Category: Applied Chemistry Objective Questions

Applied Chemistry MCQs focuses on “Tidal and Wave Power – 2”.

1. Tidal power is taken from earth’s __________ tides.
a) Sea
b) Oceanic
c) Other water sources
d) River
Answer: b
Clarification: Tidal power is taken from earth’s oceanic tides. The ocean tides will serve as good energy sources. They are in good use for the generation of electricity.

2. The tidal forces are ______________ in gravitational attraction exerted by celestial bodies.
a) Aperiodic variations
b) Periodic variations
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
Answer: b
Clarification: The tidal forces are periodic variations in gravitational attraction exerted by celestial bodies. These forces create the corresponding motions or currents in the world oceans.

3. Due to ________ the bulge is created in the water level.
a) weak attraction forces
b) Vanderwals forces
c) Wave currents
d) Strong attraction forces
Answer: d
Clarification: Due to strong attraction forces, the bulge is created in the water level of the ocean bodies. These turns into the turbines to generate power.

4. The bulge in water will increase the sea level _________
a) Temporarily
b) Permanently
c) Only for seconds
d) Only for a minute
Answer: a
Clarification: The bulge in water will increase the sea level temporarily. The bulge is due to the strong attraction forces.

5. In how many types the tidal power is generated?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Clarification: The tidal power can be generated in four types. They are: 1.tidal steam generator, 2. tidal barrage method, 3. dynamic tidal power method and 4. tidal lagoon method.

6. The kinetic energy is used to make power in __________ method.
a) Tidal lagoon method
b) Dynamic tidal power
c) Tidal barrage method
d) Tidal steam generator
Answer: d
Clarification: The tidal steam generator is the method which uses the kinetic energy to generate the electricity. They use the kinetic energy of the moving water to turn turbines similar way as wind power turbines.

7. The both potential and kinetic energy is used in _________ method.
a) Dynamic tidal power
b) Tidal lagoon method
c) Tidal barrage method
d) Tidal steam generator
Answer: a
Clarification: The both potential and kinetic energies of the flowing water is used to make the power. The dynamic tidal power method uses both the methods.

8. The tidal barrage method uses kinetic energy and tidal lagoon method uses potential energy to produce electricity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The above statement is false because the tidal barrage method uses potential energy to produce the electricity and the tidal lagoon method uses the potential method as well.

9. The turbines in the tidal steam generator are placed at ___________ of water column.
a) Bottom
b) Top
c) Right side
d) Left side
Answer: a
Clarification: The turbines in the tidal steam generator are placed at bottom of the water column. These turbines can be horizontal, vertical, open or ducted.

10. The potential energy is turned into _________ energy in tidal barrage method.
a) kinetic energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Chemical energy
d) Static energy
Answer: b
Clarification: The potential difference between the high tide and low tide is utilized to produce electricity. The potential energy is turned into mechanical energy in tidal barrage method.

11. The reservoirs that are similar to the tidal barrages are created in tidal lagoon method and those are called as __________
a) Lagoons
b) Wells
c) Pots
d) Tanks
Answer: a
Clarification: In tidal lagoon method the reservoirs are similar to the tidal barrages are created. They are called as lagoons.

12. The pumping of lagoon will flatten out the _________
a) Tides
b) Power output
c) Water
d) Low tides
Answer: b
Clarification: The pumping will flatten the power output. So, the lagoons can be in double format without pumping.

13. The ___________ is used for pumping.
a) Solar energy
b) Tidal energy
c) Wind energy
d) Static energy
Answer: a
Clarification: The solar energy is used for pumping. The four turbines are placed at the area with high tidal movements.

To practice MCQs on all areas of Applied Chemistry,

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Principles of Green Chemistry”.

1. The principles of green chemistry include eliminating ________ treatments.
a) Costly
b) Harmful
c) Hard
d) Easy
Answer: a
Clarification: The principles of green chemistry include eliminating costly treatments. It makes the reactions with less cost and no toxic materials.

2. One of the principles of green chemistry says that to produce _______ goods.
a) Harmful
b) Commercial
c) Safer
d) Most used
Answer: c
Clarification: One of the principles of green chemistry says that the produced goods must be safe. That means the goods must be not harmful for environment.

