250+ TOP MCQs on Autopilots, Height Control and Heading Control and Answers

Avionics Problems on “Autopilots, Height Control and Heading Control”.

1. What is missing in the autopilot loop?

a) Autopilot
b) Flight Management System
c) FBW system
d) FBL system

Answer: a
Clarification: The basic function of the autopilot is to control the flight of the aircraft and maintain it on a predetermined path in space without any action being required by the pilot. The autopilot can thus relieve the pilot from the fatigue and tedium of having to maintain continuous control of the aircraft’s flight path on a long duration flight so the pilot can concentrate on other tasks and the management of the mission.

2. Which of the following is not one of the functions performed by the FMS?
a) Automatic navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation
b) Management of aircraft systems
c) Efficient management of fuel
d) Housekeeping management

Answer: d
Clarification: The Light Management System performs various functions such as Automatic navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation, Presentation of information, Management of aircraft systems, Efficient management of fuel, Reduction of operating costs. Housekeeping management is a separate system which takes care of air conditioning, entertainment systems, etc.

3. What does the outer loop of an autopilot do?
a) Generate commands to the inner flight control loop
b) Access the flight control surfaces to control the pitch and roll of the aircraft
c) Access the flight control surfaces to control the altitude and heading of the aircraft
d) Generate commands for the pilot to follow

Answer: a
Clarification: The autopilot exercises a guidance function in the outer loop and generates commands to the inner flight control loop. These commands are generally attitude commands which operate the aircraft’s control surfaces through a closed flight control loop system so that the aircraft rotates about the pitch and roll axes until the measured pitch and bank angles are equal to the commanded angles. The changes in the aircraft’s pitch and bank angles then cause the aircraft flight path to change through the flight path kinematics.

4. Which of the following is the fundamental control of a common autopilot mode?
a) Altitude control
b) Pitch, roll and yaw control
c) Engine control
d) Automated landing

Answer: b
Clarification: The pitch attitude control loop and the heading control loop, with its inner loop commanding the aircraft bank angle, are thus fundamental inner loops in a common autopilot control mode. They are short, fast period loops which continuously control the control surfaces of an aircraft to maintain the pilot command.

5. An altitude control loop does not depend on _______
a) Aircraft pitch angle
b) Angle of attack
c) Forward velocity
d) Density of air

Answer: d

6. What is the reason for choosing height error gain in such a way that the frequency of height loop is below the bandwidth of the pitch attitude loop?
a) Efficient flight
b) Better Range
c) Stable and damped response
d) Better climb rate

Answer: c
Clarification: The height error gain is chosen so that the frequencymax is well below the bandwidth of pitch attitude loop to ensure a stable and well damped height loop response. If the frequency is high, it might lead to oscillations in the vertical axis.

250+ TOP MCQs on Single Sideband Modulation and Answers

Avionics Multiple Choice Questions on “Single Sideband Modulation”.

1. The type of signal transmission in which no power is wasted on the carrier is known as ________
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) Sideband suppressed carrier signal
d) Unsuppressed carrier

Answer: c
Clarification: In an SSB or single sideband signal, the carrier is suppressed leaving the upper and lower sidebands. The resulting signal is referred to as the sideband suppressed carrier signal and one of the major benefits of this type of signal is that no power is wasted on the carrier.

2. The spectrum space occupied by a DSB signal is the same as that of a conventional AM signal.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: DSB or double sideband suppressed carrier does not alter the maximum and minimum frequency of the signal. It only suppressed the carrier signal and hence the spectrum space which is dependent on frequency remains unchanged.

3. What is used to generate a DSB signal?
a) Balanced modulator
b) Carrier suppressor
c) Antimodulator
d) Sideband suppressor

Answer: a
Clarification: Balanced modulator is a special circuit which produces DSB or Double sideband suppressed carrier signals. It produces the sum or difference of the carrier and modulating signal but cancel or balance out the carrier frequency.

4. Which of the following is an advantage of SSB over DSB?
a) No change in spectrum space
b) Reduce in spectrum space
c) Carrier is suppressed
d) Power is not wasted on the carrier

Answer: b
Clarification: In a signal, only the sidebands contain the information. Also, there is a duplication of the information in each sideband. Thus one sideband is sufficient form transmission as compared to DSB where both the sidebands are present. Since one of the sideband is also suppressed it reduces the maximum or the minimum frequency of the signal and hence the spectrum space is reduced in an SSB.

