Category: Applied Chemistry Objective Questions

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Neutralization/Acidic Number”.

1. Acid number of a lubricating oil is _________ required to neutralise all acidic constituents of 1 g of oil.
a) Mgs of KOH
b) Mgs of K₂SO₄
c) Mgs of NaOH
d) Mgs of Na₂SO₄
Answer: a
Clarification: Acid number of lubricating oil is defined as the mgs of KOH required to neutralise the all acidic constituents of 1g of oil. So, it is also called as the neutralisation number.

2. The fatty oils mostly constitute _________
a) Glycerine
b) Glycol
c) Ethanol
d) Glycerol
Answer: d
Clarification: The fatty acids constitute most of the part with glycerol. It also has the esters of higher fatty acids as the next major constituents. In some cases, we can also observe that a notable amount of free acids are also present in fatty acids.

3. The acid content ______ with time.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: b
Clarification: The acid content will be increasing with time because as the time goes on the chemical reaction takes place and the number of H+ ions increases with increase in time. So, the acid content also increases with time.

4. Periodic determination of acid number is useful to indicate the progress of ________
a) Oxidation number
b) Reduction number
c) Acidic number
d) Neutralisation number
Answer: a
Clarification: The periodic determination of the acid number is useful to indicate the progress of oxidation number. The age of the oil is determined by the increase in acid number with time due to hydrolysis with moisture.

5. The acid value of the lubricating oil is must be less than _______
a) 7
b) 0.7
c) 1
d) 0.1
Answer: d
Clarification: The acid value of the lubricating oils must be always less than that of the 0.1. It is because the acid value changes the progress of the oxidation number and hydrolysis rate and moisture content. Based on which we have to replace the lubricating oil.

6. The unblended petroleum oils must have ______ neutralisation values.
a) Very high
b) Very low
c) Negligible
d) Zero
Answer: b
Clarification: The neutralisation values of the unblended petroleum oils will be very low. The neutralisation values of the unblended petroleum oils ranges from 0.02 to 0.1. Values higher than this indicate faulty refining.

7. Compounded oils have higher neutralisation values.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Compounded oils are also called as blended oils. The unblended oils have very less neutralisation number. It is about 0.02 to 0.1. The blended or compounded oils have very high neutralisation number.

8. The higher values of blended oils is because of the presence of ___________
a) Catalyst
b) Salts
c) Additives
d) Reagents
Answer: c
Clarification: The high values of neutralisation of blended oils are because of the presence of the additives. The additives present in the oiliness carriers, oxidation and corrosion inhibitors, etc.

9. The neutralisation number is increased due to _________
a) Pureness
b) Contamination
c) Hydrolysis
d) Catalysis
Answer:b
Clarification: The neutralisation number is increased due to the contamination as the oil is used. Examples are sulphur dioxide on combustion of sulphur, carbondioxide on combustion of carbon or present in the atmosphere.

10. Darkening of the oil colour takes place due to ________
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Hydrolysis
d) Catalysis
Answer: a
Clarification: The darkening of the oil colour is due to the oxidation. On oxidation the formation of all soluble alcohols, ketones, acids and peroxides are produced. There by increasing the acid number, viscosity and darkening of the oil colour.

11. The neutralisation number cannot give the __________ of the lubricating oil.
a) Corrosive nature
b) Amount of acid
c) Amount of base
d) Moisture level
Answer: a
Clarification: The neutralisation number gives about the amount of acid present in lubricating oil, amount of base present in the lubricating oil, amount of moisture present in the lubricating oil. It cannot give about of the source of the oil and the corrosive nature of the oil.

12. The total acid number of an oil is given by __________
a) Acid value = (volume of 0.1N KOH taken*56)/(weight of oil used)
b) Acid value = (volume of 0.01N KOH used*56)/(weight of oil taken)
c) Acid value = (volume of 0.1N KOH used*56)/(weight of oil taken)
d) Acid value = (volume of 0.01N KOH taken*56)/(weight of oil used)
Answer: c
Clarification: The total acid number of an oil is given by Acid value= (volume of 0.1N KOH used*56)/(weight of oil taken), where the 0.1 is the maximum value of the oil and 56 is the molecular weight of the KOH.

13. The corrosion problems are caused by _________ in lubricating oil.
a) Potassium chloride
b) Naphthenic acid
c) Sodium chloride
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: b
Clarification: The corrosion problems are due to the presence of the naphthenic acid that is why the acid number alone cannot give about the corrosion nature as it cannot give about the amount of naphthenic acid present.

