Category: Applied Chemistry Objective Questions

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Permutit’s Process”.

1. Zeolite process is also called as __________
a) Permutit’s process
b) Demineralization
c) Batch’s process
d) Lime soda process
Answer: a
Clarification: The zeolite process is also called as the permutit’s process. The zeolite process is very useful to remove the hardness of water.

2. The capital cost of the zeolite process is ___________
a) Less
b) High
c) Very high
d) Very low
Answer: c
Clarification: The capital cost of the zeolite process is very high. The operational cost of the zeolite process is low.

3. The zeolite process is used for turbid process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The zeolite process cannot be used for the turbid process. The zeolites are naturally occurring sodium aluminium silicates.

4. How many steps are involved in the zeolite process?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: d
Clarification: There are no steps involved in the zeolite process. The water hardness will be removed in one operation in zeolite process.

5. In zeolite process, the dissolved ________ is not removed.
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbondioxide
d) Chlorine
Answer: c
Clarification: The dissolved carbondioxide is not removed during the zeolite or the permutit’s process. It can be removed in the lime soda process.

6. The exchange medium in the zeolite process is ___________
a) Regenerated
b) Cannot be regenerated
c) Regenerated when medium hard water is introduced
d) Regenerated when very hard water is introduced
Answer: a
Clarification: The exchange medium in the zeolite process can be regenerated. Reagent used in the lime soda process cannot be regenerated.

7. In zeolite process, only small amount of ________ ions can be removed.
a) Mn⁺⁺
b) Fe⁺⁺
c) Both Fe⁺⁺ and Mn⁺⁺
d) Neither Fe⁺⁺ nor Mn⁺⁺
Answer: c
Clarification: In zeolite process, only small amount of the Fe⁺⁺ and Mn⁺⁺ are removed. The total amount can be removed by using the lime soda process.

8. Zeolite process cannot soften _________
a) Basic water
b) Neutral water
c) Acidic water
d) Salt water
Answer: c
Clarification: Zeolite process cannot soften the acidic water. After the process, the sodium salts are not useful for the boiler use.

9. The hardness of the water in the zeolite process can be treated at the range of __________
a) 5-10ppm
b) 5-15ppm
c) 5-20ppm
d) 5-25ppm
Answer: b
Clarification: The hardness of the water in the zeolite process can be treated at the range of the 5-15ppm. The regenerated zeolite can be used to remove the calcium and magnesium ions from the water.

10. __________ should be free of turbidity as they interfering in exchange process.
a) Raw water
b) Hard water
c) Very hard water
d) Soft water
Answer: a
Clarification: Raw water should be free of turbidity and suspended impurities as they are interfering in the exchange process.

11. Very low hardness of __________ can be achieved in the zeolite process.
a) 3ppm
b) 4ppm
c) 5ppm
d) Less than 5ppm
Answer: d
Clarification: By careful monitoring it will be possible to achieve the very low hardness of the less than that of 5ppm can be achieved in the zeolite process.

12. Variation of hardness of raw water in zeolite process _________
a) Do not affects the exchange process
b) Affects the exchange process
c) Slightly affects the exchange process
d) Some times affects the exchange process
Answer: a
Clarification: Variation of hardness of raw water in zeolite process do not affect the exchange process because according to it zeolite bed changes automatically.

13. The zeolite process can be __________
a) Can be operated pressure
b) Cannot be operated under pressure
c) Can be operated under pressure sometimes
d) Cannot be operated under pressure sometimes
Answer: a
Clarification: The zeolite process has the best advantage than any other processes that it can be operated under the pressure also.

14. __________ water is not suitable for zeolite process, as it affects the mineral.
a) Highly acidic
b) Highly alkaline
c) Highly acidic and alkaline
d) Neither highly acidic nor alkaline
Answer: c
Clarification: The highly acidic or alkaline water is not suitable for zeolite process, as it affects the mineral. It is one of the limitations of this process.

15. NaOH formed during zeolite process is reacts with _________ at high temperatures causing the corrosions of boilers.
a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Cobalt
Answer: a
Clarification: NaOH formed during the zeolite process reacts with the iron at high temperature during the process that leads to the corrosion of the boilers.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Mechanism of Polymerization – 1”.

1. Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into _______ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Clarification: Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into two types. They are chain or addition polymerisation and the step or condensation polymerisation.

2. The functionality of the monomer is a __________ bond.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) No
Answer: b
Clarification: The functionality of the monomer is a double bond and bi functional. The chain polymerisation yields the product which is exact multiple of the monomers.