3. After the use of chemicals, we must ______ them properly.
a) Use
b) Reuse
c) Dispose
d) Store
Answer: c
Clarification: After the use of chemicals, we must dispose them properly. The empty chemical containers should not be reused because they are toxic and if they are not disposed properly, they create the environmental pollution.

4. Green chemistry applies across the __________ of a chemical product like design, manufacture and use.
a) Life cycle
b) Properties
c) Uses
d) Efficiency
Answer: a
Clarification: Green chemistry applies across the life cycle of a chemical product like design, manufacture and use. It says that manufacturing should be done without any pollution.

5. We must use feedstock derived from annually renewable resources or from _______
a) Chemicals
b) Organic compounds
c) Abundant waste
d) Plants
Answer: c
Clarification: We must use feedstock derived from annually renewable resources or from abundant wastes. The wastes are utilised back.

6. Green chemistry improves __________ of chemical manufacturers.
a) Competitiveness
b) Easiness of production
c) Services
d) Chemicals
Answer: a
Clarification: Green chemistry improves competitiveness of chemical manufacturers. The products are of low cost and good quality. So, it improves the competition.

7. It reduces the use of _________
a) liquid fuels
b) Energy
c) Gaseous fuels
d) Solid fuels
Answer: b
Clarification: It reduces the use of the energy. The less consumption of energy also reduces the cost of production. So, the product will be available at low costs.

8. It reduces the ______ and protects the environment.
a) Pollution
b) Temperature
c) Air
d) Water
Answer: a
Clarification: It reduces pollution and protects the environment. By green synthesis, the products that are non-hazards to the nature are produced. So, no pollution takes place.

9. According to the green chemistry, the chemical involved in the production must be ________
a) Non toxic
b) Toxic
c) Highly toxic
d) Produces the toxic by products
Answer: a
Clarification: According to the green chemistry, the chemical involved in the production must be nontoxic.

10. The green synthesis methods should have _________
a) Low efficiency
b) High harmful products
c) Low energy requirements
d) Low atom efficiency
Answer: c
Clarification: The green synthesis methods should have high efficiency, less harmful products, low energy requirements and high atom efficiency.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Selection of Lubricants”.

1. A high temperature lubricants used may undergo ________
a) vulcanization
b) volatilization
c) lubrication
d) combustion
Answer: b
Clarification: A high temperature lubricants used may undergo volatilization. The vulcanization is the process of rubber in presence of sulphur.

2. For heavy cutting, the effective lubricants are _________
a) coconut oils
b) cutting oils
c) kerosene
d) diesel
Answer: b
Clarification: The cutting oils are most suitable oils for heavy cutting. The lubricants contain the additives like fatty oils and sulphurized fatty oils and chlorinated compounds.

3. The reduction in friction is only when _________ of the oil film is __________ than that of the metal.
a) shear strength, more
b) shear strain, less
c) shear strain, more
d) shear strength, less
Answer: d
Clarification: The friction in friction is only when shear strength of the oil film must be less than the metal. This will reduce the electricity consumption.

4. The friction is needed to be reduced because _________
a) will increase the load
b) will increase the consumption electricity
c) it will be reducing the excess heat generation
d) will increase the excess the heat generation
Answer: c
Clarification: The friction is needed to be reduced because it will be reducing the excess heat generation which will improve the machine life period.

5. Oil emulsions are the most effective lubricants in _________
a) heavy cuttings
b) light cutting
c) engines
d) gears
Answer: b
Clarification: Oil emulsions are the most effective lubricants in light cuttings. The emulsions have less lubricating effects than that of cutting oils but cutting oils are good as cooling media.

6. The lubricant in internal combustion is exposed to _________
a) high pressure
b) low pressure
c) low temperature
d) high temperature
Answer: d
Clarification: The lubricant in internal combustion is exposed to high temperatures. So, the lubricant must have the high thermal stability.

7. The lubricants that are suitable for internal combustion engines must have ______ viscosity index.
a) high
b) low
c) no
d) minimum
Answer: a
Clarification: The lubricant that is used in internal combustion engines must have the high viscosity index because it is exposed very high temperatures that are produced by the engines.

8. In gears, the lubricants are exposed to _______
a) high temperature
b) high pressure
c) low temperature
d) low pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: In gears, there will be high pressure so, the lubricants are exposed to high pressure and in the high temperatures will be in internal combustion engines.