5. SSB transmitters are lighter and require less power than their normal AM transmitters.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: In an SSB one of the sidebands is also suppressed with the carrier signal thus reducing wastage of power. Since less power and circuitry are required to run the SSB transmitter than its equivalent AM transmitter they are light and require less power.

6. Where does selective fading occur?
a) Attenuator
b) Amplifier
c) Atmosphere
d) Antenna

Answer: c
Clarification: Since an AM signal is a combination of waves of different frequencies when it is passed through the atmosphere, they get affected by the ionosphere and the upper atmosphere which attenuate signals below the frequency of 50Hz. If one sideband is above 50Hz and the other one is below 50Hz the atmosphere attenuates one sideband alone. This is known as selective fading.

7. Why is no carrier signal transmitted when the amplitude of the modulating signal is 0 in an SSB transmission?
a) Attenuation
b) Undermodulation
c) No sideband is generated
d) All the sideband is suppressed

Answer: c
Clarification: In an SSB the carrier signal is suppressed. Also, only when a modulating signal is present the sideband is produced. When there is no modulating signal there is no sideband produced and the carrier is also suppressed hence nothing is transmitted.

8. Which one of the following is not true with respect to SSB signal?
a) Hard to demodulate
b) Less power
c) Carrier is suppressed
d) Very low range

Answer: a
Clarification: One of the main disadvantages of the sideband suppressed signal transmission is that it is hard to demodulate or recover. Since the carrier signal is not present, the carrier frequency must be fed into the receiver to completely extract the information signal.

9. The low power carrier transmitted with SSB signal is called as?
a) SSB carrier
b) Dummy carrier
c) Fake carrier
d) Pilot carrier

Answer: d
Clarification: Since demodulation is hard in SSB signals a low power carrier wave is transmitted with the SSB. This can be received and amplified at the receiving end to demodulate the SSB signal. This type is used in FM stereo transmissions.

10. What is the peak envelope power if the rms voltage is 127.26V across a 50Ω load?
a) 324W
b) 321W
c) 215W
d) 154W

Answer: a

11. What is the maximum current if the peak envelope power is 500W and the supply to the amplifier is 50V?
a) 10A
b) 10mA
c) 550A
d) 550mA

Answer: a
Clarification: PEP = Vs x Imax
Imax = PEP / Vs = 500/50 = 10A.

12. What is the PEP if the transmitter produces a peak to peak voltage of 178V across a 75Ω load?
a) 75.4W
b) 52.8W
c) 54.2W
d) 45.5W

Answer: b

13. What is the average power of the transmitter if PEP = 500W?
a) 0W to 500W
b) 100W to 300W
c) 125W to 166.66W
d) 0W to 250W

Answer: c

14. Which of the following is true with respect to the bandwidth of a 2kHz audio signal and a 2kHz binary data?
a) Bandwidth is higher for audio signals than binary data
b) Bandwidth is higher for binary data than audio signals
c) Bandwidth remains the same for both
d) Bandwidth keeps increasing with time for the binary data

Answer: b
Clarification: Since binary data is transmitted in square waves or pulses, they are generally made up of numerous fundamental sine waves. This occupies a huge bandwidth as compared to audio signals which are analog in nature and usually comprise of a lesser number of sine waves.

250+ TOP MCQs on Transmission Line Basics – 2 and Answers

Avionics test on “Transmission Line Basics – 2”.

1. A current carrying conductor is only called a transmission line if the length of the line is _____ long at the signal frequency?
a) 0.1λ
b) 0.3λ
c) 1.2λ
d) 1.5λ
Answer: a
Clarification: A pair of current carrying conductors is not considered to be a transmission line unless it is at least 0.1λlong at the signal frequency.

2. Cables that carry RF signal are not ______
a) Capacitors equivalents
b) Inductors equivalents
c) Simple resistive conductors
d) Covered
Answer: c
Clarification: Cables used to carry RF energy are not simply resistive conductors but are complex equivalents of inductors, capacitors, and resistors. If simple resistive conductors are used then undesirable effects such as noise, power loss occurs.

