Category: Civil Engineering Drawing Objective Questions

Civil Engineering Drawing MCQs on “Analysis of Rates of Cement Concrete”.

1. Which type of machine does the figure below represents?

a) Purifier
b) Water tank
c) Electric Cement Mixer
d) Harvesting machine
Answer: c
Clarification: The Pro-Series 4 Cubic-Feet Electric Cement Mixer is the ideal size for mixing concrete for small to medium size projects around the house. This general duty Cement Mixer handles drywall mud, plaster, stucco, mortar, concrete and more. You could even use it on the farm to mix cattle feed or treat seeds before planting.

2. The concrete solidifies and hardens through a chemical process called hydration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: To produce concrete from most cements (excluding asphalt), water is mixed with the dry powder and aggregate, which produces a semi-liquid slurry that can be shaped, typically by pouring it into a form. The concrete solidifies and hardens through a chemical process called hydration. The water reacts with the cement, which bonds the other components together, creating a robust stone-like material.

3. Reinforcement is often included in concrete.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Concrete can be formulated with high compressive strength, but always has lower tensile strength. For this reason it is usually reinforced with materials that are strong in tension, typically steel rebar.

4. Mortar is composed of cement and sand, and concrete is composed of cement, sand, and gravel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Cement is the binding element in both concrete and mortar. It is made most commonly of limestone, clay, shells, silica sand and other materials.
Concrete is composed of cement, sand, and gravel or other fine and coarse aggregate. The addition of water activates the cement, which is the element responsible for binding the mix together to form one solid object.
Mortar is composed of cement and sand. When water is mixed in with this product, the cement is activated. Whereas concrete can stand alone, mortar is used to hold together bricks, stones or other such hardscape components.

5. Concrete solidifies due to a chemical reaction known as hydration. The water reacts with the cement, which bonds the other components together, eventually creating a strong stone-like material.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Concrete is used more than any other man-made material in the world. As of 2006, about 7.5 billion cubic meters of concrete are made each year—more than one cubic meter for every person on Earth. The ingredients are mixed together into a paste, a bit like making dough for bread. The concrete is then poured into a frame. After a few hours it sets hard.

6. Concrete is strong in tension but weak in compression.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Concrete is strong in compression but weak in tension. For some purposes it needs to be reinforced with steel rods. Reinforced concrete buildings can be made to link all the parts together, the foundations, walls, floors and roofs, but concrete construction does not make buildings earthquake-proof.

7. ‘Superplasticizers’ are chemicals which improve workability, which means the ability to shape the concrete before it has set.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Pigments can change the dull grey colour. Corrosion inhibitors can reduce rusting on the steel bars. ‘Air entrainment’ is blowing little bubbles in the concrete before it sets. This helps the concrete survive the freezing and thawing of a cold climate. Blast furnace slag can be mixed with concrete. It turns the colour into almost pure white and makes the concrete stronger.

8. The quantity of cement concrete may be calculated by multiplying the area of floor by the thickness.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The quantity of cement concrete calculated by multiplying the area of floor by the thickness.

9. For frog filling, for use of cut bricks, for bonding, for uniform joints, wastages, etc. 50% extra mortar may be required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: For frog filling, for use of cut bricks, for bonding, for uniform joints, wastages, etc. 15% extra mortar may be required.

10. For 2.5 cm thick c.c. floor of 1:2:4 proportion, for 100 sq m, how many cement bags will be required?
a) 18
b) 28
c) 24
d) 10
Answer: c
Clarification: 100 sq m total dry volume of materials = 2.75+50% = 2.75+1.375 = 4.125 cu m. Therefore, cement = (4.125) / (1+2+4) = .59 cu m = .60 cu m (18 bags). For neat cement surface finishing additional 0.2 cu m (6 bags) of cement will be required.

11. For 2.5 cm thick c.c. floor of 1:2:4 proportion, for 100 sq m, what amount of stone aggregate will be required?
a) 5.20 cu m
b) 1.20 cu m
c) 2.40 cu m
d) .20 cu m
Answer: c
Clarification: Stone aggregate = 0.6*4 = 2.40 cu m.