3. The polymerisation takes place by __________ of the monomer molecules.
a) Addition
b) Self addition
c) Dissociation
d) Condensation
Answer: b
Clarification: The polymerisation takes place by self addition of the monomer molecules to each other through the chain polymerisation.

4. The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are produced in chain reaction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are not produced in the chain reaction. The polymer has the same chemical composition as that of the monomer in chain polymerisation.

5. In how many steps the mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Clarification: The mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out in three steps. They are 1. initiation, 2. propagation and 3. termination.

6. The chain polymerisation mechanism is _______
a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Rapid
d) Moderate
Answer: c
Clarification: The chain polymerisation mechanism is rapid. An initiator is required to start the polymerisation reaction.

7. The conversion of pi-bond to sigma bond during the chain propagation releases the energy of _________ K.cal/mole.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 40
d) 20
Answer: d
Clarification: The conversion of the pi-bond into the sigma bond during the chain polymerisation releases the energy of the 20K.cal/mole. An initiator is needed to start the polymerisation reaction.

8. Which of the following do not undergo the chain polymerisation?
a) Polyester
b) Vinyl
c) Allyl
d) Dienes
Answer: a
Clarification: The polyester do not undergo the chain polymerisation. The compounds having the double bond undergo chain polymerisation. Olefins, vinyl, allyl and dienes undergo chain polymerisation.

9. Addition polymerisation can be carried out in _________ mechanisms.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Clarification: Addition polymerisation can be carried out in three mechanisms. They are: 1 – free radical mechanism, 2 – ionic mechanism, 3 – co-ordination mechanism.

10. Initiators are __________ compounds.
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Partially stable
d) Highly stable
Answer: b
Clarification: Initiators are the unstable compounds. For getting stability, they undergo homolytic fusion to produce free radicals.

11. For free radical chain polymerisation _________ are the good initiators.
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide
d) Neither benzoyl peroxide nor hydrogen peroxide
Answer: c
Clarification: For free radical chain polymerisation, Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide are the good initiators. They produce monomer free radicals.

12. The ionic mechanism again divided into _____________
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Clarification: The ionic mechanism is again dividing into two types. They are: cationic chain polymerisation and anionic chain polymerisation.

13. The __________ of the inhibitor result in the cationic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion
b) Partially homolytic fusion
c) Heterolytic fusion
d) Partially heterolytic fusion
Answer: c
Clarification: The heterolytic fusion of the initiator results in the cationic chain polymerisation and homolytic fusion results in a free radical polymerisation.

14. The anion is produced by the __________ initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion of initiator
b) Heterolytic fusion of initiator
c) Organo-alkali compounds
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Clarification: The anion is produced by the organo-alkali compounds like ethyl sodium, methyl potassium, butyl lithium etc initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.

15. The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is __________
a) Ziegler-natta catalyst
b) Vanadium pent-oxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Zeonar
Answer: a
Clarification: The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is Ziegler-natta catalyst. Combination of the metal halides and organometallic compounds are called as Ziegler-natta catalyst.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Properties and Uses of CNT”.

1. CNT s are the strongest and stiffest materials in ___________
a) Tensile strength
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Energy
Answer: a
Clarification: CNT s are the strongest and stiffest materials in tensile strength which is due to the covalent sp2 bonds between the individual carbon atoms.

2. CNT posses strength up to ________
a) 100Gpa
b) 200Gpa
c) 400Gpa
d) 300Gpa
Answer: a
Clarification: CNT posses strength up to 100Gpa. Chemical vapour decomposition is mostly used because of its low cost and direct growth of catalyst on surface.

3. Standard single walled CNT withstands a pressure up to ______ without deformation.
a) 1Gpa
b) 2Gpa
c) 20Gpa
d) 25Gpa
Answer: d
Clarification: Standard single walled CNT withstands a pressure up to 25Gpa without deformation. It also possess strength up to 100Gpa.

4. Multi walled CNT are ________ concentric nano tubes.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) Multiple
Answer: d
Clarification: Multi walled CNT are multiple concentric nano tubes nested with in one another which exhibit a striking telescoping property.

5. The nano tube may _________ without friction.
a) Slides
b) Overlaps
c) Under laps
d) Collides
Answer: c
Clarification: The nano tubes may slides without the friction and within its outer nano tube. This property is utilised to create a smallest rational motor and gigahertz mechanical oscillator.

