Category: Applied Chemistry Objective Questions

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Types of Fuel Cells”.

1. In standard hydrogen electrode, concentration of hydrogen is ____________
a) 0M
b) 0.5M
c) 1M
d) 1.5M
Answer: c
Clarification: In standard hydrogen electrode, the concentration of hydrogen is 1 molar and the pressure is about 1atm.

2. The temperature maintained in the standard hydrogen electrode is _____________
a) 22^oC
b) 23^oC
c) 24^oC
d) 25^oC
Answer: d
Clarification: The temperature maintained in the standard hydrogen electrode is 25^oC, pressure is maintained at 1 atmosphere.

3. The emf of the standard hydrogen electrode is ____________
a) 0V
b) 1V
c) 2V
d) 3V
Answer: a
Clarification: The electro motive force of the standard hydrogen electrode is 0V. Depending on the half cell attached, hydrogen cell acts as anode or cathode.

4. Which of the following is the correct equation?
a) E = E^o [(2.303RT)/nF] log₁₀ [H⁺]
b) E = E^o + [(2.303RT)/nF] log₁₀ [H⁺]
c) E = E^o – [(2.303RT)/nF] log₁₀ [H⁺]
d) E = E^o/[(2.303RT)/nF] log₁₀ [H⁺]
Answer: c
Clarification: E = E^o – [(2.303RT)/nF] log₁₀ [H⁺] is called Nernst equation. Where, E = single electrode potential, E^o = standard electrode potential, n = valency of ion, F = faraday.

5. If the standard hydrogen electrode is used as the reduction electrode, then the emf is given by __________
a) E_red = -E^o + (5/n) log₁₀ [H⁺]
b) E_red = -E^o – (0.0591/n) log₁₀ [H⁺]
c) E_red = E^o + (0.0591/n) log₁₀ [H⁺]
d) E_red = -E^o + (0.0591/n) log₁₀ [H⁺]
Answer: d
Clarification: If the standard hydrogen electrode is used as the reduction electrode, then the emf can be given by E_red = -E^o + (0.0591/n) log₁₀ [H⁺] that is E_red = – E_OX.

6. In standard calomel electrode, for saturated KCL solution, electrode potential is __________
a) 0.897V
b) 0.456V
c) 0.3512V
d) 0.2415V
Answer: d
Clarification: In standard calomel electrode, for saturated KCL solution, electrode potential is 0.2415V. The mercury of high purity is placed at the bottom of this tube.

7. For 1N KCL standard reduction potential in the calomel electrode is __________
a) 0.28V
b) 0.25V
c) 0.5V
d) 1V
Answer: a
Clarification: For 1N KCL standard reduction in the calomel electrode is 0.28V. For 0.1N KCL solution the reduction potential is 0.3338V.

8. The calomel electrode is only used as _________
a) Oxidising electrode
b) Reducing electrode
c) Depends on the half cell
d) Cannot be said
Answer: b
Clarification: The calomel electrode is used only as a reducing electrode. The electrolyte used is a solution of potassium chloride.

9. ___________ is the device used to measure the emf of the cell.
a) Voltmeter
b) Potentiometer
c) Ammeter
d) Multimeter
Answer: b
Clarification: The potentiometer is the device used to measure the electro motive force of the cell. Ammeter is used to measure the quantity of current.

10. The emf of the Weston standard cell is __________ at 20^oC.
a) 16.7989V
b) 5.2572V
c) 1.0183V
d) 0V
Answer: c
Clarification: The electro motive force of the Weston standard cell is 1.0183V at 20^oC and It varies slightly by 0.0000406V per change of 1^oC.

11. In primary cells reaction is not reversible.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In primary cells, the reaction is not reversible and in secondary cells, the reaction can be reversed.

12. The energy of the fuel cells ___________
a) Can be recharged
b) Cannot be recharged
c) Is stored
d) Cannot be said
Answer: c
Clarification: The energy of the fuel cells is stored. Energy can be withdrawn indefinitely as long as outside supply of fuel is maintained.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Synthetic Rubber”.

1. BUNA – S is otherwise called as __________
a) Sodium rubber
b) Synthesized rubber
c) Butadiene rubber
d) Styrene rubber
Answer: d
Clarification: BUNA – S is otherwise called as styrene rubber. It is also called as the government rubber styrene.

2. Ameripol is nothing but _________
a) BUNA – N
b) BUNA – S
c) Dacron
d) Teflon
Answer: b
Clarification: Ameripol is nothing but BUNA – S. BUNA – S stands for the composition of the monomers and catalyst.