9. The lubricants for gears must possess _________
a) less oiliness
b) effected by centrifugal force
c) resistance to oxygen
d) low load carrying capacity
Answer: c
Clarification: For gears, the lubricants must have the resistance to oxygen. The oxygen reacting with metal will form rust and makes the machine damages. so; the lubricants must have resistance towards the oxygen.

10. For, delicate instruments the suitable lubricants are _________
a) light cutting oil
b) sunflower oil
c) heavy cutting oil
d) thin vegetable oil
Answer: d
Clarification: For delicate instruments, suitable lubricants are very soft ones. They may be like thin vegetable oil, palm oil etc.

11. What are the lubricants used for railway tracks?
a) graphite
b) grease
c) coconut oil
d) vegetable oil
Answer: a
Clarification: For railway tracks, the lubricants used are solid lubricants as they are exposed to sun light and must bear the other climatic conditions.

12. What is the best lubricant for tractor roller?
a) graphite
b) heavy oil
c) grease
d) vegetable oil
Answer: c
Clarification: Generally, grease is used for the tractor rollers as they are high pressure and low speed vehicles. Grease is a cheaper one.

13. The lubricants for transformers must have quality of good ________
a) dielectric strength
b) less oiliness
c) no resistance to oxygen
d) low load capacity
Answer: a
Clarification: The di electric must be good for the transformers. They are dried, washed and filtered properly and applied with lubricants.

14. In textile industries _________ are added to the lubricants.
a) catalyst
b) inhibitors
c) oxygen
d) carbon
Answer: b
Clarification: Inhibitors are the negative catalysts that are added to the thin oils which are used as lubricants. This is to improve the sped of the machine and smooth running.

15. The lubricants used in refrigerators will have ________
a) no pour point
b) high viscosity
c) high pour point
d) low cloud point
Answer: d
Clarification: Generally, napthalene and base oils are used as lubricating oils in the refrigerators. They must have the low cloud point, low pour point and low viscosity.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Fuel Cells”.

1. The process of gaining of electrons by metal ions with a discharge of metal is called __________
a) De-electronation
b) Electronation
c) Reduction
d) Cathode
Answer: a
Clarification: The process of gaining of electrons by metal ions with discharge metal is called de-electronation or oxidation or anode.

2. The anode of the galvanic cell has __________
a) Positive polarity
b) Negative polarity
c) No polarity
d) Neutral
Answer: b
Clarification: The anode of the galvanic cell has a negative polarity because the electrons leave the cell from it.

3. The e.m.f of Daniel cell is __________
a) 1.02V
b) 1.00V
c) 1.09V
d) 2V
Answer: c
Clarification: The electro motive force of the Daniel cell is 1.09V. The emf equation of the Daniel cell is given by Zn + Cu⁺⁺ → Zn⁺⁺ + Cu.

4. According to the convention, the Daniel cell is represented as ________
a) Zn l ZnSO₄ ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
b) Zn l ZnSO₄ ll Cu l CuSO₄, E = 1.09 volt
c) ZnSO₄ l Zn ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
d) Zn l ZnS ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt
Answer: a
Clarification: According to the convention, the Daniel cell is represented as Zn l ZnSO₄ ll CuSO₄ l Cu, E = 1.09 volt. Here E is the emf of the cell.

5. Which of the following is the correct reaction at anode?
a) Zn→Zn⁺² + 2e^–
b) Zn→Zn⁺ + e^–
c) Cu⁺² + 2e^– → Cu
d) Cu⁺⁺ e^– → Cu
Answer: a
Clarification: The reaction at anode can be given by Zn→Zn⁺² + 2e^–. The reaction at cathode Cu⁺² + 2e^– → Cu.

6. Electronation is also called as ___________ electrode.
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Electrifying
d) Electro chemical cell
Answer: b
Clarification: Electronation is the reverse process of gaining electrons by metal ions that means reduction electrode or cathode.

7. The movement of electrons in Daniel cell is from _________ to _________
a) Zn to Cu
b) Cu to Zn
c) Zn to Ca
d) Ca to Zn
Answer: a
Clarification: The movement of the electrons in Daniel cell is from zinc to copper. It produces the current in the circuit and the net chemical change described as the cell reaction.

8. In Daniel cell, the two electrodes are separated by salt bridge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In Daniel cell the anode and cathode are separated by the salt bridge.from a solution of zinc sulphate and and copper sulphate solutions.