14. The other parameters apart from the acid number can also determine by the process _______
a) Potentiometer titration
b) Colour indicating titration
c) Spectroscopic methods
d) Catalysis
Answer: c
Clarification: The other parameters apart from the acid number also given by the spectroscopic methods. The potentiometer titration and colour indicating titrations are used to deduce only the acid number.

15. In potentiometric titration, the sample is dissolved in _____ and ______
a) Toulene, propanol
b) Toulene and phenolphthalein
c) Toulene and phenol
d) Toulene and benzene
Answer: a
Clarification: In potentiometric titration, the sample is generally dissolved in the toulene and propanol with little water and then titrated with the alcoholic potassium hydroxide. A glass electrode and reference electrode is immersed in the sample.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Solid Fuels”.

1. One of the advantages of solid fuel is _________
a) low calorific value
b) requirement of excess air
c) ash formation
d) ease of transport
Answer: d
Clarification: Solid fuels can be transported very easily when compared to liquids and gaseous. Gaseous fuels are very difficult to carry as they escape easily and highly inflammable.

2. One of the disadvantages of solid fuel is _________
a) clinker formation
b) moderate ignition temperature
c) storage
d) transportation
Answer: a
Clarification: The clinker formation is the main disadvantage of solid fuels. They can be stored easily and transportation is also easy and having the moderate ignition temperature is also an advantage as we can control the rate of combustion.

3. _______ are used as rocket propellants in olden days.
a) solid fuels
b) liquid fuels
c) petroleum
d) gaseous fuels
Answer: a
Clarification: Solid fuels are used in rocket fuels. Gun powder is the main solid fuels that is mostly used in the rockets in the early stages but now we are using mostly liquid fuels as they have more efficiency than solid fuels.

4. Most available form of solid fuel is _________
a) coal
b) wood
c) petrol
d) lignite
Answer: b
Clarification: The most available form of solid fuel is wood. Wood is obtained from the trees and when trees die and decomposed for years through is called coal.

5. For the generation of electricity, which source is used largely throughout the world?
a) coal
b) hydro power
c) wood
d) solar energy
Answer: a
Clarification: Coal is the most used resource to generate electricity. Nearly 92% of the coal is used to produce electricity. The other resources like hydro power and solar energy are also used but in small amounts.

6. The formation of coal is explained by ________
a) ex-situ theory
b) in-situ theory
c) molecular theory
d) nuclear theory
Answer: b
Clarification: The in-situ theory explains the formation of coal. It is also explained by drift theory. According to in-situ theory, the coal is formed only at the places where vegetation grew.

7. Which of the following process is correct in the process of conversion of wood into coal?
a) wood → peat → lignite → bituminous coal
b) peat → wood → lignite → bituminous coal
c) lignite → peat → wood → bituminous coal
d) wood → lignite → peat → bituminous coal
Answer: a
Clarification: The wood is converted into coal steps wise. It is in the order of wood →peat →lignite →bituminous coal. The bituminous coal is later converted into anthracite or graphite.

8. What are the main applications of lignite?
a) domestic fuel
b) railway engines
c) used for steam generation in thermal power plant
d) in vehicles
Answer: c
Clarification: In thermal power plants steam is produced using lignite. It is also used to produce the producer gas. The calorific value of lignite is 6500-7100.

9. Lignite is also called as __________
a) black coal
b) brown coal
c) char coal
d) crude oil
Answer: b
Clarification: Lignite is also called as brown coal. Char coal is used for domestic purposes and it is different from lignite.

10. Which of the following fuels has the highest calorific value?
a) lignite
b) wood
c) bituminous
d) anthracite
Answer: d
Clarification: Anthracite has the calorific value 8650-8700k.cal/kg as the highest one. The calorific values of the others are as follows:
Wood-4000-4500k.cal/kg
Bituminous-8000-8500k.cal/kg
Lignite-6500-7100k.cal/kg.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Types of Water Pollutants and Effects”.

1. ___________ poisoning water in Japan is from fishes.
a) Bismuth
b) Arsenic
c) Antimony
d) Palladium
Answer: b
Clarification: The arsenic poisoning water in Japan is from fishes where the industrial effluent was going into the sea containing arsenic.

