300+ TOP Basic Civil Engineering MCQ Questions and Answers Pdf

Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

1. Stones are obtained from rocks that are made up of:
A. Ores

B. Minerals

C. Chemical compounds

D. Crystals

Answer: B.Minerals

2. Which one of the following is not a classification of stones?
A. Physical Classification

B. Mineralogical Classification

C. Chemical Classification

D. Practical Classification

Answer: B.Mineralogical Classification

3. The hot molten material occurring naturally below the surface of the Earth is called:
A. Lava

B. Slag

C. Magma

D. Tuff

Answer: C.Magma

4. At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed?
A. Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth

B. Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth

C. Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface

D. Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth

Answer: B.Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth

5. What is a sedimentary deposit?
A. Weathered product remains at site

B. Weathered product carried away in solution

C. Weathered product gets carried away agents

D. Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension

Answer: D.Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension

6. Which of the following is not a metamorphic change?
A. Calcite to schist

B. Limestone to marble

C. Shale to slate

D. Granite to gneisses

Answer: A.Calcite to schist

7. Which of the following rocks are hard and durable?
A. Argillaceous rocks

B. Siliceous rocks

C. Calcareous rocks

D. Carbonaceous rocks

Answer: B.Siliceous rocks

8. Foliated structure is very common in case of:
A. Sedimentary rocks

B. Plutonic rocks

C. Igneous rocks

D. Metamorphic rocks

Answer: D.Metamorphic rocks

9. Granite is a type of:
A. Plutonic rock

B. Metamorphic rock

C. Hypabyssal rock

D. Volcanic rock

Answer: A.Plutonic rock

10. Which of the following is a good fire-resistant stone?
A. Clay

B. Granite

C. Quartz

D. Limestone

Answer: A.Clay

11. What is sand composed of?
A. Silica

B. Silicon

C. Silicon oxide

D. Quartz

Answer: A.Silica

12. Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
A. Sea sand

B. Clayey sand

C. Pit sand

D. River sand

Answer: C.Pit sand

13. Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
A. IS 456

B. IS 383

C. IS 2368

D. IS 1542

Answer: B.IS 383

14. What type of grains constitutes river sand?
A. Angular

B. Flaky

C. Irregular

D. Rounded

Answer: D.Rounded

15. How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
A. 3

B. 2

C. 5

D. 4

Answer: A.3

16. Fine sand is generally used for which of the following works?
A. Masonry

B. Concrete structures

C. Plastering

D. Grinding and polishing

Answer: C.Plastering

17. How is M-sand produced?
A. Crushing bricks

B. Quarrying

C. Reusing the debris of demolished building

D. Crushing granite stones

Answer: D.Crushing granite stones

18. By which of the following ways is lime obtained?
A. Naturally

B. Quarrying

C. Burning limestone

D. Crushing limestone

Answer: C.Burning limestone

19. Which of the following pairs is matched properly?
A. Class A – Concrete work

B. Class B – Mortar

C. Class C – Masonry work

D. Class D – White washing

Answer: B.Class B – Mortar

20. Which of the following is a property of Fat Lime?
A. Shakes very slowly

B. Contains clay

C. High degree of plasticity

D. Poor binding property

Answer: C.High degree of plasticity

21. Lime obtained from calcination of Pure Limestone is called:
A. Quick Lime

B. Pure Lime

C. Lean Lime

D. Rich Lime

Answer: A.Quick Lime

22. Which of the following slakes after few minutes?
A. Moderately Hydraulic Lime

B. Eminently Hydraulic Lime

C. Perfectly Hydraulic Lime

D. Feebly Hydraulic Lime

Answer: D.Feebly Hydraulic Lime

23. Which of the following types of Lime does not exist?
A. Dolomitic Lime

B. Roman Lime

C. Semi-Hydraulic Lime

D. Selentic Lime

Answer: B.Roman Lime

24. Why is natural cement used very limitedly?
A. Brown in Colour

B. Standard consistency is not met with

C. Sets too quickly

D. Particle size is too fine

Answer: C.Sets too quickly

25. Who invented Portland cement and in which year?
A. William Aspdin, 1824

B. William Aspdin, 1840s

C. Joseph Aspdin, 1840s

D. Joseph Aspdin, 1824

Answer: B.William Aspdin, 1840s

26. What is the average particle size of cement?
A. 15 microns

B. 45 microns

C. 75 microns

D. 100 microns

Answer: A.15 microns

27. What is the meaning of soundness of cement?
A. Ability to flow when mixed

B. Ability to make ringing noise when struck

C. Ability to form strong and sound structure

D. Ability to retain volume after setting.

Answer: D.Ability to retain volume after setting.