3. For an operating frequency of 450 MHz, what length of a pair of conductors is considered to be a transmission line?
a) 0.754ft
b) 0.219ft
c) 0.35ft
d) 0.542ft
Answer: b
Clarification: A pair of conductors does not act as a transmission line unless it is at least 0.1λ long.
λ = 984/450 = 2.19 ft
0.1λ = 2.19 x (0.1) = 0.219 ft.

4. Calculate the physical length of the transmission line for an operating frequency of 450MHz and 3⁄8λ long.
a) 0.45
b) 0.84
c) 0.82
d) 0.41
Answer: c
Clarification: λ = 984/450 = 2.19 ft
(3/8)λ = 2.19(3)/8 = 0.82 ft.

5. Which of the following is not a type of coaxial cable connector?
a) PL-259
b) Banana pin connector
c) SMA
d) BNC
Answer: b
Clarification: The most common types of coaxial cable connectors are the PL-259 or UHF, BNC, F, SMA, and N-type connectors. Banana pin connectors are used in power cables.

6. Which of the following is called as UHF connector?
a) PL-259
b) N-type connector
c) SMA
d) BNC
Answer: a
Clarification: The PL-259 is also referred to as a UHF connector, can be used up to low UHF values (less than 500 MHz), although it is more widely used at HF and VHF. It can accommodate both large (up to 0.5-in) and small (0.25-in) coaxial cable.

7. Which of the following is widely used for connecting coaxial cables test instruments?
a) PL-259
b) N-type connector
c) SMA
d) BNC
Answer: d
Clarification: BNC connectors are widely used on 0.25-in coaxial cables for attaching test instruments, such as oscilloscopes, frequency counters, and spectrum analyzers, to the equipment being tested. BNC connectors are also widely used on 0.25-in coaxial cables in LANs and some UHF radios.

8. Which type of coaxial cable connector is the least expensive?
a) PL-259
b) F-type connector
c) SMA
d) BNC
Answer: b
Clarification: The least expensive coaxial cable connector is the F-type connector, which is widely used for TV sets, VCRs, DVD players, and cable TV. The cable plug and its matching chassis jack are shown in Fig. 13-6. The shield of the coaxial cable is crimped to the connector, and the solid wire center conductor of the cable, rather than a separate pin, is used as the connection. A hex-shaped outer ring is threaded to attach the plug to the mating jack.

9. Which is the best type of coaxial cable connector in terms of performance?
a) PL-259
b) N-type connector
c) SMA
d) BNC
Answer: b
Clarification: The best-performing coaxial connector is the N-type connector, which is used mainly on large coaxial cable at the higher frequencies, both UHF and microwave. N-type connectors are complex and expensive, but do a better job than other connectors in maintaining the electrical characteristics of the cable through the interconnections.

10. Two parallel lines appear as a complex impedance when the transmission line is equal to the wavelength of the signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: When the length of a transmission line is longer than several wavelengths at the signal frequency, the two parallel conductors of the transmission line appear as a complex impedance. The wires exhibit considerable series inductance whose reactance is significant at high frequencies.

11. Parallel conductors form a distributed inductance with the insulation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The parallel conductors, in a transmission line, form a distributed capacitance with the insulation, which acts as the dielectric. This causes characteristic impedance.

To practice all areas of Avionics for tests,

250+ TOP MCQs on Point Source Radio Systems and Answers

Avionics Multiple Choice Questions on “Point Source Radio Systems”.

1. Which type of direction finders takes bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the aircraft of its bearing from the ground station?
a) Ground based
b) Airborne direction finders
c) Homing adapters
d) Homing beacon
Answer: a
Clarification: Ground based direction finders take bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the aircraft of its bearing from the ground station. Such stations can afford the necessary complex equipment, but the operation is cumbersome and time consuming, and requires airborne transmitter and communication link.

2. Which of the following is not true with respect to airborne direction finder?
a) They are also called homing adapters
b) Uses the simplest of systems
c) Very low error
d) Take bearings on the ground transmitter
Answer: c
Clarification: Airborne direction finder or homing adapters take bearing from ground transmitters. These direction finders typically can afford only the simplest of systems and must, therefore, tolerate large errors.