2. Fishes can store more quantity of ___________ in their bodies.
a) Mercury
b) Bismuth
c) Palladium
d) Chlorine
Answer: a
Clarification: Fishes can store more quantity of mercury. They can also store lead and arsenic in their bodies.

3. Waste water released from _________ are not the sources of bacteria.
a) Sanitaria
b) Municipalities
c) Tanning
d) Industries
Answer: d
Clarification: Waste water released from the sanitarias, municipalities, tanning and slaughtering plants are the sources of the bacteria.

4. Bacteria and micro organisms present in the water will cause _________ in human and animals.
a) Indigestion
b) Intestinal tract
c) Brain tumour
d) Cancer
Answer: b
Clarification: Bacteria and micro organisms present in the water will cause intestinal tract. The infected individual has the intestinal discharge containing the billions of pathogens.

5. Infectious hepatitis is caused by ___________
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Helminth
Answer: b
Clarification: The infectious hepatitis is caused by viruses. The viruses in water also cause the poliomyelitis disease.

6. Amoebic dysentery is caused by ___________
a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Helminth
d) Protozoa
Answer: d
Clarification: Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoa present in the drinking water. In this disease, the water content from the body is lost and the person will become weak.

7. Bacteria in water causes ________
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Dengue
d) Chicken guinea
Answer: b
Clarification: Bacteria in water causes the typhoid. This includes a high fever for the person. Bacteria in water also cause the cholera.

8. Helminth in the water causes __________
a) Hook worm
b) Amoebic dysentery
c) Cholera
d) Typhoid
Answer: a
Clarification: Helminth in the water causes the hook worm and also the guinea worm in the person. Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoa and cholera and typhoid is caused by the bacteria in water.

9. The ____________ is an important requirement of the aquatic life.
a) Dissolved nitrogen
b) Dissolved chlorine
c) Dissolved oxygen
d) Dissolved methane
Answer: c
Clarification: The dissolved oxygen is an important requirement of the aquatic life. They take oxygen from the water to survive.

10. The optimum value in natural water is ________
a) 2-4ppm
b) 4-7ppm
c) 4-6ppm
d) 2-7ppm
Answer: c
Clarification: The optimum value in natural water is about 4-6ppm. Decrease in the quantity of the dissolved water indicates the pollution of water.

11. What is the full form of BOD?
a) Biochemical oxygen demand
b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Biometric oxygen deep water
d) Biological oxygen deep water
Answer: a
Clarification: The BOD is the full form biochemical oxygen demand. The amount of oxygen is taken as the measure of the quantity of organic matter is called as the BOD.

12. COD is the short form of the chemical oxygen demand.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: COD is the short form of the chemical oxygen demand. The total organic content present in water is determined in another parameter called COD.

13. The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the _________ in water.
a) Nitrogen depletion
b) Chlorine depletion
c) Oxygen depletion
d) Ozone depletion
Answer: c
Clarification: The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the depletion of the oxygen in the water. Micro organisms mainly bacteria uses the organic matter in water as food.

14. The decomposition of the matter produces into ___________ and in presence of ____________
a) Carbondioxide and oxygen
b) Oxygen and nitrogen
c) Nitrogen and carbondioxide
d) Nitrogen and chlorine
Answer: a
Clarification: The decomposition of the matter produces into carbondioxide and in the presence of oxygen. Oxygen is taken from the water.

15. The organic matter present in the water is of __________ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Clarification: The organic matter present in the water is of two types. They are biologically oxidisable and biologically inert.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Methods of Polymerization”.

1. How many types of methods of polymerization are there?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Clarification: There are two types of methods of polymerization. They are: 1. Emulsion polymerization and 2. suspension polymerization.

2. Emulsion polymerization is a type of polymerization that occurs in emulsion droplets called __________
a) Emulsified droplets
b) Micelle
c) Emulsifying droplets
d) Emulsifier droplets
Answer: b
Clarification: Emulsion polymerization is a type of polymerization that occurs in emulsion droplets called micelle.

3. A monomer is dispersed in a solution of_________ and ____________ forming the relatively large droplets of monomer.
a) Micelle, water
b) Surfactant, alcohol
c) Surfactant, vinegar
d) Surfactant, water
Answer: d
Clarification: A monomer is dispersed in a solution of surfactant and water. So, that it forms the large droplets of monomer in water.. This is due to the micelle.

