250+ TOP MCQs on Bioenergetics and Thermodynamics and Answers

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Bioenergetics and Thermodynamics”.

1. If enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, then ∆G° equals to _____________
A. -T∆S°
B. T∆S°
C. -∆H°
D. lnkeq
Answer: A
Clarification: From the equation, ∆G° = ∆H°-T∆S°
If ∆H° = 0 then ∆G° = -T∆S°.

2. ∆G° is defined as the ____________
A. Residual energy present in the reactants at equilibrium
B. Residual energy present in the products at equilibrium
C. Difference in the residual energy of reactants and products at equilibrium
D. Energy required in converting one mole of reactants to one mole of products
Answer: D
Clarification: ∆G° is defined as the energy required in converting one mole of reactants to one mole of products.

3. For a reaction if ∆G° is positive, then ____________
A. The products will be favored
B. The reactants will be favored
C. The concentration of the reactants and products will be equal
D. All of the reactant will be converted to products
Answer: B
Clarification: If ∆G° is negative, products are favored.

4. Unfolding of regular secondary protein structure causes ____________
A. Large decrease in the entropy of the protein
B. Little increase in the entropy of protein
C. No change in the entropy of the protein
D. Large increase in the entropy of the protein
Answer: D
Clarification: Entropy increases on a larger scale when unfolding of secondary protein structure takes place.

5. The study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems is called as ____________
A. Biophysics
B. Biotechnology
C. Bioenergetics
D. Microbiology
Answer: C
Clarification: Bioenergetics is the study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems.

6. The relationship between Keq and ∆G‘° is?
A. ∆G‘° = RTlnKeq
B. ∆G‘° = -RTKeq
C. ∆G‘° = RKeq
D. ∆G‘° = -RKeq
Answer: B
Clarification: If the system is in equilibrium ∆G° = 0 and ∆G‘° = -RTKeq is the correct relation between Keq and ∆G‘°.

7. What does first law of thermodynamics state?
A. Energy can neither be destroyed nor created
B. Energy cannot be 100 percent efficiently transformed from one type to another
C. All living organisms are composed of cells
D. Input of heat energy increases the rate of movement of atoms and molecules
Answer: A
Clarification: First law of thermodynamics can also be termed as law of conservation of energy which states that energy can neither be destroyed nor created but can be transformed from one form of energy to another.

8. If ∆G‘° of the reaction A → B is -40kJ/mol under standard conditions then the reaction ____________
A. Will never reach equilibrium
B. Will not occur spontaneously
C. Will proceed at a rapid rate
D. Will proceed from left to right spontaneously
Answer: D
Clarification: If ∆G‘° < 0, reaction proceeds from left to right that means products are favored.

9. What is the relationship between ∆G and ∆G‘°?
A. ∆G = ∆G‘° + RTln([products]/[reactants])
B. ∆G = ∆G‘° – RTln([products]/[reactants])
C. ∆G = ∆G‘° + RTln([reactants]/[products])
D. ∆G = ∆G‘° – RTln([reactants]/[products])
Answer: A
Clarification: ∆G = ∆G‘° + RTln([products]/[reactants] ) is the correct relation between ∆G and ∆G‘°.

10. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The reaction tends to go in the forward direction if ∆G is large and positive
B. The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and negative
C. The system is at equilibrium if ∆G = 0
D. The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and positive
Answer: D
Clarification: The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and negative.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Structural Lipids in Membranes and Answers

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Structural Lipids in Membranes”.

1. Out of the following, cholesterol does not serve as a precursor for which compounds?
A. Vitamin D
B. Sex hormones
C. Bile salts
D. Bile pigments
Answer: D
Clarification: Cholesterol serves as a precursor for the biosynthesis of steroid molecules, bile acids and vitamin D.

2. Which of the following is a sphingophospholipid?
A. Lecithin
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Plasmolegen
D. Cardiolipin
Answer: B
Clarification: Lecithin, plasmolegen and cardiolipin are glycerophospholipids.