12. For coloured cement floor, mix pigment colour with neat surface cement in the proportion of ______ to ______ is to have desired colour.
a) 1:3 to 1:6
b) 1:3 to 1:6
c) 1:3 to 1:6
d) 1:3 to 1:6
Answer: a
Clarification: White cement mixed with colour pigment of the desired proportion may also be used, but for strength it is better if ordinary Portland cement is mixed with white cement in the proportion of 1:1 to 1:3 and then to add colour pigment to have the desired colour.

13. For 10 cu m brickwork in 1:6 cement mortar, calculate the quantity of cement?
a) 0.20 cu m
b) 0.13 cu m
c) 0.56 cu m
d) 0.43 cu m
Answer: d
Clarification: Divide 3 by the sum of the numerals of the proportion of materials which gives the quantity of cement in cu m. For brickwork in 1:6 cement mortar cement = 3/(1+6) = 0.43 cu m.

14. For 2.5 cm c.c. floor for 100 sq m of area and 10% for contingency what amount of cement concrete will be required?
a) 5.75 cu m
b) 2.75 cu m
c) 2.5 cu m
d) 5.0 cu m
Answer: b
Clarification: For 2.5 cm c.c. floor for 100 sq m of area the quantity of cement concrete = 100*.025 = 2.5 cu m. Adding 10% extra for unevenness of base concrete, the quantity comes to 2.5+.25 = 2.75 cu m.

To practice MCQs on all areas of Civil Engineering Drawing,

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Water Supply, Electrical and Road Work”.

1. A ___________ power supply is one that outputs hundreds or thousands of volts.
a) alternate current
b) high-voltage
c) low-voltage
d) direct current

Answer: b
Clarification: A special output connector is used that prevents arcing, insulation breakdown and accidental human contact. Federal Standard connectors are typically used for applications above 20 kV, though other types of connectors (e.g., SHV connector) may be used at lower voltages. Some high-voltage power supplies provide an analog input or digital communication interface that can be used to control the output voltage.

2. The two types of current limiting used are electronic limiting and _________________
a) inductance limiting
b) capacitor limiting
c) resistance limiting
d) impedance limiting

Answer: d
Clarification: Some supplies use current limiting instead of cutting off power if overloaded. The two types of current limiting used are electronic limiting and impedance limiting. The former is common on lab bench PSUs, the latter is common on supplies of less than 3 watts output. A foldback current limiter reduces the output current to much less than the maximum non-fault current.

3. As per IS: 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is _______
a) 120 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 75 litres
d) 195 litres

Answer: b
Clarification: For domestic purposes – 135 litres to 225 litres
For industrial purposes – 50 litres to 450 litres.

4. Most commonly used pump for lifting water in water supply mains, is _________
a) axial-flow pump
b) reciprocating pump
c) rotary type pump
d) centrifugal pump

Answer: a
Clarification: An axial flow pump, or AFP, is a common type of pump that essentially consists of a propeller in a pipe. The propeller can be driven directly by a sealed motor in the pipe or mounted to the pipe from the outside or by a right-angle drive shaft that pierces the pipe.
Fluid particles, in course of their flow through the pump, do not change their radial locations since the change in radius at the entry (called ‘suction’) and the exit (called ‘discharge’) of the pump is very small. Hence the name “axial” pump.

5. Water supply system includes ________
a) construction of dams
b) digging a well for water
c) construction of canals
d) entire arrangement from source to distribution.

6. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at __________
a) lower point
b) higher joint
c) junction points
d) anywhere

Answer: a
Clarification: The drain valve is subject to severe erosion due to the combined effect of drain discharge under high differential pressure at plant startup and the spouting of oxidized scale inside the piping.
Although drain valve have a short operating life due to their severe usage conditions, we offer a selection of drain valve with enhanced erosion resistance in an effort to increase their operating life.

7. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of ___________
a) Suspended solids
b) Acidity of water
c) B.O.D
d) Anywhere

Answer: a
Clarification: The definition of Turbidity is the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by suspended solids that are usually invisible to the naked eye. The measurement of Turbidity is an important test when trying to determine the quality of water. It is an aggregate optical property of the water and does not identify individual substances; it just says something is there.

8. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove ___________
a) odour
b) bacteria
c) turbidity
d) colour

Answer: b
Clarification: Water disinfection means the removal, deactivation or killing of pathogenic microorganisms. Microorganisms are destroyed or deactivated, resulting in termination of growth and reproduction. When microorganisms are not removed from drinking water, drinking water usage will cause people to fall ill.

9. Aeration of water is done to remove ________
a) odour
b) colour
c) hardness
d) turbidity

Answer: a
Clarification: Aeration of liquids (usually water) is achieved by:
-passing the liquid through air by means of fountains, cascades, paddle-wheels or cones.
-passing air through the liquid by means of the Venturi tube, aeration turbines or compressed air which can be combined with diffuser(s) air stone(s), as well as fine bubble diffusers, coarse bubble diffusers or linear aeration tubing. Ceramics are suitable for this purpose, often involving dispersion of fine air or gas bubbles through the porous ceramic into a liquid. The smaller the bubbles, the more gas is exposed to the liquid increasing the gas transfer efficiency. Diffusers can also be designed into the system to cause turbulence or mixing if desired.

10. Percussion drilling is unsuitable in _______
a) unconsolidated sand
b) unconsolidated gravel
c) consolidated rocks
d) quick sand

Answer: d
Clarification: Percussion drilling is a manual drilling technique in which a heavy cutting or hammering bit attached to a rope or cable is lowered in the open hole or inside a temporary casing. The technique is often also referred to as ‘Cable tool’. Usually a tripod is used to support the tools.

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Building Bye-Laws”.

1. A ______________ is a set of rules that specify the standards for constructed objects such as buildings and non-building structures.
a) Building code
b) Building bye-laws
c) IS code
d) Procedure
Answer: a
Clarification: Buildings must conform to the code to obtain planning permission, usually from a local council. The main purpose of building codes is to protect public health, safety and general welfare as they relate to the construction and occupancy of buildings and structures. The building code becomes law of a particular jurisdiction when formally enacted by the appropriate governmental or private authority.

2. Which is not included in building codes?
a) Mechanical integrity
b) Safety
c) Providing employment
d) Structural integrity
Answer: c
Clarification: The purpose of building codes are to provide minimum standards for safety, health, and general welfare including structural integrity, mechanical integrity (including sanitation, water supply, light, and ventilation), means of egress, fire prevention and control, and energy conservation.
Fire safety measures include those that are planned during the construction of a building or implemented in structures that are already standing, and those that are taught to occupants of the building.

3. Which is not a objectives of Building Bye laws?
a) Allows disciplined and systematic growth of buildings and towns and prevent haphazard development
b) Protect safety of public against fire, noise, health hazards and structural failures
c) They provide health, safety and comfort to the people who live in buildings
d) Renovation of old buildings without any charge by the government
Answer: d
Clarification: Objectives of Building Bye laws-
• Allows disciplined and systematic growth of buildings and towns and prevent haphazard development.
• Protect safety of public against fire, noise, health hazards and structural failures.
• Provide proper utilization of space. Hence, maximum efficiency in planning can be derived from these bye laws.
• They give guidelines to the architect or an engineer in effective planning and useful in preplanning the building activates.
• They provide health, safety and comfort to the people who live in buildings.
• Due to these by-laws, each building will have proper approaches, light, air and ventilation which are essential for health, safety and comfort.

4. Combining two or more plots as a single plot is called __________
a) Amalgamation
b) Frontage
c) Bifurcation
d) Building setback
Answer: a
Clarification: Building setback: Minimum distance between any building or any structure from the boundary line of the plot.
– Frontage: Frontage means the width of the site abutting the access road.
– Bifurcation: Means bifurcation of a plot into two.

5. Which is not a Building Bye-Laws Characteristic?
a) The rules must be specific, clear and the language of rules should be grammatically correct
b) Terms used should be defined clearly so that there must be one and only one meaning of the term
c) Due to some special conditions and requirements, some bye-laws differ from the bye-laws of other places
d) No modification is allowed if required
Answer: d
Clarification: Building Bye-Laws Characteristic of Bye-Laws –
• The rules must be specific, clear and the language of rules should be grammatically correct.
• Terms used should be defined clearly so that there must be one and only one meaning of the term.
• Due to some special conditions and requirements, some bye-laws differ from the bye-laws of other places.
• Even though in a single town Bye-law of single town is not applicable at the other area.
• It can be modified by government if required.

