300+ TOP Audiology & Speech Language Pathology MCQs and Answers

Audiology and Speech Language Pathology Multiple Choice Questions

1. _______________ nerve functions as taste receptors to posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, elevation of palate and larynx and helps in swallowing.

A. Glossopharyngeal
B. Vagus
C. Hypoglossal
D. Trigeminal

Answer: A

2. ____________ type of hyperkinesia is characterized by slow, irregular, coarse, writhing movements.

A. Dystonia
B. Athetosis
C. Chorea
D. Myoclonus

Answer: B

3. ____________ is an example of a central vowel.

A. /i/
B. /u/
C. / `sup` /
D. / `^^` /

Answer: D

4. ____________ is a lingualveolar, voiceless, fricative consonant.

A. /s/
B. /z/
C. /f/
D. /l/

Answer: A

5. In ____________ process a child says/nets/for/nest/

A. Metathesis
B. Palatalization
C. Assimilation
D. Dimunitization

Answer: A

6. Larynx has ______________ number of paired cartilages.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. None of them

Answer: B

7. Lenticular nucleus or lentiform body is composed of ______________.

A. Globus pallidus and putamen
B. Putamen and caudate nucleus
C. Thalamus and caudate nucleus
D. Putamen and thalamus

Answer: A

8. The basic structures of the face are distinguishable by ______________ week of fetal life of the embryo.

A. 8th
B. 9th
C. 5th
D. 4th

Answer: C

9. Reduplicated babbling is seen by _______________ of age.

A. 7 months
B. 2 months
C. 18 months
D. 12 months

Answer: A

10. The /n/ in snow often is only partially voiced in the speech of most people because of ____________.

A. vocal fatigue
B. the /s/ is voiceless
C. the following vowel is voiceless
D. a misarticulation

Answer: B

11. Hearing loss sharply reduces the ____________ that the child has and thus slows down the process of learning totalk.

A. listening experiences
B. vocal experiences
C. attention control
D. articulatory experience

Answer: A

12. One of the important prerequisites for VRA includes _____________.

A. development of head turn response
B. development of vocalization
C. appropriate birth history
D. adequate speech skills

Answer: A

13. An adult with a moderate degree of conductive hearing loss is likely to get __________% scores on WRS testing.

A. 10-20
B. 30-50
C. 70-80
D. 95-100

Answer: D

14. Linear amplification is also described as ____________.

A. High gain
B. Flexible gain
C. Constant gain
D. Saturating gain

Answer: C

15. The acoupedic program insists on developing oral language through the use of ___________.

A. auditory sense
B. multi-sensory input
C. tactile sense
D. auditory and visual sense

Answer: A

16. The dB scale belongs to the ____________ scale of measurement.

A. ratio
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. nominal

Answer: A

17. The embryonic period usually terminates around the ___________ week when the structure assumes a “human” appearance and is known as a fetus.

A. 6th
B. 8th
C. 7th
D. 9th

Answer: B

18. The human cochlea acquires normal adult function after __________ week of gestation.

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

Answer: C

19. Which of the following develops first during the development of the inner ear?

A. semicircular canals
B. cochlear duct
C. sensori cells in the cochlea
D. utricle and saccule

Answer: B

20. In high risk factors ‘H’ stands for ____________.

A. High fever
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypothyroidism

Answer: B

21. Which of the following would most likely cause a patient to speak almost entirely in neologisms?

A. Damage to cranial nerves
B. Severe Wernicke’s aphasia
C. Mixed dysarthria
D. Flaccid dysarthria

Answer: B

22. Which of the following is least used in apraxia treatment?

A. Motor strengthening exercises
B. Exaggerated intonation as if singing
C. Imitation exercises
D. Audio visual training

Answer: A

23. Which does not describe a common disruption of phonation in dysarthria?

A. Breathy voice
B. Aphonic voice
C. Harsh voice
D. Inconsistently higher pitch

Answer: D

24. Advanced multiple sclerosis is most likely to result in which type of dysarthria

A. Hyperkinetic dysarthria
B. Flaccid dysarthria
C. Hypokinetic dysarthria
D. Variable dysarthria

Answer: D

25. Ataxic dysarthria is most likely to occur from which of the following

A. Damage to the cingulate gyrus
B. Cerebellar deterioration
C. Blockage of middle cerebral artery
D. Alzheimers disease

Answer: B

26. The primary motor area in the cortex is located in ____________.

A. Brocas area
B. Corpus callosum
C. Precentralgyrus
D. Angular gyrus

Answer: C

27. In classic anomic aphasia, the lesion site is usually in ___________.

A. Wernickes
B. Right parietal region
C. Left angular gyrus
D. Left arcuate fasiculus

Answer: C

28. What is the phonatory control center in the medulla oblongata?

A. Substantianigra
B. Jugular ganglion
C. Medial geniculate bodies
D. Nucleus ambiguous

Answer: D

29. _____________ is used for diagnosing various infections and hemorrhages of the CNS that are not observable from CT scan.