28. Time elapsed from the instance of adding water until paste ceases to behave as fluid iscalled:
A. Initial setting time

B. Final setting time

C. Intermediate setting time

D. Absolute setting time

Answer: A.Initial setting time

29. Which of the below mentioned is not a result of field test performed on cement?
A. There should not be any lumps

B. It should feel cold when you put your hand in bag of cement

C. The colour should be blackish grey

D. It should not be gritty when rubbed with finger

Answer: C.The colour should be blackish grey

30. Which equipment is used to test the setting time of cement?
A. Core cutter

B. Vibrator

C. Universal testing machine (UTM)

D. Vicat apparatus

Answer: D.Vicat apparatus

31. What is the initial setting time of cement?
A. 1 hour

B. 30 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 30 hours

Answer: B.30 minutes

32. Use of coarser cement particles leads to:
A. Low durability

B. Higher strength

C. Low consistency

D. Higher soundness

Answer: A.Low durability

33. Green cement is:
A. Green coloured cement

B. Cement mixed with plant products

C. Cement mixed with recycled materials

D. Cement mixed with green algae

Answer: C.Cement mixed with recycled materials

34. What is the depth the needle in Vicat apparatus should penetrate into the cement paste in consistency test?
A. 33-35 cm from bottom of the mould

B. 33-35 mm from top of the mould

C. 33-35 cm from top of the mould

D. 33-35 mm from bottom of the mould

Answer: B.33-35 mm from top of the mould

35. What is the most dominant constituent of cement?
A. Silica

B. Lime

C. Magnesia

D. Alumina

Answer: B.Lime

36. Deficiency of lime in cement leads to:
A. Unsound cement

B. Disintegration of cement

C. Quick setting of cement

D. Exp

Answer: C.Quick setting of cement

37. What effect does calcium sulphate have on cement?
A. Retards setting action

B. Acts as flux

C. Imparts colour

D. Reduces strength

Answer: A.Retards setting action

38. Which of the following adds a quick-setting property to cement?
A. Magnesium oxide

B. Silicon dioxide

C. Iron oxide

D. Aluminium oxide

Answer: D.Aluminium oxide

39. Which of the following imparts greenish grey colour to cement?
A. Calcium silicate

B. Calcium aluminate

C. Calcium aluminate ferrite

D. Calcium carbonate

Answer: C.Calcium aluminate ferrite

40. Excess of Alkali in cement results in:
A. Dry cement paste

B. Efflorescence

C. Less plasticity

D. Unsound cement

Answer: B.Efflorescence

41. What function does iron oxide perform in cement?
A. Increases strength

B. Makes cement sound

C. Increases setting time

D. Acts as flux

Answer: D.Acts as flux

42. What is the abbreviation of PPC?
A. Perfect Portland Cement

B. Portland Produced Cement

C. Portland Pozzolana Cement

D. Productive Portland Cement

Answer: C.Portland Pozzolana Cement

43. Which of the following is not an advantage of rapid hardening cement?
A. Faster construction

B. Short curing period

C. Light in weight

D. Higher final setting time

Answer: D.Higher final setting time

44. How many types of cement are there based on the ability to set in presence of water?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: A.2