3. Which of the following type of direction finder has a system that rotates the loop, using a servo system until a null is found?
a) Fixed loop
b) Rotatable loop
c) Rotating loop
d) Fixed, crossed loop
Answer: c
Clarification: The rotating loop is driven by a motor and forming part of a servo system that rotates the loop until a null is found and then stops. They are sometimes referred to as the radio compass and are housed inside plastic structures that do not reflect radio waves.

4. Which of the following is not true with respect to loop antennas?
a) Horizontal polarization is assumed
b) Resonance is achieved by a variable capacitor
c) The horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of eight
d) The currents are equal in amplitude and phase when the antenna is 90° with the transmitted signal
Answer: a
Clarification: The loop antenna is a rectangular loop of wire whose inductance is resonated by a variable capacitor. The signal is assumed to be vertically polarized and the horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of eight. When the loop is 90° with respect to the transmitted signal the currents induced are of same amplitude and phase.

5. What can be added to reduce signal ambiguity in a loop antenna?
a) Low noise amplifier
b) Amplifiers
c) Sense antenna
d) Increase the antenna size
Answer: c
Clarification: The horizontal pattern of the loop antenna is a figure of eight which has two null positions 180° apart. This ambiguity will cause the system to give the same indication whether it is pointing toward a station or away from it. A sense antenna can be added when the signal ambiguity must be resolved.

6. What is used to combine the output of the two fixed loop antenna that are placed at right angles to each other?
a) Oscilloscope
b) Spectrum analyzer
c) Mixer
d) Goniometer
Answer: d
Clarification: The goniometer has two sets of fixed windings at right angles to each other, each set connected to one loop. It combines the output from the loop antenna into miniature a magnetic field in which a rotor can operate.

7. The area of reduced signal strength in a non directional beacon is called as ______
a) Cone of silence
b) Zero reception zone
c) Zone of silence
d) Non radio zone
Answer: a
Clarification: The NDB works on an omnidirectional antenna which has the radio pattern of a donut. The zone on the middle which is directly above the antenna is called as the cone of silence. In this region, no signal is transmitted.

8. Which of the following is not an advantage of NDB?
a) Inexpensive
b) Omnidirectional
c) Accuracy depends on airborne equipment
d) No mountain and night effect
Answer: d
Clarification: NDB uses ground waves which follow the curvature of earth. They are inexpensive and independent of accuracy issues but suffer from night effect and mountain effect. Mountain effect is the distortion of ground wave in terrain of nonuniform character.

9. What frequency does the marker beacon use for fixes along the airways?
a) 50MHz
b) 25MHz
c) 500MHz
d) 75MHz
Answer: d
Clarification: Marker beacons were developed for better fixes along the airways in addition to directional information. They operate at 75MHz and radiate a narrow pattern upward from the ground.

10. Which of the following can be used to reinforce the upward beam in a marker beacon?
a) Reflector
b) Amplifier
c) Counterpoise
d) Vertical polarization
Answer: c
Clarification: The marker beacons use an array of half wave radiators that are aligned in line with the airway. A wire mesh counterpoise below this array can be used to reinforce the upward beam by increasing the signal strength in a particular direction.

11. What is the frequency of rotation of the directional beam in a VOR?
a) 20rps
b) 15rps
c) 30rps
d) 50rps
Answer:c
Clarification: The VOR sends out two signals. One is a highly directional signal that rotates at a frequency of 30 rps and an omnidirectional signal. The omnidirectional signal is pulsed every time the directional signal coincides with north.

12. Which of the following generates the same field pattern as a vertical dipole antenna?
a) Yagi antenna
b) Helix antenna
c) Alford loop
d) Microstrip antenna
Answer: c
Clarification: Each radiator in the ground station transmitter is an Alford loop. The Alford loop generates a horizontal polarized signal having the same field pattern as a vertical dipole.

13. What is the time gap between each pulse in an interrogation pulse pair for a DME?
a) 12μsec
b) 5μsec
c) 15μsec
d) 10μsec
Answer: a
Clarification: The interrogation pulses are in pairs. Each pulse is placed 12μsec apart with each pulse lasting 3.5μsec. The pulse pair repetition rate ranges between 5 pulse pairs per sec to a maximum of 150 pulse pairs per sec.