3. In BUNA – S, the BU stands for ________
a) Butadiene
b) Butane
c) Butaraldehyde
d) 3-Butanoic acid
Answer: a
Clarification: In BUNA – S, the BU stands for Butadiene. The butadiene acts as the monomer. NA acts as catalyst that is sodium and S for styrene acts as monomer.

4. Styrene rubber is a _________
a) Strong
b) Weak
c) Neither strong nor weak
d) Very weak
Answer: a
Clarification: Styrene rubber is strong and tough polymer. Styrene is from benzene and ethylene in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride as catalyst.

5. Styrene rubber is vulcanised by ___________
a) Sulphurous oxide
b) Sulphur mono chloride
c) Sulphur-di-oxide
d) Carbon
Answer: b
Clarification: Styrene rubber is vulcanised by sulphur mono chloride or sulphur. It resembles natural rubber in processing characteristics and quality of finished products.

6. BUNA- S is a __________
a) Electrical insulator
b) Electrical conductor
c) Semi conductor
d) Conducts only at a certain temperature
Answer: a
Clarification: BUNA – S is a good electrical insulator. Butadiene is produced from the acetaldehyde and ethyl alcohol.

7. The BUNA – S is _________ chemicals.
a) Attacked by
b) Resistant to
c) Neither resistant nor attacked
d) Neutral
Answer: b
Clarification: The BUNA – S is resistant to the chemicals and it is swelled by the oils and attacked by the traces of ozone present in atmosphere.

8. Manufacture of tyres can be done by __________
a) BUNA – N
b) Thiokol rubber
c) Poly sulphide rubber
d) BUNA – S
Answer: d
Clarification: Manufacture of tyres can be done by the BUNA – S. It is used in the foot ware industry for making shoe soles and foot ware components.

9. Which of the following can be made by the BUNA – S?
a) Cable insulations
b) Coats
c) Water proof clothes
d) Cosmetics
Answer: a
Clarification: The cable insulations and the wires can be made by the BUNA -S. Floor files, tank linings in chemical industries and as an adhesive.

10. Which of the following rubber cannot be vulcanised?
a) BUNA – S
b) BUNA – N
c) Thiokol rubber
d) Teflon
Answer: c
Clarification: The Thiokol rubber is also called as the poly sulphide rubber. The Thiokol rubber cannot be vulcanised and it cannot form hard rubber.

11. The poly sulphide rubber is resistant to __________
a) Ozone
b) Oils
c) Chemicals
d) Nitrogen
Answer: a
Clarification: The poly sulphide rubber is resistant to the ozone. It is also resistance to the mineral oils, fuels, solvents, oxygen and sunlight.

12. The gaskets can be made by __________
a) Gutta-percha
b) Nitrile rubber
c) Thiokol rubber
d) BUNA – S
Answer: c
Clarification: The gaskets can be made by the thiokol rubber. It is made of seals for printing rolls. They are also used for lining houses for conveying gasoline.

13. BUNA – N is a co-polymer of ___________ and __________
a) Butadiene, acrylonitrile
b) Sodium poly sulphide, ethylene dichloride
c) Benzene, ethylene
d) Acetaldehyde, ethyl alcohol
Answer: a
Clarification: BUNA – N is a co-polymer of the acrylonitrile and butadiene. Thiokol is the co-polymer of the sodium poly sulphide and ethylene dichloride. Styrene is the co-polymer of the benzene and ethylene.

14. BUNA – N can be vulcanised by __________
a) Sulphur
b) Oxygen
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Sulphurous acid
Answer: a
Clarification: BUNA – N can be vulcanised by the sulphur. BU stands for the butadiene and NA stands for sodium and N stands for acrylonitrile.

15. Vulcanized BUNA – N is resistant to _________
a) High temperatures
b) Low temperature
c) Oils
d) Acids
Answer: a
Clarification: Vulcanised BUNA – N is resistant to the high temperatures. The normal BUNA – N is resistant to the acids, salts, heat and oils.

Applied Chemistry MCQs focuses on “Tidal and Wave Power – 2”.

1. Tidal power is taken from earth’s __________ tides.
a) Sea
b) Oceanic
c) Other water sources
d) River
Answer: b
Clarification: Tidal power is taken from earth’s oceanic tides. The ocean tides will serve as good energy sources. They are in good use for the generation of electricity.

2. The tidal forces are ______________ in gravitational attraction exerted by celestial bodies.
a) Aperiodic variations
b) Periodic variations
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
Answer: b
Clarification: The tidal forces are periodic variations in gravitational attraction exerted by celestial bodies. These forces create the corresponding motions or currents in the world oceans.