45. What property does air-entraining cement provide?
A. Workability

B. Soundness

C. Fineness

D. Strength

Answer: A.Workability

46. How many constituents are there in the brick earth?
A. 5

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Answer: A.5

47. Which one of the below is the most important ingredient in the brick earth?
A. Alumina

B. Lime

C. Silica

D. Magnesia

Answer: C.Silica

48. In what form should lime be present in the brick earth?
A. Paste

B. Lump

C. Clinker

D. Powder

Answer: D.Powder

49. Excess of oxides of iron makes the brick:
A. Red in colour

B. Black in colour

C. Dark blue in colour

D. Yellow in colour

Answer: C.Dark blue in colour

50. What happens to raw bricks if an excess of alumina is present?
A. Becomes hard

B. Becomes brittle

C. Decay

D. Shrinkage

Answer: D.Shrinkage

51. What is the harmful effect of presents of alkali in brick earth on bricks?
A. Discolourises bricks

B. Efflorescence

C. Porous bricks

D. Flaking

Answer: B.Efflorescence

52. Why do bricks become brittle when excess silica is present?
A. Pores are created

B. Flaking occurs

C. Thermal stability is lost

D. Cohesion is lost

Answer: D.Cohesion is lost

53. Which of the following leads to the formation of small pores in brick?
A. Iron pyrites

B. Pebbles

C. Organic matter

D. Alkalis

Answer: C.Organic matter

54. The presence of which of the below renders clay totally unsuitable for brick manufacture?
A. Kallar

B. Kankar

C. Hay

D. Lime

Answer: A.Kallar

55. Unburnt bricks are also called:
A. Dry bricks

B. Clayey bricks

C. Kucha bricks

D. Clamp bricks

Answer: C.Kucha bricks

56. Burnt bricks can be further classified into how many types?
A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Answer: B.4

57. First class bricks are used for:
A. Brick ballast in R.C.C

B. Boundary walls

C. Low height walls

D. Pavements

Answer: D.Pavements
58. The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is:
A. 3.5 N/mm2

B. 7 N/mm2

C. 10 N/mm2

D. 20 N/mm2

Answer: A.3.5 N/mm2

59. Which of the following is not a feature of second class bricks?
A. Have small irregularities

B. Water absorption is between 20-25%

C. Rectangular in shape

D. Free from cracks

Answer: B.Water absorption is between 20-25%

60. Trees are generally classified, based on the mode of growth into:
A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 3

Answer: A.2

61. What is the life time of a moderately durable timber?
A. 10-20 years

B. 1-5 years

C. 10-15 years

D. 5-10 years

Answer: D.5-10 years

62. Which of the following is an example of soft wood?
A. Sal

B. Oak

C. Deodar

D. Mahogany

Answer: C.Deodar

63. Which IS Code gives a classification of commercial timbers and their zonal distribution?
A. IS 620

B. IS 399

C. IS 401

D. IS 190

Answer: B.IS 399

64. Hard wood is strong in tension and weak in compression.
A. True

B. False

Answer: B.False

65. Exogenous trees are further divided into:
A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 5

Answer: C.2

66. Which of the below is a property of soft wood?
A. Medullary rays are less distinct

B. Annual rings are less distinct

C. Dark in colour

D. Close grained structure

Answer: A.Medullary rays are less distinct

67. Fine Aggregates should pass through which IS sieve?
A. 2.35mm

B. 45µ

C. 4.75mm

D. 75µ

Answer: C.4.75mm

68. How many types of fine aggregates are there based on source?
A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Answer: A.3

69. What is the fineness modulus value of a fine sand?
A. <2.2

B. 2.2-2.6

C. <1

D. 1-2

Answer: B.2.2-2.6

70. M-Sand has ___________ type of particle shape.
A. Flaky

B. Round

C. Angular

D. Cubical

Answer: D.Cubical

71. The specific gravity for sand is:
A. 2.6

B. 2.65

C. 2.8

D. 2.75

Answer: A.2.6

72. Graded aggregate contains particles of size:
A. Single grade

B. 4.75mm

C. Multi grade

D. <80mm

Answer: C.Multi grade

73. Flaky particles have:
A. Small thickness

B. Elongated sides

C. Sharp edges

D. Rounded edges

Answer: A.Small thickness

74. Which size coarse aggregate is ideal for use in a concrete mix?
A. Smaller

B. 4.75-10mm

C. Larger

D. 10-20mm

Answer: C.Larger

75. In crushing test on coarse aggregates, what size particle is taken as a sample?
A. Passing 12.5mm IS sieve

B. Retained on 10mm IS sieve

C. Passing 10mm and retained on 4.75mm IS sieve

D. Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve

Answer: D.Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve

76. Gravel is a type of:
A. Rounded aggregate

B. Angular aggregate

C. Flaky aggregate

D. Irregular aggregate

Answer: D.Irregular aggregate

77. A building can be mainly divided into how many components?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 6

D. 8

Answer: B.3

78. D.P.C (Damp Proof Course) is mainly laid on:
A. Footing

B. Floor

C. Foundation

D. Plinth

Answer: D.Plinth

79. Floor in a building
A. Separates levels

B. Is laid below plinth

C. Contains R.C.C.

D. Has thickness of 10cm

Answer: A.Separates levels

80. Which of the below is constructed above doors, windows?
A. Joist

B. Purlin

C. Lintel

D. Arch

Answer: C.Lintel
81. What is the level below window called?
A. Pane level

B. Lintel level

C. Sill level

D. Plinth level

Answer: C.Sill level
82. Wall is mainly of how many types?
A. 3

B. 2

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: B.2
83. ___________ wall is used to resist lateral forces like severe wind.
A. Knee wall