14. Why are pulse pairs used in DME instead of single pulses?
a) Reduce interference
b) Better range
c) Reduced noise
d) Redundancy
Answer: a
Clarification: Pulse systems can easily interfere with each other even if they are of different frequencies. Paired pulses are used in DME to reduce interference with other pulsed systems.

15. What is the frequency in which the DME transmits?
a) 50Mhz above or below the received frequency
b) 20Mhz above the received frequency
c) 40Mhz below the received frequency
d) 63Mhz above or below the received frequency
Answer: d
Clarification: The Ground beacon in the DME receives the airborne pulses, and after a 50μs delay, retransmits them back to the aircraft on a frequency 63Mhz above or below the airborne transmitting frequency. Here the frequency received by the DME is the Airborne transmitting frequency.

250+ TOP MCQs on Vertical & Heading References and Answers

Avionics Multiple Choice Questions on “Vertical & Heading References”.

1. How to determine the true vertical reference?
a) Differentiating
b) Time average of apparent vertical
c) Integration
d) Sum of all the apparent vertical
Answer: b
Clarification: The simplest approach to the determination of the true vertical is to time-average the direction of the apparent vertical(vector sum of gravity and vehicle acceleration).

2. When is the gyro interrupted in erection cutoff method?
a) Deviation is large
b) Deviation is low
c) Never interrupted
d) Always interrupted
Answer: a
Clarification: The error caused in the vertical referencing can be rectified by introducing nonlinearities. One such method is the erection cutoff where the precession of the gyroscope is interrupted when a large deflection is sensed.

3. Which one of the following is the basic vertical reference in all forms of heading and attitude devices?
a) Line perpendicular to artificial horizon
b) Earth’s gravitational field
c) Line perpendicular to actual horizon
d) Earth’s magnetic field
Answer: b
Clarification: The basic vertical reference in all forms of heading and attitude reference devices is the Earth’s gravitational field. The direction of Earth’s gravitational field can be sensed with great accuracy in stationary systems. However, when the platform moves, all the instruments indicate the vector sum vehicle acceleration and local gravity.

4. The error that occurs due to the rotation of Earth as well as the aircraft’s own motion is called as ______
a) Asymmetrical error
b) Precession rate error
c) Rate compensation error
d) Standoff constant error
Answer: d
Clarification: A stand off constant error exists since the direction of the local vertical changes as a result of both the rotation of the Earth and the aircraft’s own motion around the Earth.

5. A special mode for initial leveling is needed when using erection cutoff mode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: When erection cutoff is used, there is a need for a special mode of operation that provides initial leveling, because no precession rate would exist in the presence of large initial tilt.

6. What can be done to reduce to avoid poor acceleration error averaging?
a) Use higher order leveling loop
b) Use lowest order leveling loop
c) Use switch gravity sensors
d) Use differential leveling loop
Answer: a
Clarification: The stand off error depends upon the gravity sensors switch’s dead and gives poor acceleration errors. Significant improvement can be obtained in the averaging vertical reference by using a high order leveling loop.

7. The relative acceleration of a vehicle moving with respect to a rotating Earth can be divided into three parts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: When a vehicle moves at a velocity relative to the rotating Earth, the inertial acceleration can be divided into three parts: Acceleration relative to the surface of Earth, Coriolis acceleration caused by rotation of Earth, and a correction that depends on the coordinate frame in which the gyro is constrained.

8. Inertial heading references are better than a magnetic compass.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The best airborne heading references are the inertial navigators. Less expensive, smaller and less accurate references are those that depend on the Earth’s magnetic field, those that depend on the use of gyroscopes to retain a preset azimuth, and those that use subinertial gyros to maintain a three axis reference.

9. Which of the following is not a unit of the magnetic field?
a) Gamma
b) Gauss
c) Tesla
d) Maxwell
Answer: d
Clarification: The magnetic fields B are measured in Gauss and Tesla(104 Gauss). In geomagnetism, Units of “Gamma”(10-5 )are used.

10. What is the orientation of the Earth’s magnetic axis with respect to its spin axis?
a) 2°
b) 0°
c) 11°
d) 24°
Answer: c
Clarification: The Earth’s magnetic field is produced by a bar magnet oriented 11°away from the spin axis and passing within a hundred kilometers of its center.