3. Due to ________ the bulge is created in the water level.
a) weak attraction forces
b) Vanderwals forces
c) Wave currents
d) Strong attraction forces
Answer: d
Clarification: Due to strong attraction forces, the bulge is created in the water level of the ocean bodies. These turns into the turbines to generate power.

4. The bulge in water will increase the sea level _________
a) Temporarily
b) Permanently
c) Only for seconds
d) Only for a minute
Answer: a
Clarification: The bulge in water will increase the sea level temporarily. The bulge is due to the strong attraction forces.

5. In how many types the tidal power is generated?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Clarification: The tidal power can be generated in four types. They are: 1.tidal steam generator, 2. tidal barrage method, 3. dynamic tidal power method and 4. tidal lagoon method.

6. The kinetic energy is used to make power in __________ method.
a) Tidal lagoon method
b) Dynamic tidal power
c) Tidal barrage method
d) Tidal steam generator
Answer: d
Clarification: The tidal steam generator is the method which uses the kinetic energy to generate the electricity. They use the kinetic energy of the moving water to turn turbines similar way as wind power turbines.

7. The both potential and kinetic energy is used in _________ method.
a) Dynamic tidal power
b) Tidal lagoon method
c) Tidal barrage method
d) Tidal steam generator
Answer: a
Clarification: The both potential and kinetic energies of the flowing water is used to make the power. The dynamic tidal power method uses both the methods.

8. The tidal barrage method uses kinetic energy and tidal lagoon method uses potential energy to produce electricity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The above statement is false because the tidal barrage method uses potential energy to produce the electricity and the tidal lagoon method uses the potential method as well.

9. The turbines in the tidal steam generator are placed at ___________ of water column.
a) Bottom
b) Top
c) Right side
d) Left side
Answer: a
Clarification: The turbines in the tidal steam generator are placed at bottom of the water column. These turbines can be horizontal, vertical, open or ducted.

10. The potential energy is turned into _________ energy in tidal barrage method.
a) kinetic energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Chemical energy
d) Static energy
Answer: b
Clarification: The potential difference between the high tide and low tide is utilized to produce electricity. The potential energy is turned into mechanical energy in tidal barrage method.

11. The reservoirs that are similar to the tidal barrages are created in tidal lagoon method and those are called as __________
a) Lagoons
b) Wells
c) Pots
d) Tanks
Answer: a
Clarification: In tidal lagoon method the reservoirs are similar to the tidal barrages are created. They are called as lagoons.

12. The pumping of lagoon will flatten out the _________
a) Tides
b) Power output
c) Water
d) Low tides
Answer: b
Clarification: The pumping will flatten the power output. So, the lagoons can be in double format without pumping.

13. The ___________ is used for pumping.
a) Solar energy
b) Tidal energy
c) Wind energy
d) Static energy
Answer: a
Clarification: The solar energy is used for pumping. The four turbines are placed at the area with high tidal movements.

To practice MCQs on all areas of Applied Chemistry,

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Principles of Green Chemistry”.

1. The principles of green chemistry include eliminating ________ treatments.
a) Costly
b) Harmful
c) Hard
d) Easy
Answer: a
Clarification: The principles of green chemistry include eliminating costly treatments. It makes the reactions with less cost and no toxic materials.

2. One of the principles of green chemistry says that to produce _______ goods.
a) Harmful
b) Commercial
c) Safer
d) Most used
Answer: c
Clarification: One of the principles of green chemistry says that the produced goods must be safe. That means the goods must be not harmful for environment.

3. After the use of chemicals, we must ______ them properly.
a) Use
b) Reuse
c) Dispose
d) Store
Answer: c
Clarification: After the use of chemicals, we must dispose them properly. The empty chemical containers should not be reused because they are toxic and if they are not disposed properly, they create the environmental pollution.

4. Green chemistry applies across the __________ of a chemical product like design, manufacture and use.
a) Life cycle
b) Properties
c) Uses
d) Efficiency
Answer: a
Clarification: Green chemistry applies across the life cycle of a chemical product like design, manufacture and use. It says that manufacturing should be done without any pollution.

5. We must use feedstock derived from annually renewable resources or from _______
a) Chemicals
b) Organic compounds
c) Abundant waste
d) Plants
Answer: c
Clarification: We must use feedstock derived from annually renewable resources or from abundant wastes. The wastes are utilised back.

6. Green chemistry improves __________ of chemical manufacturers.
a) Competitiveness
b) Easiness of production
c) Services
d) Chemicals
Answer: a
Clarification: Green chemistry improves competitiveness of chemical manufacturers. The products are of low cost and good quality. So, it improves the competition.