A. EGG
B. Doppler test
C. Lumbar puncture
D. ECG

Answer: C

30. Which of the following is called as bradykinesia?

A. Slow movement
B. Movements with limited range
C. Involuntary movements characterized by tremor
D. Chorea

Answer: A

31. A single number that summarizes the overall level of noise exposure “averaged” over its duration is called as___________.

A. Noise reduction rating
B. Noise reduction coefficient
C. Equivalent level
D. Noise dose

Answer: D

32. Temporal auditory summation is a ___________ phenomenon.

A. Cochlear
B. Conductive
C. Neural
D. Inner hair cells

Answer: C

33. The probability that a truly hearing impaired will fail a hearing screening test is called __________.

A. Reliability
B. Specificity
C. Sensitivity
D. Validity

Answer: C

34. What results when frequency of the driving force is the same as the frequency of the driven system?

A. amplification
B. frequency compression
C. harmonic enhancement
D. resonance

Answer: D

35. The restricted band of frequencies around a pure-tone that contributes to the masking of the tone is called ____________.

A. critical ratio
B. spectrum of noise
C. critical band
D. none of the above

Answer: A

36. What does a biphasic acoustic reflex (onset and offset) indicate?

A. acoustic neuroma
B. ossicular discontinuity
C. otitis media
D. stapes fixation

Answer: D

37. What happens when the stapedius muscle contracts?

A. the impedance at the tympanic membrane increases
B. the impedance at the tympanic membrane decreases
C. the impedance and admittance at the tympanic membrane increases
D. the impedance and admittance at the tympanic membrane decreases

Answer: A

38. Bioler’s notch is seen at _____________ frequency.

A. 2000 Hz
B. 4000 Hz
C. 3000 Hz
D. 1000 Hz

Answer: B

39. Consistency of results between repeated measures is known as __________.

A. validity
B. dependability
C. reliability
D. feedback

Answer: C

40. Which of the following statements is not correct about otoacoustic emissions?

A. OAEs are measures of outer hair cell integrity
B. OAEs are electro physiologic
C. OAEs are preneural
D. OAEs involve both inward and outward propagation

Answer: B

41. The presence of components in an output signal which are multiples of the input signal frequency is _____________ distortion.

A. intermodulation
B. linear
C. harmonic
D. phase

Answer: C

42. During EAC measurement, ____________ is measured with the volume control at the full-on position.

A. Frequency range
B. Total Harmonic Distortion
C. Reference Test Gain
D. SSPL 90

Answer: D

43. A coupler having a ____________ cc cavity is used during hearing aid analysis.

A. 1.2
B. 2.0
C. 2.2
D. 6.0

Answer: B

44. The advantage most readily apparent with binaural hearing aids is ___________.

A. vastly better mid-frequency hearing
B. better cosmetic appeal
C. better unaided thresholds
D. improved localization

Answer: D

45. A physical phenomenon which negatively affects the transmission of mid to high frequencies to the side of the far ear is ______________ effect.

A. body baffle
B. precedence
C. transmission
D. head shadow

Answer: D

46. An average adult REUR has a primary peak around __________ Hz of around _________ dB.

A. 1000, 4
B. 4200, 10
C. 2700, 17
D. 2900, 17

Answer: C

47. Hearing aids in which both, the processing of the audio signals and the control for the processing is done by digital aids are ____________ aids.

A. quasi-digital
B. programmable
C. all-digital
D. semi-digital

Answer: C

48. BICROS is used in cases that have _____________.

A. both ears unaidable
B. one ear aidable and the other ear unaidable
C. one ear normal and the other ear unaidable
D. one ear aidable and the other ear with a high frequency loss

Answer: B

49. _____________ systems involve the transmission of radio frequency waves.

A. Hardwire
B. FM
C. Loop induction
D. Infra red

Answer: B

50. The ratio of the change in input SPL to the change in output SPL at a specified input level in an AGC system is called as ____________.