11. Which of the following is not the angle between the horizontal component of B and true north?
a) Magnetic declination
b) Magnetic variation
c) Dip angle
d) Magvar
Answer: c
Clarification: The magnetic declination, also called the magnetic variation or magvar, is the angle between the horizontal component of B and true north. Navigators use ‘magvar’ in order not to confuse astronomical declination with magnetic declination.

12. Why does magvar have diurnal change?
a) Magnetic pole migration
b) Static buildup error
c) Sensitivity of the instruments
d) Variation in aircraft magnetic effects
Answer: a
Clarification: Magvar has a diurnal change, a long term change due to the migration of magnetic poles, and random changes because of magnetic storms. The magnitude of the magnetic field changes about 0.5% per year.

13. Which of the following is used to sense aircraft magnetic fields?
a) Magnetic compass
b) Airborne magnetometer
c) Accelerometer
d) Gyroscope
Answer: b
Clarification: Aircraft have magnetic fields that add to the Earth’s field and are sensed by the airborne magnetometers. The induced error, called deviation, can be 10° or more.

14. Magnetic compass is also called as whiskey compass.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The simplest compasses measure the orientation of the nearly free permanent magnet attached to a buoyant body floating in a liquid. Since the liquid is usually alcohol, it is also called as whisky compass.

250+ TOP MCQs on Traffic Alert, Collision Avoidance System & Weather Radar and Answers

Avionics Questions and Answers for Entrance exams on “Traffic Alert, Collision Avoidance System & Weather Radar”.

1. The time between the collision of two aircraft on a collision course is called _____
a) Differential time
b) Tau
c) Traffic time
d) Collision time
Answer: b
Clarification: Tau is the range of the other aircraft with respect to an aircraft divided by range rate. Range divided by range rate is time-essentially the time that would elapse before a collision.

2. What does the threshold number for Tau depend on?
a) Speed of the aircraft
b) Size of the aircraft
c) Experience of the pilots
d) Maneuverability of the aircraft
Answer: d
Clarification: the threshold number for Tau, whether it is 10 sec or 100 sec depends on the ability of the aircraft to maneuver and avoid a collision.

3. What is the surveillance range of a general TCAS system?
a) 30 sec
b) 20 min
c) 2 min
d) 4 min
Answer:d
Clarification: The range of a general TCAS system is around 4 minutes before collision. At 45 seconds before collision TCAS gives traffic advisory and at 25 seconds before collision provides resolution advisory.

4. TCAS I provide proximity warning only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: TCAS I provide only proximity warning and aids the pilot in visual identification of potential threat aircraft.

5. Whisper shout is used to avoid garble in TCAS.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: TCAS uses two different methods to avoid garbling. One is whisper shout and the other is using directional interrogations.

6. What is the range of typical weather radar?
a) 500 nmi
b) 50 nmi
c) 5 nmi
d) 200 nmi
Answer: d
Clarification: The use of airborne weather radar is one method of storm avoidance. A weather radar system can show centers at a distance of up to 200 nmi.

7. What is the frequency of operation of weather radar?
a) 1000 MHz
b) 500 kHz
c) 9375 MHz
d) 548 kHz
Answer: c
Clarification: The weather radar operates at a frequency of 9375 MHz, corresponding to a wavelength of 3 cm. This small wavelength gets easily reflected from clouds containing high water concentrations.

8. What is the gain required by a weather radar antenna?
a) 65 dB
b) 50 dB
c) 25 dB
d) 5 dB
Answer: c
Clarification: The signal strength of echoes from storms located at a distance from the aircraft is very low, which requires the transmitter to operate at very high power levels and that the antenna have a gain of more than 25 dB.

9. A power of 5 kW to 50 kW is required even when using narrow beams.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Even with narrow beamwidth antennas, the radar transmitter requires from 5kW to 50kW of output power. When coupled with an antenna of 25 dB, this combination can result in an effective power more than a million watts.

10. What is the minimum safe approach distance for a radar system operating in excess of 5kWhr?
a) 100ft
b) 10ft
c) 17ft
d) 4ft
Answer: d
Clarification: With radar system operating in excess of 5kW output, the minimum safe approach distance to weather radar is about 4ft.

Avionics for Entrance exams,