6. CNT is ___________
a) Conductor
b) Insulator
c) Semi conductor
d) Impure metal
Answer: c
Clarification: CNT is semiconductor. Because of symmetry and unique electronic structure of graphene, it is semi conducting material with small band gap between valence band and conducting band.

7. The optical properties of CNT are due to __________ of photoluminiscene.
a) Absorption
b) Emission
c) Consumption
d) Collision
Answer: a
Clarification: The optical properties of CNT are due to the absorption of photoluminiscene and raman spectroscope which allows the quick and reliable characterization of this nano tube quality in terms of non-tubular carbon content.

8. The microwave absorptions are used for ________
a) Military radars
b) Satellites
c) Radars
d) Electric irons
Answer: a
Clarification: The CNT posses micro wave absorption characteristics which are useful for the military radars and to better the slith characteristics of air crafts.

9. CNT exhibits a property called ballistic condition.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Clarification: CNT is very good thermal conductor and exhibit a property called as ballistic condition. Single walled CNT at room temperature has thermal conductivity of 3500WM^-1K^-1.

10. CNT is _________
a) Non toxic
b) Toxic
c) Very Safe
d) Not having graphene
Answer: b
Clarification: CNT is toxic. At some conditions it crosses the membrane barriers and reach organs which includes harmful effects like inflammatory.

11. CNT is used to make ___________
a) Paper batteries
b) High voltage batteries
c) Car batteries
d) Clock batteries
Answer: a
Clarification: A paper batteries is a battery engineered to use a paper thin sheet of cellulose infused with CNT. Here CNT are used as electrodes allowing the storage devices to conduct electricity.

12. Most promising applications of the CNT is _________
a) Paper batteries
b) Solar cells
c) Space elevators
d) Stab proof
Answer: b
Clarification: Most promising applications of CNT is solar cells. It is due to their strong UV absorption characteristics. It is developed at NIIT.

13. CNT can store _________
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbondioxide
c) Hydrogen
d) Peroxides
Answer: c
Clarification: CNT can store hydrogen. It can be later used as the source of fuel. The CNT also used in the bullet proofing clothes and stab proof clothings.

14. CNT can be used for coating and absorption on the surface _______
a) Fibre
b) Design
c) Stains
d) Marks
Answer: a
Clarification: CNT is also used in textiles. It can be used for coating and absorption on the surface fibre for manufacturing fabric which is anti bacterial.

15. A spray of CNT mixture on ceramic coatings gives the ability to resist ________
a) Stains
b) Damage
c) Smoothness
d) Clearness
Answer: b
Clarification: A spray of CNT mixture on ceramic coatings gives the ability to resist the damage while absorbing the laser light. This application is called optical power detectors.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Mechanism of Lubrication”.

1. How many mechanisms are there for lubrication?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three mechanisms are there for lubrication. They are thin film lubrication, thick film lubrication and extreme pressure lubrication. The thick pressure lubrication is also called as fluid film or hydro dynamic lubrication. The thin film lubrication is also called as boundary lubrication.

2. The thickness of the lubricant film in the hydro dynamic lubrication is about __________
a) 1000^oA
b) 5000^oA
c) 500^oA
d) 100^oA
Answer: a
Clarification: In hydro dynamic lubrication, the sliding surfaces are separated completely by applying a thin uniform film of the lubricants between the two surfaces. The thickness of the lubricant film in the hydro dynamic lubrication is about 1000^oA.

3. The liquid lubricants stick due to the _________ property.
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Temperature coefficient
d) Mass of the liquid
Answer: b
Clarification: The liquid lubricants stick due to their physical property called viscosity or stickiness. The liquid lubricant will cover all the irregularities in the slidings and thus it prevents the formation of welded junctions.

4. The coefficient of friction of unlubricated surface ranges about _________
a) 0.1-1.5
b) 0.1-0.5
c) 0.1-1.0
d) 1.5-2.0
Answer: a
Clarification: The coefficient of the unlubricated surface is about 0.1 to 1.5. If the lubricant energy is higher, then the energy must be required in large amount to circulate and maintain the viscous lubricant film.

5. The effectiveness of the hydro dynamic lubrication does not depends upon the ________
a) Design of bearing
b) Load
c) Rate of rotation of shaft
d) Area of shaft
Answer: d
Clarification: The effectiveness of the hydro dynamic lubrication does not depends upon the area of the shaft. The effectiveness mainly depends upon the design of bearing, load and speed of the shaft rotating.