B. Cavity wall

C. Infill wall

D. Shear wall

Answer: D.Shear wall
84. The outer projection on the tread of a stair is:
A. Going

B. Outcrop

C. Bulge

D. Nosing

Answer: D.Nosing
85. Mortar comes from the Latin word:
A. Mortare

B. Mortarum

C. Mortaer

D. Mortarium

Answer: D.Mortarium
86. The first used Mortar was:
A. Lime mortar

B. Mud mortar

C. Cement mortar

D. Organic mortar

Answer: B.Mud mortar
87. Polymer Cement Mortar (PCM) is used primarily for:
A. Repairing concrete structure

B. Stone masonry

C. Tile masonry

D. Brick masonry

Answer: A.Repairing concrete structure
88. The guidelines for preparation for mortar is given in:
A. IS 4455

B. IS 2250-1981

C. IS 3350-1981

D. IS 5567

Answer: B.IS 2250-1981
89. Which of the below is added to make mortar fire proof?
A. Gypsum

B. Asbestos cement

C. Powdered glass

D. Aluminous cement

Answer: D.Aluminous cement
90. The setting speed of mortar can be increased using:
A. Lime

B. Sulphur

C. Pozzolana

D. Gypsum

Answer: A.Lime
91. Which of the below mortar can settle under water?
A. Hydrolytic

B. Pozzolana

C. Lime

D. Flyash

Answer: B.Pozzolana
92. Which stone is used for buildings situated in industrial towns?
A. Marble slab

B. Compact sandstone

C. Gneiss

D. Slate

Answer: B.Compact sandstone
93. Rubble masonry is sub-divided into:
A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 10

Answer: C.6
94. Which of the below joints is used for masonry in arches?
A. Butt

B. Table

C. Rebated

D. Dowel

Answer: C.Rebated
95. Which ratio of cement mortar is used for stone masonry?
A. 1:6

B. 1:3

C. 1:8

D. 1:4

Answer: B.1:3
96. Ashlar masonry uses:
A. Dimension stones

B. Polygonal stones

C. Quarry dressed stones

D. Square stones

Answer: A.Dimension stones
97. __________ masonry occupies an intermediate position between rubble masonry andashlar masonry.
A. Rubble block in a course

B. Ashlar rubble in course

C. Ashlar block in a course

D. Rubble ashlar in course

Answer: C.Ashlar block in a course
98. Great skill and skilled labour are required for laying:
A. Coursed rubble masonry

B. Ashlar fine masonry

C. Ashlar chamfered masonry

D. Dry rubble masonry

Answer: D.Dry rubble masonry
99. How many types of brick masonry are possible?
A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: A.4
100. In which bond brick is laid with its length in the direction of a wall?
A. Header

B. Flemish

C. Stretcher

D. English

Answer: C.Stretcher

101. Which of the below should be avoided in brick masonry?
A. Horizontal joints

B. Queen closer

C. Brick bat

D. Vertical joints

Answer: D.Vertical joints
102. _________ bond is better in appearance than English bond.
A. Flemish

B. Double Flemish

C. Single Flemish

D. Poly Flemish

Answer: B.Double Flemish
103. Flemish bond is expensive than English bond.
A. True

B. False

Answer: B.False
104. In Herringbone bond, bricks are placed at _________ angle from __________ line in bothdirections.
A. 600, central

B. 600, vertical

C. 450, central

D. 450, vertical

Answer: C.450, central
105. The portion of bricks cut across the width in half is called:
A. Half split

B. Half closer

C. Half bed

D. Half bat

Answer: D.Half bat
106. What should be placed at the beginning of every header course in English bond to avoidvertical joint?
A. Queen closer

B. Half bat

C. Three fourth bat

D. Three fourth bat

Answer: A.Queen closer
107. The bricks used for corners of walls of a structure are called:
A. Spalls

B. Quoins

C. Hearting

D. Side

Answer: B.Quoins
108. Which bond comprises of one course of a header to three or five courses of stretchers?
A. Dutch bond