4. Excess surfactant in water creates ___________
a) Micelle
b) Monomer
c) Emulsifying agent
d) Emulsifier
Answer: a
Clarification: Excess surfactant in water creates the micelle in water. Hydrophilic part of the surfactant molecule faces outside towards water forming a droplet entrapping the monomer.

5. A water _____________ initiator is introduced into the water phase.
a) Soluble
b) Insoluble
c) Partially soluble
d) Neither soluble nor insoluble
Answer: a
Clarification: A water soluble initiator is introduced into the water phase. The initiator then diffuses through water into the micelle.

6. The concentration of the micelle is measured as __________
a) Micelle concentration
b) Critical micelle concentration
c) Critical concentration
d) Monomer concentration
Answer: b
Clarification: Th concentration of the micelle is measured as the critical micelle concentration(CMC). It should be more for the efficient polymerisation.

7. The emulsion polymerisation can be mainly for the typical monomers which undergo ____________
a) Ziegler-natta polymerisation
b) Condensation polymerisation
c) Chain radical polymerisation
d) Co-ordination polymerisation
Answer: c
Clarification: The emulsion polymerisation is the method applied to the typical monomers that undergoes the chain radical polymerisation. The co-ordination polymerisation and the Ziegler-natta polymerisation are same.

8. Which of the following do not synthesized by the emulsion polymerisation?
a) Teflon
b) BUNA -S
c) Polystyrene
d) Polyvinyl chloride
Answer: d
Clarification: The polyvinyl chloride is not synthesized using the emulsion polymerisation. It is produced by the suspension polymerisation method.

9. The initiators used in the emulsion polymerisation is __________
a) Dibenzyl peroxide
b) Per-sulphates
c) n-hexane
d) Silica nano particles
Answer: b
Clarification: The The initiators used in the emulsion polymerisation method must be soluble in water. Some of the water soluble chemicals that can be used as initiators are per-sulphates and peroxides.

10. The final product can directly used for fabrication in emulsion polymerisation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The final product can be used as directly for fabrication in emulsion polymerisation. It is one of the advantages. High molecular weight polymers can be produced.

11. Which of the following can be produced using suspension polymerisation?
a) Poly methyl methacrylate
b) BUNA -S
c) Teflon
d) Polyethylene
Answer: a
Clarification: The poly methyl methacrylate, polyvinyl chloride and high impact polystyrene can be produced by using the suspension polymerisation.

12. Depending on the morphology of the particles, the suspension polymerisation is carried out in ______ types.
a) Five
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two
Answer: d
Clarification: Depending on the morphology of the particles, the suspension polymerisation is carried out in two types. They are bead polymerisation and powder polymerisation.

13. which of the following is not used as stabilizers in the suspension polymerisation?
a) Silica nano particles
b) n-Hexane
c) Heptane
d) n-isopropylacrylamidein
Answer: c
Clarification: Heptane is not used as stabilizers in the suspension polymerisation. Silica nano particles, n-Hexane and n-isopropylacrylamidein are used as the stabilizers in suspension polymerisation.

14. The heat obtained during the process of suspension polymerisation is _________
a) Uncontrolled
b) Controlled
c) Moderate
d) Partially controlled
Answer: b
Clarification: One of the advantages of the suspension polymerisation is heat control and the polymer beads can be separated easily.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Sol-Gel Method and Chemical Reduction Method”.

1. Sol-gel method is ________ approach.
a) Bottom up
b) Up bottom
c) Top down
d) Down top
Answer: a
Clarification: Sol-gel method is the bottom up approach for synthesis of nano materials. This process is mainly used to synthesize the nano materials.

2. Sol-gel method is known since ____________
a) 1970
b) 1960
c) 1980
d) 1990
Answer: c
Clarification: Sol-gel method is known since 1980s. The technic is rediscovered in early 1970s when the glasses were produced without high temperature melting processes.

3. The sol-gel is a __________ of solid particle.
a) Sublimation
b) Melting
c) Colloidal suspension
d) Cool down
Answer: c
Clarification: The sol-gel process is a colloidal suspension of the solid particles. It is also called as the molecular suspension of solid particles of ions in a solvent.

4. The gel is a ___________ mass.
a) Heavy molecular
b) Semi regid
c) Regid
d) Light molecular
Answer: b
Clarification: The gel is a semi regid mass. It is formed when the solvent form sol begins to evaporate and particles or ions left behind being to join together in a continuous network.