9. Decrease in free energy can be given by -ΔG = __________
a) nFE
b) n/FE
c) nF/E
d) F/nE
Answer: a
Clarification: Decrease in free energy can be given by -ΔG = nFE where n= valency of ion, E = emf of cell and F=faraday.

10. Generally electrode potential refers to __________
a) Reduction potential
b) Oxidation potential
c) Electron potential
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a
Clarification: Generally, the electrode potential refers to the reduction potential. The reduction potential can be expressed in terms of oxidation potential by placing negative symbol before it.

11. Electrolytes obey __________ to the some extent as metallic conductors.
a) Specific conductance
b) Ohms law
c) Molecular conductance
d) Equivalent conductance
Answer: b
Clarification: Electrolytes obey ohms law to some extent as metallic conductors. The current I flowing is equal to the ratio of electromotive force to the resistance.

12. The strength of the current is measured in terms of ___________
a) Coulombs
b) Joules
c) Amperes
d) Ohms
Answer: c
Clarification: The strength of the current is measured by amperes. The ampere is defined as the current which deposits 0.001118g of silver per second from a 15% solution of silver nitrate in a voltameter of definite directions.

13. The quantity of current passing through a conductor is expressed in terms of __________
a) Joules
b) Coulombs
c) Amperes
d) Ohms
Answer: b
Clarification: The quantity of current passing through a conductor is expressed in terms of coulombs. It is the product of current strength and time.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Natural Rubber”.

1. The polymers which possess the property of elastic is called rubber.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The polymers which possess the property of elastic is called the rubber. Temporary deformation takes place.

2. The temporary deformation of rubber takes place after applying the _______ stress.
a) 600e.u
b) More than 600e.u
c) 500e.u
d) more than 500e.u
Answer: b
Clarification: The temporary deformation of the rubber takes place after applying the stress around more than 600e.u. when the stress is applied the chains get partially aligns with respect to the other.

3. The elasticity of the rubber is due to its ___________
a) Trigonal planar
b) Octahedral
c) Pentagonal bipyramidal
d) Helix
Answer: d
Clarification: The elasticity of the rubber is due to its helical structure. On releasing the stress, the chains get reverted back to their original coiled state.

4. Isoprene in natural rubber exists in ___________ geometrical isomeric forms.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Clarification: Isoprene in natural rubber exists in two geometrical isomeric forms. They are cis-isoprene and trans-isoprene.

5. Cis-poly isoprene is present in ________
a) Hevea rubber
b) Guayule rubber
c) Percha rubber
d) Gutta rubber
Answer: a
Clarification: Cis-poly isoprene is present in the Hevea rubber and the trans-poly isoprene is present in guayule rubber and percha rubber.

6. The latex is diluted to _________ and filtered to remove suspended impurities.
a) 5-10%
b) 10-15%
c) 15-20%
d) 20-25%
Answer: c
Clarification: The latex is diluted to 15-20% and filtered to remove suspended impurities like pieces of bark, leaves etc.

7. The filtered latex is sent into the tanks and treated with __________
a) Acetic acid
b) Formaldehyde
c) Acetaldehyde
d) Poly isoprene
Answer: a
Clarification: The filtered latex is sent into the tanks and treated with the acetic acid. Instead of acetic acid, sometimes we can also use the formic acid.

8. The rubber coagulates into soft _________ colour mass.
a) Yellow
b) Light yellow
c) White
d) Light pink
Answer: c
Clarification: The rubber coagulates into soft white colour mass which is called as coagulam and then filtered and washed with water.

9. While producing the crepe rubber, the coagulam is passed between two rollers of about _________ wide.
a) 3mm
b) 4mm
c) 50cm
d) 100cm
Answer: c
Clarification: The coagulam is passed in between the two rollers of about 3mm apart and 50cm wide and extruded in the form of a sheet which resemble the crepe paper, which possess rough surface.

10. While producing the smoked rubber, the filtered latex is fed into long rectangular tanks of _________ deep.
a) 1m
b) 2m
c) 50cm
d) 30cm
Answer: d
Clarification: In one type of processing the filtered latex is fed into long rectangular tanks of 30cm deep and 1m wide.