B. Zig-zag bond

C. English garden-wall bond

D. Facing bond

Answer: C.English garden-wall bond
109. How many components are mainly used to prepare concrete?
A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

Answer: D.4
110. Which of the below is the most common alternative to cement in concrete?
A. Slag

B. Fly ash

C. Asphalt

D. Lime

Answer: C.Asphalt
111. What is the ideal water-cement ratio to be used while hand mixing?
A. 0.4-0.5

B. 0.5-0.6

C. 0.6-1

D. 1.6-2

Answer: B.0.5-0.6
112. Retarders are used for:
A. Construction of high rise building

B. Repair works

C. Cold weather conditions

D. Grouting deep oil wells

Answer: D.Grouting deep oil wells
113. _________ is added to make white concrete.
A. Fly ash

B. Metakaolin

C. Rise husk

D. Pigments

Answer: B.Metakaolin
114. As water cement ratio increases, ________ also increases.
A. Compressive strength

B. Tensile strength

C. Bleeding

D. Workability

Answer: D.Workability
115. Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?
A. Hydroxylated carboxylic acid

B. Fluoro-silicate

C. Gypsum

D. Surkhi

Answer: A.Hydroxylated carboxylic acid
116. Which component of concrete gives it desired compressive strength?
A. Water

B. Cement

C. Aggregates

D. Admixture

Answer: C.Aggregates
117. What is the ratio of the component in grade M20 concrete?
A. 1:3:6

B. 1:1.5:3

C. 1:1:2

D. 1:2:4

Answer: B.1:1.5:3
118. The most common type of door is:
A. Double leaf door

B. Louvred door

C. Single leaf door

D. Battened door

Answer: C.Single leaf door
119. A casement window hung horizontally is called:
A. Hopper

B. Awning

C. Pivot

D. Tr

Answer: A.Hopper
120. Light, a term used in windows, is:
A. Area between outer parts of a window

B. Glazed part of the window

C. Area between inner parts of a window

D. Opening of the window allowing light

Answer: A.Area between outer parts of a window

121. If a door swings towards the person opening it, it is called:
A. Left handed

B. Reverse

C. Normal

D. Right handed

Answer: B.Reverse
122. Which of the below material of window has life span of 50 years?
A. PVC

B. Steel

C. UPVC

D. Aluminum

Answer: C.UPVC
123. ________ door swings both ways.
A. Mead

B. Dutch

C. Garden

D. French

Answer: A.Mead
124. The difference between magnetic north and geographic north is:
A. Dip

B. Strike

C. Declination

D. Bearing

Answer: C.Declination
125. In the triangulation method, the whole area is divided into:
A. Scale triangles

B. Triangles

C. Obtuse triangles

D. Well-conditioned triangles

Answer: D.Well-conditioned triangles

126. A stone that marks boundary is called:
A. Merestone

B. Milestone

C. Metestone

D. Linestone

Answer: A.Merestone
127. Which of the below is not a classification of surveying?
A. Marine

B. Basement

C. Astronomical

D. Land

Answer: B.Basement
128. EDM stands for:
A. Errorless Distance Measurement

B. Electronic Direct Measurement

C. Electronic Distance Measurement

D. Errorless Direct Measurement

Answer: C.Electronic Distance Measurement
129. Plane and geodetic surveying are classifications of surveying based on:
A. Methodology

B. Earth’s curvature

C. Object of survey

D. Instrument

Answer: B.Earth’s curvature
130. _________ errors are small unavoidable fluctuation.
A. Random

B. Gross

C. Systematic

D. Mistake

Answer: A.Random
131. Which of the below is not a means of linear surveying methods?
A. Theodolite

B. EDM

C. Tape

D. Chain

Answer: A.Theodolite
132. An offset is a _________ distance of an object measured from the survey line.
A. Lateral

B. Horizontal

C. Normal

D. Inclined

Answer: A.Lateral
133. Which of the below is not an instrument used to set right angles?
A. Cross staff

B. Site square

C. Optical staff

D. Prism square

Answer: C.Optical staff
134. How many types of chains are used in chain surveying?
A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Answer: B.5
135. Gunter’s chain consists of _________ links.
A. 500

B. 50

C. 1000

D. 100

Answer: D.100
136. The process of a location of intermediate points on a survey line is:
A. Aligning