3. Which of the following glycerophospholid acts as a lipotropic agent?
A. Cardiolipin
B. Phosphatidylserine
C. Phosphatidylinositol
D. Phosphatidylcholine
Answer: D
Clarification: Only phosphatidylcholine acts as a lipotropic agent.

4. Which of the following phospholipids is a component of inner mitochondrial membrane?
A. Plasmologen
B. Cephalin
C. Lecithin
D. Cardiolipin
Answer: D
Clarification: Cardiolipin is an essential component of inner mitochondrial membrane.

5. In which of the following glycerophospholipids two phosphatidic acids share single glycerol?
A. Cardiolipin
B. Phosphatidylserine
C. Phosphatidylinositol
D. Phosphatidylcholine
Answer: A
Clarification: In cardiolipin, two phosphatidic acids share single glycerol.

6. Platelet activating factor stimulates the release of which of the following compounds?
A. Vasopressin
B. Serotonin
C. Adrenaline
D. Cortisol
Answer: B
Clarification: Platelet activating factor stimulates the release of serotonin.

7. Which of the following group of membrane lipids predominate in plant cells?
A. Galactolipids
B. Sphingolipids
C. Glycerophospholipids
D. Archaebacterial ether lipids
Answer: A
Clarification: Galactolipids are the lipids predominant in the chloroplasts of plants.

8. Which of the following membrane lipids have a direct glycosidic linkage between the head-group sugar and the backbone glycerol?
A. Glycolipids
B. Phospholipids
C. Sphingolipids
D. Ether lipids
Answer: A
Clarification: Glycolipids have a direct glycosidic linkage between the head-group sugar and the backbone glycerol.

9. The backbone of phospholipids is __________
A. L-glycerol 1-phosphate
B. L-glycerol 3-phosphate
C. D-glycerol 3-phosphate
D. sn-glycerol 1-phosphate
Answer: B
Clarification: L-glycerol 3-phosphate or D-glycerol 1-phosphate or sn-glycerol 3-phosphate is the backbone of phospholipids.

10. What is the head-group alcohol in plasmolegen and platelet-activating factor?
A. Alkene
B. Choline
C. Alkane
D. Acetic acid
Answer: B
Clarification: Choline is the head-group alcohol in plasmolegen and platelet-activating factor.

11. Which of the following does not contain glycerol?
A. Glycerophospholipids
B. Galactolipids
C. Sphingolipids
D. Triacylglycerols
Answer: C
Clarification: Sphingolipids contain sphingosine instead of glycerol.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Enzyme Kinetics as an Approach to Understanding Mechanism and Answers

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Enzyme Kinetics as an Approach to Understanding Mechanism”.

1. Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
A. Km, the Michaelis constant, is defined as that concentration of substrate at which enzyme is working at maximum velocity
B. It describes single substrate enzymes
C. Km, the Michaelis constant is defined as the dissociation constant of the enzyme-substrate complex
D. It assumes covalent binding occurs between enzyme and substrate
Answer: B
Clarification: Km is defined as the concentration of substrate at which enzyme is working at half of maximum velocity. It is also a measure of the affinity that the enzyme has for its substrate. Michaelis-Menten kinetics assumes non-covalent binding between enzyme and substrate.

2. When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of the following is obtained?
A. Hyperbolic curve
B. Parabola
C. Straight line with positive slope
D. Straight line with negative slope
Answer: A
Clarification: At low substrate concentration, the rate of a reaction is determined by the rate of formation of an enzyme-substrate complex.