7. It reduces the use of _________
a) liquid fuels
b) Energy
c) Gaseous fuels
d) Solid fuels
Answer: b
Clarification: It reduces the use of the energy. The less consumption of energy also reduces the cost of production. So, the product will be available at low costs.

8. It reduces the ______ and protects the environment.
a) Pollution
b) Temperature
c) Air
d) Water
Answer: a
Clarification: It reduces pollution and protects the environment. By green synthesis, the products that are non-hazards to the nature are produced. So, no pollution takes place.

9. According to the green chemistry, the chemical involved in the production must be ________
a) Non toxic
b) Toxic
c) Highly toxic
d) Produces the toxic by products
Answer: a
Clarification: According to the green chemistry, the chemical involved in the production must be nontoxic.

10. The green synthesis methods should have _________
a) Low efficiency
b) High harmful products
c) Low energy requirements
d) Low atom efficiency
Answer: c
Clarification: The green synthesis methods should have high efficiency, less harmful products, low energy requirements and high atom efficiency.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Selection of Lubricants”.

1. A high temperature lubricants used may undergo ________
a) vulcanization
b) volatilization
c) lubrication
d) combustion
Answer: b
Clarification: A high temperature lubricants used may undergo volatilization. The vulcanization is the process of rubber in presence of sulphur.

2. For heavy cutting, the effective lubricants are _________
a) coconut oils
b) cutting oils
c) kerosene
d) diesel
Answer: b
Clarification: The cutting oils are most suitable oils for heavy cutting. The lubricants contain the additives like fatty oils and sulphurized fatty oils and chlorinated compounds.

3. The reduction in friction is only when _________ of the oil film is __________ than that of the metal.
a) shear strength, more
b) shear strain, less
c) shear strain, more
d) shear strength, less
Answer: d
Clarification: The friction in friction is only when shear strength of the oil film must be less than the metal. This will reduce the electricity consumption.

4. The friction is needed to be reduced because _________
a) will increase the load
b) will increase the consumption electricity
c) it will be reducing the excess heat generation
d) will increase the excess the heat generation
Answer: c
Clarification: The friction is needed to be reduced because it will be reducing the excess heat generation which will improve the machine life period.

5. Oil emulsions are the most effective lubricants in _________
a) heavy cuttings
b) light cutting
c) engines
d) gears
Answer: b
Clarification: Oil emulsions are the most effective lubricants in light cuttings. The emulsions have less lubricating effects than that of cutting oils but cutting oils are good as cooling media.

6. The lubricant in internal combustion is exposed to _________
a) high pressure
b) low pressure
c) low temperature
d) high temperature
Answer: d
Clarification: The lubricant in internal combustion is exposed to high temperatures. So, the lubricant must have the high thermal stability.

7. The lubricants that are suitable for internal combustion engines must have ______ viscosity index.
a) high
b) low
c) no
d) minimum
Answer: a
Clarification: The lubricant that is used in internal combustion engines must have the high viscosity index because it is exposed very high temperatures that are produced by the engines.

8. In gears, the lubricants are exposed to _______
a) high temperature
b) high pressure
c) low temperature
d) low pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: In gears, there will be high pressure so, the lubricants are exposed to high pressure and in the high temperatures will be in internal combustion engines.

9. The lubricants for gears must possess _________
a) less oiliness
b) effected by centrifugal force
c) resistance to oxygen
d) low load carrying capacity
Answer: c
Clarification: For gears, the lubricants must have the resistance to oxygen. The oxygen reacting with metal will form rust and makes the machine damages. so; the lubricants must have resistance towards the oxygen.

10. For, delicate instruments the suitable lubricants are _________
a) light cutting oil
b) sunflower oil
c) heavy cutting oil
d) thin vegetable oil
Answer: d
Clarification: For delicate instruments, suitable lubricants are very soft ones. They may be like thin vegetable oil, palm oil etc.

11. What are the lubricants used for railway tracks?
a) graphite
b) grease
c) coconut oil
d) vegetable oil
Answer: a
Clarification: For railway tracks, the lubricants used are solid lubricants as they are exposed to sun light and must bear the other climatic conditions.

12. What is the best lubricant for tractor roller?
a) graphite
b) heavy oil
c) grease
d) vegetable oil
Answer: c
Clarification: Generally, grease is used for the tractor rollers as they are high pressure and low speed vehicles. Grease is a cheaper one.