B. Extending

C. Ranging

D. Offsetting

Answer: C.Ranging
137. The biggest of the survey line is called:
A. First line

B. Base line

C. Tie line

D. Main survey line

Answer: B.Base line
138. Chain surveying uses the principle of:
A. Traversing

B. Chaining

C. Ranging

D. Triangulation

Answer: D.Triangulation
139. In how many ways can ranging be carried out?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: A.2
140. The book in which chain measurements are entered is called:
A. Field book

B. Record book

C. Study book

D. Chain book

Answer: A.Field book
141. How many types of cross staff are available?
A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: C.3
142. Survey stations may be marked on the ground using a:
A. Pole

B. Rod

C. Pointer

D. Peg

Answer: D.Peg
143. The direction of a line relative to a given meridian is called:
A. Bearing

B. Declination

C. Angle

D. Dip

Answer: A.Bearing
144. How many types of a compass are used in surveying?
A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

Answer: B.2
145. ___________ bearing is measured in the direction of survey.
A. Primary

B. First

C. Fore

D. Front

Answer: C.Fore
146. In a reduced bearing system, bearing is measured from:
A. Nearest one (North or South)

B. South

C. West

D. North

Answer: A.Nearest one (North or South)
147. Prismatic Compass is based on the reduced bearing system.
A. True

B. False

Answer: B.False
148. The bearing of line AB as shown below is represented in reduced bearing as:
A. N150o

B. E60oS

C. S30o

D. S30oE

Answer: D.S30oE
149. How many meridians are used in surveying?
A. 6

B. 8

C. 3

D. 5

Answer: C.3
150. ________ is a term used that prevents the needle from pointing to the magnetic North in agiven locality.
A. Local attraction

B. Declination

C. Deviation

D. Local distraction

Answer: A.Local attraction

151. ___________ line is the line drawn through points of the same declination.
A. Polygonic

B. Isogonic

C. Syngonic

D. Agonic

Answer: B.Isogonic
152. Which of the below is not a temporary adjustment of the prismatic compass?
A. Centring

B. Levelling

C. Focussing prism

D. Adjusting sight vane

Answer: D.Adjusting sight vane
153. How many types of variations in declination are there?
A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

Answer: A.4
154. A levelling staff is used to establish:
A. Horizontal line of sight

B. Vertical line of sight

C. Location of points

D. Distance of points

Answer: A.Horizontal line of sight
155. Dumpy level was originally designed by:
A. Fennel

B. Heerbrugg

C. Stanley

D. Gravatt

Answer: D.Gravatt
156. Which of the below is used to make a line of sight horizontally in a level?
A. Foot screws

B. Levelling head

C. Telescope

D. Tangent screws

Answer: A.Foot screws
157. A digital level reads a:
A. Target staff

B. Barcoded staff

C. Digital staff

D. Telescopic staff

Answer: B.Barcoded staff
158. Which of the below cannot be used to measure vertical heights?
A. Self level

B. Aneroid barometer

C. Transit

D. Hypsometer

Answer: C.Transit
159. How many types of self-reading staff are available?
A. 5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: C.3
160. Which of the below is not common in all levelling equipment?
A. Telescope

B. Level vials

C. Level rods

D. Tilting screws

Answer: D.Tilting screws
161. Trigonometric levelling is also called:
A. Indirect levelling

B. Differential levelling

C. Fly levelling

D. Profile levelling

Answer: A.Indirect levelling
162. In _________ levelling, the first and last point are at a far distance.
A. Fly

B. Differential

C. Profile

D. Reciprocal

Answer: B.Differential
163. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:
A. Fly levelling

B. Differential levelling

C. Simple levelling

D. Trigonometric levelling

Answer: D.Trigonometric levelling
164. Reciprocal levelling is used when,
A. Flat terrain

B. Obstacles are there

C. BM not visible

D. Highway construction

Answer: B.Obstacles are there
165. In a hilly terrain, staff reading is more at:
A. Lower point

B. Higher point

C. First point

D. Last point

Answer: A.Lower point
166. Which is the arithmetic check for the height of instrument method?
A. ∑FS + ∑BS = First RL + Last RL@

B. ∑BS – ∑FS = Last RL – First RL@

C. ∑FS + ∑BS = Last RL + First RL@

D. ∑BS – ∑FS = First RL – Last RL@

Answer: B.∑BS – ∑FS = Last RL – First RL@
167. Which instrument is used in trigonometric levelling?
A. Wye level