3. Which of the following is the correct Line weaver-Burk equation?
A. (frac{1}{V_0} = frac{K_m}{V_{max} [S]} + frac{1}{V_{max}} )
B. (frac{1}{V_{max}} = frac{K_m}{V_0 [S]} + frac{1}{V_0} )
C. (V_0 = frac{V_{max} [S]}{K_m+[S]} )
D. (V_{max} = frac{V_0⁡ [S]}{K_m+[S]} )
Answer: A
Explanation:
Line weaver-Burk equation: (frac{1}{V_0} = frac{K_m}{V_{max} [S]} + frac{1}{V_{max}} )
Michaelis-Menten equation: (V_0 = frac{V_{max} [S]}{K_m+[S]} )

4. Which of the following statements is true about competitive inhibitors?
A. It is a common type of irreversible inhibition
B. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes
(V_0 = frac{V_{max} [S]}{α K_m+[S]} )
C. The apparent Km decreases in the presence of inhibitor by a factor α
D. The maximum velocity for the reaction decreases in the presence of a competitive inhibitor
Answer: B
Clarification: Competitive inhibition is a common type of reversible inhibition.
The apparent Km increases in the presence of inhibitor by a factor α.
The maximum velocity for the reaction remains same in the presence of a competitive inhibitor.

5. Which of the following statements is true about uncompetitive inhibitors?
A. They bind covalently at a site distinct from the substrate active site
B. In the presence of a uncompetitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes
(V_0 = frac{V_{max} [S]}{K_m+α’ [S]} )
C. They increase the measured Vmax⁡
D. Apparent Km also increases
Answer: B
Clarification: They bind non-covalently at a site distinct from the substrate active site.
They decrease the measured Vmax⁡ and also apparent Km.

6. The rate determining step of Michaelis-Menten kinetics is __________
A. The complex dissociation step to produce products
B. The complex formation step
C. The product formation step
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: A
Clarification: The breakdown of ES complex is the rate determining step of Michaelis Menten kinetics.

7. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is __________
A. Repressor
B. Inhibitor
C. Modulator
D. Regulator
Answer: B
Clarification: An inhibitor is a substance that interferes with the substrate-active site binding and slows down the catalytic rate.

8. Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?
A. Disulfiram
B. Oseltamivir
C. Protease inhibitors
D. DIPF
Answer: D
Clarification: Disulfiram, Oseltamivir and protease inhibitors are reversible inhibitors.

9. Which of the following is an example of reversible inhibitor?
A. DIPF
B. Penicillin
C. Iodoacetamide
D. Protease inhibitors
Answer: D
Clarification: DIPF, Penicillin and Iodoacetamide are irreversible inhibitors.

10. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?
A. At active site
B. Allosteric site
C. Does not bind on enzyme
D. Binds on substrate
Answer: B
Clarification: The inhibitor binds at a place different from active site allosterically.

11. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the following factor?
A. Km
B. Product formation
C. Size of the enzymes
D. pH of optimum value
Answer: A
Clarification: Km is the substrate concentration. Increased substrate concentration increases the rate of reaction.

12. What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?
A. It acts by reducing the activation energy
B. It acts by increasing the activation energy
C. It acts by decreasing the pH
D. It acts by increasing the pH
Answer: A
Clarification: For the reaction to occur at a faster rate, activation energy should be less.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Electron-Transfer reactions in Mitochondria and Answers

Biochemistry Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Electron-Transfer reactions in Mitochondria”.

1. Protein that contains a nucleic acid derivative of riboflavin is called _________
A. Nucleic acid
B. Amino acid
C. Flavoprotein
D. None
Answer: C
Clarification: Flavoproteins contain a very tightly, sometimes covalently, bound flavin nucleotide, either FMN or FAD.

2. NADP-linked dehydrogenase catalyzes _________
A. Glucose 6-phosphate+NADP+ ↔ 6-phosphogluconate + NADPH + H+
B. Lactate + NAD+ ↔ pyruvate + NADH + H+
C. Pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ ↔ acetyl-CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+
D. L-Malate + NAD+ ↔ oxaloacetate + NADH + H+
Answer: A
Clarification: NADP-linked dehydrogenase catalyzes Glucose 6-phosphate+NADP+ ↔ 6-phosphogluconate + NADPH + H+.

