the physical properties of which of the following?
A. Metals
B. Liquids
C. Polymeric materials
D. Solids
Answer: B

91. X-ray diffractometers provide ____________ information about the compounds present in a solid sample.
A. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
C. Quantitative and qualitative
D. Either quantitative or qualitative
Answer: C

92. Using the powder method of diffractometers, which of the following can be determined?
A. Percentage of K+
B. Percentage of Na+ and Cl-
C. Percentage of KBr and NaCl
D. Percentage of Br-
Answer: C

93. In powder method, the powder sample is contained in which of the following?
A. Thin walled glass capillary tubes
B. Thin walled test tube
C. Thin walled curvettes
D. Thin walled flask
Answer: A

94. Which of the following is the most common instrument for photographic recording of diffraction patterns?
A. Debye-Scherrer powder camera
B. Gamma camera
C. Geiger tube
D. Scintillation counter
Answer: A

95. With the help of which of the following equations is the distance calculated from a known wavelength of the source and measured angle?
A. Coolidge equation
B. Bragg’s equation
C. Debye equation
D. Scherrer equation
Answer: B

96. In Diffractometer, the identification of a component of the sample from its powder diffraction pattern is based upon the _________ of lines and their relative ___________
A. Number, length
B. Number, intensity
C. Position, length
D. Position, intensity
Answer: D

97. Diffractometers are similar to which of the following?
A. Optical grating spectrometer
B. Prism spectrometer
C. Photo multiplier
D. Photovoltaic cell
Answer: A

98. In Diffractometers, line intensities depend on ______ and kind of atomic reflection centres in each set of plates.
A. Number

B. Position
C. Length
D. Distance between lines
Answer: A

99. In powder diffractometer, the sharpness of the lines is greatly determined by which of the
following?
A. Quality of the sample, size of the slit
B. Quality of the slit, size of the sample
C. Thickness of the slit, amount of the sample
D. Number of slits, composition of the sample
Answer: B

100. How to produce x-ray?
A. By heating electron by uv radiation.
B. Knocking only e-
C. Loss of inner shell e– one of the outer e– will fall into the vacant orbital with the simultaneous emission of X-ray photon
D. None of the above
Answer: C

101. Bragg equation is
A. nλ=2sinθ
B. n=2dsinθ
C. nλ=2dsinθ
D. nλ=2fsinθ
Answer: C

102. X-rays are produced when:
A. Metal gets converted to ion
B. High speed electrons or ions collide with metal
C. The glass tube gets heated
D. All of the above
Answer: B

103. Radiations in the X-ray region are emitted from some radioactive elements from the following mechanism.
A. Gamma radiation
B. Electron capture
C. K-Capture

D. All
Answer: D

104. Which of the following isotopes are useful as sources of X-rays or gamma rays?
A. Fe-55
B. Co-57
C. Am-241
D. All of the above
Answer: D

105. X-rays diffraction work has been employed in the elucidation of the structure of complex natural products such as
A. Steroids
B. Vitamins
C. Antibiotics
D. All of the above
Answer: D

106. Which of the following crystal has largest lattice spacing and hence a much greater wavelength range.
A. NaCI
B. Topaz
C. ADP
D. EDDT
Answer: A

107. The following are methods of X-Ray Diffraction
A. Rotating crystal method
B. Powder X-ray diffraction
C. Single rotating crystal method
D. All
Answer: D

108. X-ray powder diffraction is most widely used for the identification of unknown crystalline materials, such as
A. Inorganic compounds
B. Minerals
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b
Answer: C

109. The analytical uses of electromagnetic radiation in the X-ray region are similar in many respects to the many applications of ultraviolet and visible radiation. In X-ray region there may be
A. Emission
B. Absorption
C. Diffraction
D. Fluorescent emission
e) All are correct
Answer: e

110. Low energy X-rays longer than 3 A° are readily absorbed in
A. Moisture
B. Air
C. Electromagnetic waves
D. Water
Answer: B