6. The continuous fluid film cannot be maintained between the rubbing surfaces under the condition such as high load in boundary lubrication.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The continuous fluid film cannot be maintained between the rubbing surfaces under the condition such as high load, slow rate of rotation and very low viscosity oil, etc. These conditions are seen in boundary lubrication.

7. In boundary lubrication, the coefficient of friction ranges about ______
a) 0.05-0.1
b) 0.5-0.15
c) 0.05-0.15
d) 1-1.5
Answer: c
Clarification: In boundary lubrication, the thickness of the fluid film must be 1000^oA. The coefficient of friction is about 0.05 to 0.15. This thin film contains the one or two layers. Thus it is called as thin lubrication or boundary lubrication.

8. The wear and tear of metal surfaces are involved and _________ are formed in thin lubrication.
a) P-n junctions
b) Welded junctions
c) Layers
d) Thin layers
Answer: b
Clarification: The wear and tear of the metal surfaces is involved and the welded junctions are formed. This also results in friction. These all are formed due to the contact of the surfaces with other leads.

9. Generation of heat takes place in __________ lubrication.
a) Thin lubrication
b) Thick lubrication
c) Extreme pressure lubrication
d) Boundary lubrication
Answer: c
Clarification: Generation heat and friction are also takes place in extreme pressure lubrication. The thin lubrication is also called as thin lubrication. At high load and pressures, the contact between the surfaces produces the more heat.

10. The liquid lubricant may be _______
a) Boiled
b) Evaporated
c) Sublimated
d) Heated
Answer: b
Clarification: The liquid lubricant may be evaporated or decomposed. Due to this, the lubrication becomes ineffective, and the effectiveness can be achieved by adding the extreme pressure additives along with lubricant.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Characteristics of Good Fuel and its Advantages”.

1. What is the ignition temperature of a good fuel?
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) 100⁰C
Answer: c
Clarification: The ignition temperature of a good fuel must be moderate because it is really hard to produce more heat and It requires large amount energy to produce high temperature and to achieve too low temperatures is also a difficult task. Moderate temperature can be produced easily.

2. What is the calorific value of an ideal fuel?
a) 30.8k.cal
b) High
c) 20.2k.cal
d) Low
Answer: c
Clarification: An ideal fuel must contain high calorific value. A calorific value is the amount of heat produced by complete combustion of a good fuel. So, more the fuel which produces more heat on complete burning will be the ideal one.

3. The rate of combustion of a good fuel must be ________
a) Controllable
b) High
c) Low
d) Very high
Answer: a
Clarification: The rate of the combustion of a good fuel must be controllable because if it is high or very high we cannot calculate the time taken by the fuel to burn and if it is low also we cannot observe the time taken.

4. The products of combustion of a good fuel _________
a) CO₂
b) CO
c) Must not be harmful
d) Must be harmful
Answer: c
Clarification: The good fuel must not produce harmful products that affect the surroundings and nature. Both CO and CO₂ are harmful gases.

5. The moisture content of the good fuel must be _________
a) 50%
b) High in amount
c) Low in amount
d) 70%
Answer: c
Clarification: We cannot say exact moisture content of a good fuel but it must be low in amount because the fuel with high moisture content will not burn properly and results in less heat and less calorific value. For a good fuel calorific value is more.

6. Artificial fuels are mainly prepared from ________
a) petrol
b) peat
c) coal
d) natural gas
Answer: a
Clarification: Artificial fuels are produced by man. Peat, coal and natural gas are directly available from nature. Petrol is produced by a man using a fractional distillation process.

7. On combusting a solid fuel, the final product obtained in high amount is ________
a) oxygen
b) nitrogen
c) ash
d) ozone
Answer: c
Clarification: After combusting a fuel the product left in more amount is ash. The oxygen and ozone cannot be produced in most of the cases. Nitrogen may be produced but in small amount than that of ash.

8. The major advantage of a good fuel is _______
a) ease of transportation
b) production of more oxygen
c) production of more nitrogen
d) production of more vapor
Answer: a
Clarification: The good fuel can be transported easily. It is the main advantage of good fuel. It reduces the cost of transportation and makes it ideal.

9. Which of the following is a synthetic fuel in gas form?
a) Natural gas
b) Producer gas
c) LPG
d) Petroleum
Answer: b
Clarification: The producer gas is a synthetic fuel in gas form whereas, natural gas is a natural fuel in gas form. LPG and petroleum are liquid fuels.