A. Compression ratio
B. Slewing ratio
C. AGC ratio
D. Compression threshold

Answer: A

51. The number of new cases in a population during a specified period of time is __________.

A. prevalence
B. incidence
C. transmission
D. inheritance

Answer: B

52. ___________ is an example of non-preventable cause of hearing loss.

A. Middle ear infection
B. Rh incompatibility
C. Noise
D. Aging

Answer: D

53. VRA procedure is an example of ___________ type of conditioning.

A. pure classical
B. pure operant
C. more classical than operant
D. more operant than classical

Answer: D

54. A marked decrease in speech recognition ability with increasing intensity level is a feature of __________ pathology.

A. cochlear
B. central
C. conductive
D. retrocochlear

Answer: D

55. The communication between scala vestibule and scala tymapani is established through __________.

A. Helicotrema
B. Hamulus
C. Hebemula perforate
D. Scala media

Answer: A

56. The mass and stiffness factors of the middle ear system are affected in __________.

A. Cholesteatoma
B. TM perforation
C. Osteospongiosis
D. Ossicular discontinuity

Answer: A

57. Occlusion effect is found to be absent in cases with ____________ loss.

A. Unilateral
B. Functional
C. Conductive
D. Sensorineural

Answer: C

58. Interaural attenuation for bone conduction is ___________.

A. 40
B. 10
C. 0
D. -10

Answer: C

59. Auropalpebral reflex is another name for __________.

A. neck extension
B. eye blink
C. startle
D. head turn

Answer: B

60. The ability of binaural listening to ‘tune in’ to a wanted signal and at the same time to minimize the interfering effects of unwanted background noise is referred to as __________ effect.

A. squelch
B. head shadow
C. precedence
D. summation

Answer: A

61. ____________ is a high, front and unrounded vowel.

A. /e/
B. /i/
C. /a/
D. /æ/

Answer: B

62. _____________ is a disorder in which motor plans are intact but individual motor gestures are disturbed.

A. Ideomotor apraxia
B. Ideational apraxia
C. Apraxia of spech
D. Buccofacial apaxia

Answer: A

63. The Broadman’s area number “40” is ____________.

A. Broca’s area
B. Wernicke’s area
C. Angular gyrus
D. Supramarginal gyrus

Answer: D

64. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected with a mass of white matter called __________.

A. Arcuate fasiculus
B. Central sulcus
C. Corpus callosum
D. Angular gyrus

Answer: C

65. The _____________ act is referred to listener’s interpretation of the message.

A. Illocutionary act
B. Perlocutionary act
C. Locutionary act
D. None of the above

Answer: B

66. ___________ is the primary proponent of behavioristic theory of language acquisition.

A. Chomsky
B. Skinner
C. Osgood
D. Piaget

Answer: B

67. Chomsky’s work is recognized as

A. behavior therapy
B. cognitive therapy
C. speech act theory
D. syntactic theory

Answer: D

68. The nativistic theory emphasizes on ____________ component of language.

A. Pragmatics
B. Syntax
C. Morphology
D. Semantics

Answer: B

69. Diagnosis made on the basis of results of inducing symptoms of a suspected disability is

A. Provocative Diagnosis
B. Clinical Diagnosis
C. Instrumental Diagnosis
D. Team diagnosis

Answer: A

70. In _____________ technique there is breaking of a complex or difficult response into smaller more easily learned components.

A. Recast
B. Modelling
C. Shaping
D. Prompting

Answer: C

71. A possible etiology of faulty pitch could be ____________.

A. Vocal fold palsy
B. Laryngeal web
C. Mutational falsetto
D. Hearing impairment

Answer: D

72. In dysphagia clients with weakened posterior pharyngeal wall ____________ strategy is effective.

A. Masako Maneuver
B. Mendelshohn Maneuver
C. Effortfull swallow
D. Supraglottic swallow

Answer: A

73. In ___________ condition an individual is unable to recognize previously known people.

A. Somatoagnosia
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Autotopagnosia
D. Astereognosia

Answer: B

74. _____________ type of aphasia has good repetition skills and impaired naming and non-fluent conversational speech.

A. Transcortical motor
B. Global
C. Broca’s
D. Anomic

Answer: A

75. If CVA occurs in _____________ artery, the patient may experience aphasia, alexia, agraphia or visual field deficits.