5. Sol-gel method is ________ chemical process.
a) Dry
b) Wet
c) Semi liquid
d) Semi solid
Answer: b
Clarification: Sol-gel method is the wet chemical process. It uses a sol to produce an integrated network that is called as formation of gel.

6. __________ undergo hydrolysis and poly condensation reactions.
a) Metal ions
b) Metal carbonates
c) Metal nitrates
d) Metal oxides
Answer: d
Clarification: Metal oxides or metal chlorides undergo hydrolysis and poly condensation reactions to form a collide which is a system composed of nano particles dispersed in a solvent.

7. The solvent evolves towards the formation of an inorganic continuous network containing a ___________
a) Gaseous phase
b) Gel
c) Solid phase
d) Semi solid phase
Answer: b
Clarification: The solvent evolves towards the formation of an inorganic continuous network containing a gel. It also may be in liquid phase.

8. Formation of an inorganic continuous network containing the metal centres with _________
a) Azo
b) Oxo
c) Nitro
d) Hydro
Answer: b
Clarification: Formation of an inorganic continuous network containing the metal centres with Oxo(M-O-M) or else it can be hydroxo(M-OH-M).

9. After drying process the liquid phase is removed from the gel and ___________ is performed.
a) Calcination
b) De-oxygenation
c) Oxygenation
d) Hydrogenation
Answer: a
Clarification: After drying process the liquid phase is removed from the gel and calcination is performed in order to enhance the mechanical properties. Alcohol is used as a solvent.

10. One of the advantages of sol-gel method is able to get uniform and _________ powder.
a) Micro size
b) Large size
c) Nano size
d) Small size
Answer: d
Clarification: One of the advantages of sol-gel method is able to get uniform and small size powder. Another advantage of sol-gel method is to get new micro structure and composition at low temperature.

11. Sol-gel method can produce __________ systems.
a) Uniform multi component
b) Non uniform multi component
c) Multi component
d) Non uniform multi component
Answer: a
Clarification: Sol-gel method can produce uniform multi component systems. Better control over the reactions is one of the advantages of sol-gel method.

12. Metal nano particles particularly _____________ nano particles are prepared by the chemical reduction method.
a) Silver
b) Gold
c) Platinum
d) Tungsten
Answer: a
Clarification: Metal nano particles particularly silver nano particles are prepared by the chemical reduction method. This method is also belongs to bottom up approach.

13. The ___________ and citrate solution are used as reducing agents in chemical reduction method.
a) Hydrazine hydrate
b) Hydrazine
c) Hydrazone
d) Semi carbazene
Answer: a
Clarification: The hydrazine hydrate and citrate solution are used as reducing agents in chemical reduction method. The hydrazine hydrate is of 2-12ppm and citrate solution of 1ppm is used.

14. To remove the excess silver ions the solution is washed with _________ under nitrogen stream.
a) Heavy water
b) Mineral water
c) Deioniser water
d) Impure water
Answer: c
Clarification: To remove the excess silver ions the solution is washed with deioniser water under nitrogen stream. This process must be done three times.

15. The transparent colourless solution solution is changed into pale yellow from ___________ in chemical reduction method.
a) pale blue
b) Purple
c) Pale red
d) Dark brown
Answer: c
Clarification: The transparent colourless solution is changed into pale yellow from pale red in the chemical reduction method. Later the dried powder of nano powder of nano silver is obtained by freeze drying.

Applied Chemistry Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Viscosity and Viscosity Index – 2”.

1. Redwood viscometer no1 is used to find the viscosity of the _________ liquids.
a) High viscous
b) Low viscous
c) Moderate viscous
d) No viscous
Answer: b
Clarification: The redwood viscometer no1 is used to find out the viscosity of the low viscous liquids. They have an efflux of 2000seconds or less. Redwood viscometer no2 is used to find the viscosity of the high viscous liquids like fuel oils.

2. What is the efflux of the redwood viscometer no2?
a) 2000
b) 20000
c) 100
d) 200
Answer: d
Clarification: The efflux of the redwood viscometer no2 is 200 seconds or less. Its jet for the outflow of the oil is having larger diameter. We can find the relative viscosities of the liquids using the redwood viscometer.

3. Test thermometer is one of the parts of the redwood viscometer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The parts of the redwood viscometer are test thermometer, bath thermometer, water inlet, oil stirrer, water bath, heating coil, metal indicator, brass oil cup, water bath stirrer blade, valve rod, water outlet, agate jet, kohlrausch flask and levelling screw.