B. Compass

C. Theodolite

D. Dumpy level

Answer: C.Theodolite
168. In levelling, error due to earth’s curvature is to be corrected using:
A. Cc=0.0673D2

B. Cc=0.0112D2

C. Cc=0.0136D2

D. Cc=0.0785D2

Answer: D.Cc=0.0785D2
169. Contours can be found in a __________ map.
A. Political

B. Topographical

C. Physical

D. Thematic

Answer: B.Topographical
170. Contour Maps are not mandatory in civil engineering projects like road works, dams,canals,etc.
A. True

B. False

Answer: B.False
171. How many methods of contouring are present?
A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

Answer: C.2
172. Indirect methods uses how many methods?
A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

Answer: A.3
173. The commonly used squares in the method of a square is:
A. 10m x 10m to 5m x 5m

B. 10m x 10m to 15m x 15m

C. 5m x 5m to 20m x 20m

D. 5m x 5m to 10m x 15m

Answer: C.5m x 5m to 20m x 20m
174. Which of the below methods is used for interpolating contour points between 2 points?
A. Arithmetic calculation

B. Using measuring tapes

C. Taking pictures of area

D. Using a theodolite

Answer: A.Arithmetic calculation
175. The contour interval is the same for all purposes.
A. True

B. False

Answer: B.False

176. The curves used for drawing lines between points in a contour line is:
A. Radial curve

B. French curve

C. C-curve

D. Inverted curve

Answer: B.French curve
177. Which shaped lines indicate the presence of a ridge?
A. V-shaped

B. U-shaped

C. L-shaped

D. S-shaped

Answer: B.U-shaped
178. The line which separates the catchment basin from the rest of the area is:
A. Ridge line

B. Dam line

C. Catchment line

D. Watershed line

Answer: D.Watershed line
179. Which of the below is used up to a range of 100km?
A. Infrared

B. Microwave

C. Visible range

D. Ultra-violet

Answer: B.Microwave
180. A total station is a combination of:
A. EDM and Theodolite

B. Compass and EDM

C. Electronic Theodolite and EDM

D. EDM and electronic Compass

Answer: C.Electronic Theodolite and EDM
181. Which unit in total station processes data collected?
A. Data collector

B. EDM

C. Storage system

D. Microprocessor

Answer: D.Microprocessor
182. Which is the latest development in a total station?
A. High resolution

B. High accuracy

C. Robotic

D. Automatic

Answer: C.Robotic
183. Which of the below is not an application of total station?
A. Crime scene investigation

B. Furniture manufacture

C. Mining

D. Archaeology

Answer: B.Furniture manufacture
184. What is the range of medium range EDM?
A. <5kms B. 15-25kms C. 5-25kms D. >25kms

Answer: C.5-25kms
185. Each point entered in a total station is stored in:
A. Hard discs

B. Electronic books

C. Data storage

D. Chip

Answer: B.Electronic books
186. Which of the below is a commercial element in highway construction?
A. Traffic

B. Installation technique

C. Environmental aspects

D. Material

Answer: C.Environmental aspects
187. ___________ can provide a 3-5 dB reduction in tyre-pavement noise emissions.
A. Asphalt

B. Bituminous

C. Rubberised asphalt

D. Concrete

Answer: C.Rubberised asphalt
188. In a building, to provide ultimate comfort to occupants ________ can be used.
A. AC

B. HVAC

C. Ventilators

D. HAC

Answer: B.HVAC
189. Which IS codes gives details about elevators?
A. IS 27752

B. IS 38665

C. IS 14665

D. IS 27855

Answer: C.IS 14665
190. The slope of a ramp should not be more than:
A. 1 in 35

B. 1 in 20

C. 1 in 15

D. 1 in 10

Answer: C.1 in 15

191. How many types of ventilation are there?
A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 5

Answer: A.3

192. A fire detector cannot detect:
A. Radiation

B. Heat

C. Light

D. Smoke

Answer: C.Light

193. When exposed to fire, concrete has very little strength left after:
A. 500oC

B. 300oC

C. 200oC

D. 600oC

Answer: D.600oC

194. Desiccants are chemicals that:
A. Remove humidity

B. Add humidity

C. Add moisture

D. Remove moisture

Answer: D.Remove moisture

Basic Civil Engineering objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test