A. Internal carotid artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Basilar artery

Answer: B

76. Monopitch, monoloudness, short rushes of speech and reduced loudness are speech characteristics of ______________.

A. Hyperkinetic Dysarthria
B. Flaccid Dysarthria
C. Spastic Dysarthria
D. Hypokinetic Dysarthria

Answer: D

77. Which of the following approaches typically is not used in phonological therapy

A. Minimal pairs approach
B. Cycles approaches
C. Traditional approach
D. Distinctive feature approach
Answer: C

78. ____________ is characterized by violent, forceful flinging movements of the arms and legs.

A. Ballism
B. Chorea
C. Dyskinesia
D. Bradykinesia

Answer: A

79. The pharyngeal phase initiated as the bolus reaches ____________.

A. tonsils
B. back of the tongue
C. esophagus
D. lower sphincter

Answer: B

80. Chronic diffuse swelling of superficial lamina propria of the vocal fold is known as __________.

A. Reinke’s edema
B. Vocal nodules
C. Chronic laryngitis
D. Vocal polyp

Answer: A

81. ____________ is an autosomal dominant multiple tic disorder that begins in childhood.

A. Landua-Klefner syndrome
B. Tourette syndrome
C. Treacher’s colin syndrome
D. Usher’s syndrome

Answer: B

82. Following are muscles of pharynx except one that is __________.

A. Superior constrictor
B. Palatoglossus
C. Salpingopharyngeus
D. Inferior constrictor

Answer: B

83. In ____________ approach a child’s prior utterance is added by relevant grammatical and semantic details by the clinician.

A. parallel talk
B. expansion
C. extension
D. recast sentences

Answer: C

84. _____________ diagnostic term involves both descriptive and interactive functions of behavior.

A. Evaluation
B. Appraisal
C. Testing
D. Examination

Answer: A

85. Following are the factors that determine progress of therapy sequence except _________.

A. Stimulus type
B. Response level
C. Task mode
D. Gestures

Answer: D

86. ___________ type of test gives clinician flexibility in terms of administration, scoring and testing environment.

A. Criterion referenced test
B. Norm referenced test
C. Questionnaire
D. None of the above

Answer: C

87. Incidental teaching is most effective for ____________ children.

A. ADHD
B. Hearing impairment
C. Autism
D. All of the above

Answer: C

88. Sensory integration is used in all except

A. SLI
B. Autism
C. ADHD
D. Cerebral Palsy

Answer: A

89. In __________ type of dental occlusion the lower dental arch is in a posterior relation to the upper dental arch.

A. Distoclusion
B. Mesioclusion
C. Neutroclusion
D. Both 2 and 1

Answer: A

90. The amount of air passing in and out of the lungs during normal resting respiration is __________.

A. Tidal volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume
C. Expiratory reserve volume
D. Residual volume

Answer: A

91. Middle ear contribution to hearing through bone conduction is more at

A. Mid frequencies
B. Low frequencies
C. High frequencies
D. Mid and High frequencies

Answer: A

92. The phenomenon of ‘tonal perversion’ is the basis of tone decay test given by

A. Jerger
B. Green
C. Carthart
D. Owens

Answer: B

93. _____________ type of Bekesy audiogram is seen in individuals with cochlear hearing loss.

A. Type III
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type IV

Answer: C

94. Monaural Loudness Balance test can be administered in individuals having

A. bilateral symmetrical hearing loss
B. unilateral hearing loss
C. bilateral asymmetrical hearing loss
D. hearing loss with normal threshold at least at one frequency

Answer: D

95. ABR is the method of choice for infant hearing screening because

A. responses are not influenced by the infants condition
B. ear specific information can be obtained
C. mild to moderate hearing loss can be determined
D. all of the above

Answer: D

96. In ABR testing, a non-inverting electrode is called as ___________ electrode.

A. Ground
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Reference

Answer: B

97. Electrocochleography (EcochG) is the measurement of electrical potentials that are derived from

A. brainstem function
B. middle ear function
C. cochlear function
D. cortical function

Answer: C

98. DPOAEs are elicited by presenting two stimulus tones with different frequencies (f1 & f2). The frequency of DPOAE is equal to

A. 2f1 – f2/2
B. f1 – 2f2
C. 2f1 – f2
D. 2f2 – f1

Answer: C

99. The microphone used in OAEs recording should have ____________.

A. high internal noise and narrow bandwidth
B. low internal noise and narrow bandwidth
C. low internal noise and wide bandwidth
D. high internal noise and wide bandwidth

Answer: C

100. Loudness is strongly dependent on ___________.

A. Duration
B. Spectrum
C. Sound pressure
D. Envelop

Answer: B

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