111. Regulations for drugs and pharmaceuticals have laid down requirements of calibrati6n of
instruments/ apparatus for it’s
A. Accuracy
B. Reliability
C. Purity
D. Both a and b
Answer: D

112. For the establishment of linearity, a minimum of concentrations is recotrunended, other approaches should be justified.
A. Six
B. Five
C. Two
D. One
Answer: B

113. The closeness of test results to the true value is known as
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Reproducibility
D. Range
Answer: A

114. Repeatability should be assessed using
A.. A minimum of 9 determinations covering the specified range for the procedure (e.g., 3 concentrations/3 replicates each)
B. A minimum of 6 determinations at 100 percent of the test concentration
C. A minimum of 12 determinations at 120 percent of test concentration
D. Both a and b
Answer: D

115. Approaches for determining the detection limit are
A. Based on Visual Evaluation
B. Based on Signal-to-Noise
C. Based on the Standard Deviation of the Response and the Slope
D. All
Answer: D

116. The detection limit (DL) may be expressed as
A. 3SD/10
B. 10σ/SD
C. 3.3σ/SD
D. 3.3SD/σ
Answer: C

117. According to CFR regulations Equipment design, size, and location included in …………
A. 21 CFR 211.42
B. 21 CFR 211.63
C. 21 CFR 211.165
D. 21 CFR 211.180
Answer: B

118. The quantitation limit (QL) may be expressed as
A. 10σ/S
B. 3σ/S
C. 10/σS
D. SD/σ10
Answer: A

119. A risk assessment technique can be utilized in any quality assessment is/are
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA.

C. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)
D. All
Answer: D

120. When there are changes in packaging, formulation, equipments or process which could impact on product effectiveness; in certain conditions which validation is generally preferred as per FDA guidelines.
A. Prospective validation
B. Revalidation
C. Concurrent validation
D. Retrospective validation
Answer: B

121. Estimation of the expanded uncertainty is based on
A. Repeatability
B. Resolution
C. Eccentricity
D. All of above
Answer: D

122. Calibration of UV-Visible spectrophotometer is conducted by using
A. Potassium chromate
B. Potassium Dichromate
C. Sodium Hydroxide
D. Quinine sulphate
Answer: B

123. Acceptance criteria for calibration of UV- Visible spectrophotometer at wavelength of 257.0 is
A. 124.5
B. 144.0
C. 106.5
D. 148.0
Answer: B

124. The procedure to calibrate the High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC. including in Pharmaceutical Quality Control is
A. Leakage test
B. Flow rate
C. Lamp energy and pump pressure drop

D. All
Answer: D

125. Frequency for Calibration of Column oven temperature in GC is
A. Once in 3 months
B. Twice in 3 months
C. Once in 6 months
D. Once in 2 months
Answer: A

126. Recording of absorption spectrum of a solid in IR is carried out with
A. Potassium bromide
B. Quinine sulphate
C. Potassium Chloride
D. Both a and c
Answer: D

127. Which is a most fair range of pH optimum for most of the proteins in Iodination?
A. 9
B. 7.5
C. 6.2
D. 8.4
Answer: B

128. In RIA C-14 and H-3 are not generally referred as radiolabelling agent because:
A. The principal drawback of long half lives (5740 and 12.3 years respectively)
B. They are also more difficult .to measure
C. Requiring cumbersome liquid scintillation counting
D. All of the above
Answer: D

129. The radioiodine labeled compound used should have a specific activity of:
A. 100 to 300 mCi/mg
B. 400 to 500 mCi/mg
C. 150 to 300 mCi/mg
D. 1000 to 3000 mCi/mg
Answer: A

130. A small molecule which, when combined with a larger carrier such as a protein, can elicit the production of antibodies which bind specifically to it (in the free or combined state) is called as:
A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Hapten
D. Radio-labeled isotope
Answer: C