3. A lipid-soluble benzoquinone with a long isoprenoid side chain is?
A. Ubiquinone
B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome c
D. Cytochrome a
Answer: A
Clarification: Ubiquinone also known as coenzyme Q is a lipid-soluble benzoquinone with a long isoprenoid side chain.

4. The only membrane bound enzyme in the citric acid cycle is _________
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. NADH dehydrogenase
C. ATP synthase
D. Acyl co-A dehydrogenase
Answer: A
Clarification: The only membrane bound enzyme in the citric acid cycle is succinate dehydrogenase.

5. The first step in the β oxidation of fatty acyl co-A is catalyzed by _________
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. NADH dehydrogenase
C. ATP synthase
D. Acyl co-A dehydrogenase
Answer: D
Clarification: It involves the transfer of electrons from the substrate to the FAD of the dehydrogenase, then to ETF.

6. Complex 1 is also called _________
A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome bc1 complex
D. Cytochrome oxidase
Answer: A
Clarification: Complex 2 is called succinate dehydrogenase.
Complex 3 is called the cytochrome bc1 complex.
Complex 4 is called cytochrome oxidase.

7. Complex 2 is also called _________
A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome bc1 complex
D. Cytochrome oxidase
Answer: B
Clarification: Complex 1 is called NADH dehydrogenase.
Complex 3 is called the cytochrome bc1 complex.
Complex 4 is called cytochrome oxidase.

8. Complex 3 is also called _________
A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome bc1 complex
D. Cytochrome oxidase
Answer: C
Clarification: Complex 1 is called NADH dehydrogenase.
Complex 4 is called cytochrome oxidase.
Complex 2 is called succinate dehydrogenase.

9. Complex 4 is also called _________
A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome bc1 complex
D. Cytochrome oxidase
Answer: D
Clarification: Complex 1 is called NADH dehydrogenase.
Complex 3 is called the cytochrome bc1 complex.
Complex 2 is called succinate dehydrogenase.

10. In mitochondria, hydride ions are removed from substrates by _________
A. NAD-linked dehydrogenases
B. NADP-linked dehydrogenases
C. ATP synthase
D. Succinate dehydrogenases
Answer: A
Clarification: In cytosol hydride ions are removed from substrates by NADP-linked dehydrogenases.

of Biochemistry Assessment Questions, .

250+ TOP MCQs on Oncogenes, Tumor Suppressor Genes and Programmed Cell Death and Answers

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Oncogenes, Tumor Suppressor Genes and Programmed Cell Death”.

1. Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms except _____________
A. Elimination of their start signals for translation
B. During a viral infection cycle
C. Chromosomal rearrangements
D. Chemically induced mutagenesis
Answer: A
Clarification: Elimination of their start signals cannot promote cancer.

2. Oncogenes do not encode for ___________
A. Trans-membrane protein receptors
B. Growth factors
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases
Answer: C
Clarification: Oncogenes encode for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

3. Programmed cell death is termed as ___________
A. Metastasis
B. Apoptosis
C. Proliferation
D. Mitotic termination
Answer: B
Clarification: Apoptosis can also be termed as programmed cell death.

4. Which of the following could be coded by a tumor-supressor gene?
A. A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle
B. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis
C. A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme
D. A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway
Answer: A
Clarification: A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle could be coded by a tumor-supressor gene.

5. How does Ras oncogene contribute to cancers?
A. It codes for an anti-apoptotic protein, produced in abnormally large amounts
B. It codes for a GTPase switch protein, which in its mutated form cannot be switched off
C. It codes for a transcription factor produced abnormally in large amounts
D. A growth factor that is continually active is encoded in its truncated form
Answer: B
Clarification: Ras oncogene codes for a GTPase switch protein, which in its mutated form cannot be switched off.

6. Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer?
A. It is a transcription factor that causes protein production which stimulates the cell cycle
B. It prevents replication of cells with damaged DNA
C. It prevents cells from triggering apoptosis
D. It stimulates synthesis of DNA repair enzymes that replace telomere sequence lost during cell division
Answer: B
Clarification: p53 prevents replication of cells with damaged DNA.

7. The characteristic of malignant other than a benign tumor is?
A. Undergoes metastasis
B. Develops blood supply
C. Cell divides an unlimited number of times
D. Grows without needing a growth signal
Answer: A
Clarification: Only malignant tumor involves migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other areas.

8. The mutation which cannot give rise to an oncogene?
A. Addition or deletion of a base producing a nonsense message and an inactive protein product
B. A point mutation changing just one amino acid in protein product
C. A translocation, putting gene under control of strong promoter producing over expression
D. A point mutation producing stop codon, premature termination
Answer: A
Clarification: Addition or deletion of a base producing a nonsense message and an inactive protein product cannot produce an oncogene.

9. Which of the following about Rb tumor suppressor protein is correct?
A. It binds E2F transcription factor and prevents cell from entering S phase until a mitogenic signal is received
B. It is activated when phosphorylated by Cdk
C. It is a transcription factor
D. When a mitogenic signal is received, it binds the transcription factor E2F and thus stimulates the cell to enter S phase
Answer: A
Clarification: Rb protein binds E2F transcription factor and prevents cell from entering S phase until a mitogenic signal is received.

10. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called ___________
A. Diapedesis
B. Metastasis
C. Proliferation
D. Apoptosis
Answer: B
Clarification: Metastasis can be defined as migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Storage Lipids and Answers

Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Storage Lipids”.

1. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
A. Linolenic
B. Palmitic
C. Oleic
D. Stearic
Answer: A
Clarification: Linoleic and alpha linolenic acids are the two essential fatty acids.

2. Which of the following is a polar derivative of cholesterol?
A. Bile salt
B. Oestrogen
C. Vitamin D
D. Progesterone
Answer: A
Clarification: Bile salt is a polar derivative of cholesterol.

3. Which of the following fatty acid has the least melting point?
A. Palmitic acid
B. Stearic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Timnodonic acid
Answer: D
Clarification: Timnodonic acid has the least melting point.

4. Out of the following which is not a source of glycerol?
A. Adipolysis
B. Glycolysis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Diet
Answer: C
Clarification: Adipolysis, glycolysis and diet are the source of glycerol.

5. Which of the following is false about fatty acids?
A. Melting point of fatty acids decreases with increase in degree of saturation
B. Lipids in tissues that are subjected to cooling are more unsaturated
C. Naturally occurring unsaturated long-chain fatty acids are nearly Trans-configuration
D. The membrane lipids contain mostly unsaturated fatty acids
Answer: C
Clarification: Saturated long chain fatty acids are nearly trans-configuration.

6. Which of the following fatty acid has 16 carbon atoms?
A. Linolenic acid
B. Oleic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Stearic acid
Answer: C
Clarification: Linolenic, oleic and stearic acids have 18 carbons.

7. Which of the following is a hydroxyl fatty acid?
A. Linoleic acid
B. Palmitic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Cerebronic acid
Answer: D
Clarification: Cerebronic acid is a fatty acid with -OH derivative.

8. Out of the following, which is not an essential amino acid?
A. Linolic acid
B. Linolenic acid
C. Arachidic acid
D. Arachidonic acid
Answer: C
Clarification: Arachidic acid is a non-essential amino acid.

9. The number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty acid in one gram of a given fat is called __________
A. Saponification number
B. Iodine number
C. Acid number
D. Polenske number
Answer: A
Clarification: The number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty acid in one gram of a given fat is called the saponification number.

10. Which of the following is a storage form of lipid?
A. Glycolipid
B. Phospholipid
C. Sufolipid
D. Triacyl glycerol
Answer: D
Clarification: Triacyl glycerol is the storage form of lipids.

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