10. A fuel is a combustible substance containing ______ as major constitute.
a) nitrogen
b) oxygen
c) carbon
d) hydrogen
Answer: c
Clarification: In every fuel the major constitute is carbon. The other components like oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen and sulphur are also present but in very small amounts when compared to carbon.

Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Lime Washing Soda Method”.

1. The cost of the lime soda process is _________
a) Less
b) High
c) Very high
d) Moderate
Answer: a
Clarification: The cost of the lime soda process is less and the operational cost of the lime soda process is high.

2. ___________ can be used for the turbid water.
a) Soap titration process
b) Zeolite process
c) Ion exchange process
d) Lime soda process
Answer: d
Clarification: Lime soda process can be used for the turbid water. The lime soda process removes the hardness of the water steps wise by treating with different chemicals.

3. Hardness of the water in the lime soda process is reduced to __________
a) 10-15ppm
b) 15-30ppm
c) 30-35ppm
d) 35-40ppm
Answer: b
Clarification: Hardness of the water in the lime soda process is reduced to 15-30ppm. The lime soda process involves the conversion of the soluble complexes into the insoluble precipitates.

4. Total dissolved solids in the lime soda process is _________
a) Reduced
b) Not reduced
c) Remains same
d) Slightly reduced
Answer: a
Clarification: Total dissolved solids in the lime soda process is reduced. It really works well for eliminating every complex element that cause the hardness of the water.

5. For avoiding the reduction of the residual hardness, incomplete precipitation and slow reaction, The reaction is carried out at __________ temperature.
a) 30-40^oC
b) 40-50^oC
c) 50-60^oC
d) 60-70^oC
Answer: c
Clarification: For avoiding the reduction of the residual hardness, incomplete precipitation and slow reaction, The reaction is carried out at 50-60^oC temperature.

6. Lime soda process removes _________ from the water.
a) Minerals
b) Mineral acids
c) Mineral alkaline
d) Mineral complexes
Answer: b
Clarification: Lime soda process removes the mineral acids from the water. The cold soda lime, hot soda lime and continuous soda lime process are other processes to remove the hardness.

7. Batch process is only used for removing the hardness of the water on _________
a) Small scale
b) Large scale
c) Industrial purposes
d) Irrigation purposes
Answer: a
Clarification: Batch process is only used for removing the hardness of the small scale. The Continuous soda lime process is used for the industrial purposes.

8. The amount of coagulate if added in the hot lime soda process is __________
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Very low
Answer: d
Clarification: The amount of coagulate if added in the hot lime soda process is very low. The chemical reaction takes place faster and precipitation takes place faster.

9. The final hardness of the water after treating by the hot lime soda process is about __________
a) 10-15ppm
b) 15-20ppm
c) 20-25ppm
d) 25-30ppm
Answer: c
Clarification: The final hardness of the water after treating by the hot lime soda process is about the 20-25ppm. In very less time the water is treated in this method.

10. Due to heating at high temperature in the hot lime soda process reduces the __________
a) Time for treating
b) Energy
c) Corrosion of boiler
d) Cost
Answer: c
Clarification: Due to heating at high temperature in the hot lime soda process reduces the corrosion of boilers. The heating is done to remove the dissolved gases in the water.

11. Lime soda process does not involve steps.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Lime soda process involves steps like filtration, settling of precipitates, coagulation and removal of sludge.

12. In hot lime soda process, the bacteria in water is reduced to the minimum due to the _________
a) High temperature
b) Faster reactions
c) Slow reactions
d) Low temperature
Answer: a
Clarification: In hot lime soda process the bacteria count in water is reduced to the minimum due to the high temperatures that are applied to the water during the process.

13. In batch process, when the tank gets filled then it indicates that ____________
a) To stir more
b) Softening is completed
c) To add the catalyst
d) To add the lime
Answer: b
Clarification: In batch process, when the tank gets filled then it indicates that the softening of the water is completed. Two tanks are used for construction in the batch process.

14. Reagent used in the lime soda process is _______
a) Regenerated
b) Not regenerated
c) Regenerated depending on the hardness
d) Regenerated some times
Answer: b
Clarification: Reagent used in the lime soda process is can not be regenerated. The high temperatures are applied in this process.

15. In lime soda process, the change in the hardness of the water needs ________
a) Change in dose of lime
b) Change in dose of soda
c) Change in dose of lime and soda
d) Change in dose either lime or soda
Answer: c
Clarification: In lime soda process, the change in the hardness of the water needs the change in the dose of the lime and soda.