13. The lubricants for transformers must have quality of good ________
a) dielectric strength
b) less oiliness
c) no resistance to oxygen
d) low load capacity
Answer: a
Clarification: The di electric must be good for the transformers. They are dried, washed and filtered properly and applied with lubricants.

14. In textile industries _________ are added to the lubricants.
a) catalyst
b) inhibitors
c) oxygen
d) carbon
Answer: b
Clarification: Inhibitors are the negative catalysts that are added to the thin oils which are used as lubricants. This is to improve the sped of the machine and smooth running.

15. The lubricants used in refrigerators will have ________
a) no pour point
b) high viscosity
c) high pour point
d) low cloud point
Answer: d
Clarification: Generally, napthalene and base oils are used as lubricating oils in the refrigerators. They must have the low cloud point, low pour point and low viscosity.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Fuel Cells”.

1. The process of gaining of electrons by metal ions with a discharge of metal is called __________
a) De-electronation
b) Electronation
c) Reduction
d) Cathode
Answer: a
Clarification: The process of gaining of electrons by metal ions with discharge metal is called de-electronation or oxidation or anode.

2. The anode of the galvanic cell has __________
a) Positive polarity
b) Negative polarity
c) No polarity
d) Neutral
Answer: b
Clarification: The anode of the galvanic cell has a negative polarity because the electrons leave the cell from it.

3. The e.m.f of Daniel cell is __________
a) 1.02V
b) 1.00V
c) 1.09V
d) 2V
Answer: c
Clarification: The electro motive force of the Daniel cell is 1.09V. The emf equation of the Daniel cell is given by Zn + Cu⁺⁺ → Zn⁺⁺ + Cu.

4. According to the convention, the Daniel cell is represented as ________
a) Zn l ZnSO₄ ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
b) Zn l ZnSO₄ ll Cu l CuSO₄, E = 1.09 volt
c) ZnSO₄ l Zn ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
d) Zn l ZnS ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
Answer: a
Clarification: According to the convention, the Daniel cell is represented as Zn l ZnSO₄ ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt. Here E is the emf of the cell.

5. Which of the following is the correct reaction at anode?
a) Zn→Zn⁺² + 2e^–
b) Zn→Zn⁺ + e^–
c) Cu⁺² + 2e^– → Cu
d) Cu⁺⁺ e^– → Cu
Answer: a
Clarification: The reaction at anode can be given by Zn→Zn⁺² + 2e^–. The reaction at cathode Cu⁺² + 2e^– → Cu.

6. Electronation is also called as ___________ electrode.
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Electrifying
d) Electro chemical cell
Answer: b
Clarification: Electronation is the reverse process of gaining electrons by metal ions that means reduction electrode or cathode.

7. The movement of electrons in Daniel cell is from _________ to _________
a) Zn to Cu
b) Cu to Zn
c) Zn to Ca
d) Ca to Zn
Answer: a
Clarification: The movement of the electrons in Daniel cell is from zinc to copper. It produces the current in the circuit and the net chemical change described as the cell reaction.

8. In Daniel cell, the two electrodes are separated by salt bridge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In Daniel cell the anode and cathode are separated by the salt bridge.from a solution of zinc sulphate and and copper sulphate solutions.

9. Decrease in free energy can be given by -ΔG = __________
a) nFE
b) n/FE
c) nF/E
d) F/nE
Answer: a
Clarification: Decrease in free energy can be given by -ΔG = nFE where n= valency of ion, E = emf of cell and F=faraday.

10. Generally electrode potential refers to __________
a) Reduction potential
b) Oxidation potential
c) Electron potential
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a
Clarification: Generally, the electrode potential refers to the reduction potential. The reduction potential can be expressed in terms of oxidation potential by placing negative symbol before it.

11. Electrolytes obey __________ to the some extent as metallic conductors.
a) Specific conductance
b) Ohms law
c) Molecular conductance
d) Equivalent conductance
Answer: b
Clarification: Electrolytes obey ohms law to some extent as metallic conductors. The current I flowing is equal to the ratio of electromotive force to the resistance.

12. The strength of the current is measured in terms of ___________
a) Coulombs
b) Joules
c) Amperes
d) Ohms
Answer: c
Clarification: The strength of the current is measured by amperes. The ampere is defined as the current which deposits 0.001118g of silver per second from a 15% solution of silver nitrate in a voltameter of definite directions.

13. The quantity of current passing through a conductor is expressed in terms of __________
a) Joules
b) Coulombs
c) Amperes
d) Ohms
Answer: b
Clarification: The quantity of current passing through a conductor is expressed in terms of coulombs. It is the product of current strength and time.