11. While producing smoked rubber, the latex and reacted with formic acid, the vertical partition plates are inserted and left undisturbed for _________
a) 13 hours
b) 14 hours
c) 15 hours
d) 16 hours
Answer: d
Clarification: After introducing the latex and reacted with formic acid, the vertical partition plates are inserted and left undisturbed for 16 hours.

12. While producing the smoked rubber, the sheets are hanged for about _________ in smoked chambers.
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 4 days
Answer: d
Clarification: While producing the smoked rubber, the sheets are hanged for about 4 days in smoked chambers. The final roller gives ribbed pattern to the rubber sheet.

13. To produce the smoked rubber, the rubber sheets are hanged in smoked chambers at __________
a) 10-20^oC
b) 20-30^oC
c) 30-40^oC
d) 40-50^oC
Answer: d
Clarification: To produce the smoked rubber, the rubber sheets are hanged in smoked chambers at 40-50^oC for four days.

14. Solvent extraction process is used to extract __________
a) Crepe rubber
b) Smoked rubber
c) Gutta percha
d) Guayule rubber
Answer: c
Clarification: Solvent extraction process is the method of extracting the gutta percha. It is extracted from the matured leaves of the palagum gutta and dichopsis gutta.

15. In solvent extraction process, the mature leaves are grounded and heated about _________
a) 40^oC
b) 50^oC
c) 60^oC
d) 70^oC
Answer: d
Clarification: In solvent extraction process, the mature leaves are grounded and heated about 70^oC. It is heated along with water.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Tidal and Wave Power – 1”.

1. Tidal energy is a form of ________
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Heat energy
d) Hydro power
Answer: d
Clarification: Tidal power is also called as tidal energy. It is a form of hydro power. It converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power mainly into electricity.

2. Tidal energy has ________ for future electricity generation.
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential
c) Wind power
d) Solar power
Answer: b
Clarification: Tidal energy has the potential for future electricity generation. Tidal are more predictable than wind energy and solar power.

3. Which of the following is the best form of energy that can be used at any time?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Heat energy
Answer: c
Clarification: The wind energy and solar energy are the most uncertain sources. The solar energy can not be taken when it is cloudy and the wind cannot be blown all the time. So, the tidal energy can be drawn any time.

4. The worlds large scale tidal power plant is __________
a) Rance tidal power plant
b) Uldolmok tidal power plant
c) Kislaya guba tidal power plant
d) Jiangxia tidal power plant
Answer: a
Clarification: The worlds largest tidal power plant is Rance tidal power plant. It is located at France. The Uldolmok tidal power plant is located at south Korea.

5. The oceanic tides are due to __________
a) Heavy Winds
b) Slight earth quakes
c) Water force
d) Gravitational interaction
Answer: d
Clarification: The oceanic tides are due to the gravitational interaction. The gravitational interaction is with the sun and moon and also due to earth’s rotation.

6. Tidal power is practically _________
a) Exhaustible
b) Inexhaustible
c) Not possible
d) Complicated
Answer: b
Clarification: The tidal power is practically inexhaustible. The oceanic tides exist at any time and their occurance is certain and most predictable.

7. Movement of tides causes the loss of _________ in earth moon system.
a) Static energy
b) Frictional energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Kinetic energy
Answer: c
Clarification: Movement of tides causes the loss of the mechanical friction in earth moon system. It is due to the pumping of water through natural restrictions around the coastal line and consequent viscous dissipation at the sea bed.

8. The loss of mechanical energy due to movement of tides in earth moon system causes the rotation of earth _______
a) Slow
b) Fast
c) Very fast
d) Remains same
Answer: a
Clarification: The loss of mechanical energy due to the movement of tides in earth moon system causes the rotation of earth slow in a couple of years after its formation.

9. The slow down of earth’s rotation due to the loss of mechanical energy of earth moon system is since _______ years from earth’s formation.
a) 1 billion
b) 2.5 billion
c) 3.5 billion
d) 4.5 billion
Answer: d
Clarification: The earth’s rotation is slow down due to the loss of mechanical energy of earth moon system. It is slowed down after 4.5 billion years after its formation.

10. During the last 620 billion years, the earth’s period of rotation is ________ than that of the rotation of earth since its formation.
a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Very faster
d) No change
Answer: b
Clarification: As we already came to know that the earth’s rotation was slowed down after 4.5 billion years from its formation. So, for every 4.5 billion years the earth’s rotation slows down more.