131. Following are the separation techniques used in RIA.
A. Solid-phase adsorption of antigen
B. Solid -phase absorption of antibody
C. Immune-precipitation and fractional precipitation
D. All
Answer: D

132. An adjuvant is added to antigen for the retardation of its absorption and increase the antigenic stimuli. These substances include:
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Gelatin
C. Mineral oil and Freund’s adjuvant
D. All of the above
Answer: D

133. Which one of the following is used as radiolabelled antigen.
A. Iodine 131 and 125
B. Chloramine T
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer: C

134. Radio immuno assay is very sensitive technique used to measure______of antigen without the need to use a bioassay.
A. Concentrations
B. Purity
C. Quantity
D. Quality
Answer: A

135. Following are the parts of instrumentation of IMA:

A. Gamma Counters
B. Scintillation Counters
C. Both a and b
D. None
Answer: C

136. The process of extraction is more complete if it is carried out in
A. Number of operations
B. Single operation
C. Both
D. None of this
Answer: A

137. Liquid-liquid extraction separate compounds or metal complexes, based on their relative________in two different immiscible liquids.
A. Refractive index
B. Densities
C. Solubilities
D. Weight
Answer: C

138. The salting out effect decrease _________of a water soluble component or to increase________of a compound in the non aqueous phase.
A. Solubility
B. Density
C. Weight
D. All
Answer: A

139. Liquid-liquid extraction which is the transfer of a solute from one liquid phase to another liquid by contact. This process is also called Partitioning or
A. Extraction
B. Distribution
C. Dissolution
D. Fractionation
Answer: B

140. The separation of sample between two immiscible phases is better as the difference between distribution ratio is_____
A. More

B. Less
C. Equal
D. None of this
Answer: A

141. The solvent used for extraction must have_____viscosity.
A. Moderate
B. High
C. Denser
D. Low
Answer: D

142. Inert solvent system generally extract______species.
A. Non-polar
B. Polar
C. Acidic
D. Basic
Answer: A

143. Continuous extraction is used when the distribution ratio is______
A. High
B. Low
C. Equal
D. All
Answer: B

144. Batch extraction is used where a_______Distribution ratio for the desired separation is readily available
A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. Equal.
Answer: A

145. ________are the additives to the organic phase to increase solubility of the extractant of the diluents.
A. Diluents
B. Extractors
C. Modifiers
D. None of this
Answer: C

146. The coupling of the separation technique and an on-line spectroscopic detection technology will lead to a technique.
A. Hyphenated
B. Separation
C. Distillation
D. Extraction
Answer: A

147. The mass analyzer is used to sort ions according to their
A. Weight
B. Height
C. Charge
D. Mass to charge ratio
Answer: D

148. Tandem mass spectrometer (MS/MS) which consists of scanning mass analyzers separated by______a collision cell.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

149. The process of ionization not only ionize the molecule but also break the molecule into the___
A. Ions
B. Molecules
C. Fragments
D. None of this
Answer: C

150. The selection of a________depends upon the resolution, mass range, scan rate and detection limits.
A. Mass analyzer
B. Ionization source
C. Interface
D. All
Answer: A

151. The sample travel through the length of column the difference in the_________and other chemical properties lead to separation of the components of the mixture.
A. Melting point
B. Boiling point
C. Affinity
D. All
Answer: D

152. The membrane separator takes advantage of large differences in______between most organic molecules and the carrier gas when both are confronted by a membrane.
A. Permeability
B. Affinity
C. Retention
D. None of this
Answer: A

153. The Thermospray technique depends on the thermal generation of a
A. Mist
B. Spray
C. Particles
D. Molecules
Answer: B

154. A jet/ orifice system is effective in removing the carrier gas by
A. Effusion
B. Permeability
C. Diffusion
D. Separation
Answer: A

155. An interfacing arrangement of both a gas chromatograph and a mass spectrometer without _________the performance of either instrument.
A. Absorbing
B. Degrading
C. Isolation
D. None of this
Answer: B

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