4. The oil cup is made up of _________
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) Silver
d) Chromium
Answer: a
Clarification: The oil cup is one of the parts of the redwood viscometer. It is made up of brass. It is open at upper end. Its base is fitted with an agate jet, with the bore of diameter 1.62mm and internal length 10mm.

5. The height and diameter of the oil cup is __________ respectively.
a) 250mm, 46.5mm
b) 290mm, 46.5mm
c) 290mm, 40.5mm
d) 250mm, 40.5mm
Answer: b
Clarification: The height of the oil cup is 290mm and the diameter is about 46.5mm. The level to which the oil cup is fixed with oil is indicated by the stout wire fixed in the side of the oil cup. The wire is turned upwards and it is tapered to sharp point to indicate level properly.

6. The jet is opened or closed by ___________
a) Cup
b) Valve rod
c) Stout wire
d) Screw
Answer: b
Clarification: The jet of the redwood viscometer is opened or close by using the valve rod. The lid of the cup is provided with the spirit level for the vertical levelling of the jet.

7. The cylindrical vessel will be around the oil cup which serves as a water bath made up of __________
a) Brass
b) Chromium
c) Copper
d) Aluminium
Answer: c
Clarification: The oil cup is surrounded by a cylindrical vessel and it acts as a water bath that is made up of the copper. It is provided by a tap. The tap is used for emptying the vessel by draining the water present in it.

8. The long side tube is used to heat the water by means of ________
a) Burner
b) Spirit lamp
c) Bunsen burner
d) Candle
Answer: b
Clarification: The long side tube is projected outwards. This is used to heat the water by means of gas or spirit lamp. The copper vessel is provided with thermometer to measure the temperature of the water.

9. The water bath is provided with stirrer having ________ blades.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: The water bath is provided with a stirrer having four blades. It is provided with four blades because it helps to maintain the uniform temperature in bath to facilitate the uniform heating of the oil.

10. The entire redwood viscometer apparatus rests on _________
a) Table
b) Stand
c) Tripod stand
d) Burner
Answer: c
Clarification: The entire redwood viscometer apparatus rests on the tripod stand. It is provided with screws at the bottom. It has four legs. The screws are used for adjusting the legs for increasing or decreasing the diameter.

11. The capacity of the flask is about ___________
a) 100ml
b) 150ml
c) 50ml
d) 25ml
Answer: c
Clarification: The capacity of the flask is about 50ml. It has specific shape. Is receives the oil from the jet outlet. This flask is known as kohlrasch flask.The whole process takes place in the flask.

12. The absolute viscosity of the oil can be given as _____________
a) ŋ = k{(t₁D₂)/(t₂D₁)}
b) ŋ = k{(t₁D₂)+(t₂D₁)}
c) ŋ = k{(t₁D₂)(t₂D₁)}
d) ŋ = k{(t₁D₂)-(t₂D₁)}
Answer: a
Clarification: By performing the redwood viscometer experiment, we can know the absolute viscosity of the oils. The absolute viscosity of the oils can be given by ŋ=k{(t₁D₂)/(t₂D₁)} where, t1=time in seconds, taken for the flow of the 50 c.c of oil, t2=time in seconds, taken for the flow of 50 c.c standard oil or liquid. D1=specific gravity of the oil to be tested. D2=specific gravity of the standard liquid. K = arbitrary constant.

13. The value of the arbitrary constant K is _________ for water.
a) 1
b) 100
c) 2
d) 50
Answer: a
Clarification: The absolute viscosity of the oil after performing the experiment in redwood viscometer can be given by ŋ=k{(t1D2)/(t2D1)}. Here k is called as the arbitrary constant. The value of the arbitrary constant for water is 1. The value of the arbitrary constant for rape seed oil is 100.

14. The kinematic viscosity of the oil can be calculated by ___________
a) V = ŋ+ρ
b) V = ŋ/ρ
c) V = ŋ – ρ
d) V = ŋ*ρ
Answer: b
Clarification: The kinematic viscosity means the viscosity that determines the kinematic energy of the liquid that means it determines the speed of the oil. So, the kinematic viscosity of the oil is given by V=ŋ/ρ, where ŋ = absolute viscosity of the oil and ρ = density of the oil.

Applied Chemistry for Experienced people,