6. Which of the following is not a zone?
a) Residential
b) Commercial
c) Industrial
d) Electrical
Answer: d
Clarification: Following are some of zones –
1. Residential: Residential buildings, gardens, play grounds, schools, offices are allowed Industries, hospitals, wholesale markets are not allowed.
2. Commercial: Cinema, retail shops, town-halls, restaurants, bank, offices, shopping centers are allowed Hospitals and Industries are not allowed.

7. Which is not a type of building?
a) Educational Building
b) Mercantile Building
c) Institutional Building
d) Domestic building
Answer: d
Clarification: Educational Building: Exclusively used for schools and colleges.
-Mercantile Building: Building used as shops, stores market for display.
-Institutional Building: Building constructed for public activities like medical, education.

8. Line up to which the plinth of a building adjoining a street may be law-fully extended is called?
a) Building line
b) Building boundary
c) Building extend
d) Building plan
Answer: a
Clarification: Building unit- It is one or more than one plots approved by the competent authority for width of plot less than 10.5m” Plot width less than 3m and area less than 18m2 is not considered as building unit.

9. Door opening is not counted in the lighting and ventilation of the building.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Hence, the min area for opening shall be not less than, i) 1/10th of the floor area for dry hot climate. ii) 1/6th of the floor area for wet hot climate. iii) 1/8th of the floor area for intermediate climate. iv) 1/12th of the floor area for cold climate.

10. Carpet Area does not include the thickness of the inner walls.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Clarification: Carpet Area is the area enclosed within the walls, actual area to lay the carpet. This area does not include the thickness of the inner walls. It is the actual used area of an apartment. Built up Area is the carpet area plus the thickness of outer walls and the balcony.

11. Fire safety is the set of practices intended to reduce the destruction caused by fire.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Fire safety measures include those that are intended to prevent ignition of an uncontrolled fire and those that are used to limit the development and effects of a fire after it starts.

12. For industrial unit having area more than 0.8 hectare, and 5% area can be used as a general parking.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: If this area is more than 1500 m2 buildings for bank, canteen, welfare centres can be made in this additional area. For industries having area > 1000 m2 then 10% space reserved for amenities. This amenities area should be maximum 2500 m².

Civil Engineering Drawing Multiple Choice Questions on “Wooden and Steel Roof Truss”.

1. In timber roof figure shown below, the part represented by number 3 denotes __________

a) collar beam
b) arch braces
c) rafter
d) queen posts
Answer: b
Clarification: Lacking a tie beam, the arch-braced (arched brace) truss gives a more open look to the interior of the roof. A double arch braced truss has a second pair of arched braces lower down, from the rafter to a block or inner sill: This form is called a wagon, cradle, barrel or tunnel roof because of this cylindrical appearance.

2. In timber roof figure shown below, the part represented by number 1 denotes _________

a) collar beam
b) principal rafters
c) queen posts
d) qrch braces
Answer: b
Clarification: The principal rafters are linked by a collar beam supported by a pair of arch braces, which stiffen the structure and help to transmit the weight of the roof down through the principal rafters to the supporting wall.

3. In timber roof figure shown below, the part represented by number 2 denotes ____________

a) queen posts
b) collar beam
c) tie-beam
d) straining beam
Answer: b
Clarification: The principal rafters are linked by a collar beam supported by a pair of arch braces, which stiffen the structure and help to transmit the weight of the roof down through the principal rafters to the supporting wall.

4. Figure shown below represents __________

a) fan truss
b) scissor truss
c) triangular truss
d) inclined truss
Answer: b
Clarification: The scissor truss gets its name from being shaped like a pair of shears (scissors). Two defining features of a scissor truss are: 1) the joint where the bottom chords pass (the hinge of a pair of scissors) must be firmly connected and 2) the rafter (top chord) feet must land on the bottom chords. If the bottom chords join to the under-side of the top chords the assembly is said to be “scissor braced” rather than a scissor truss.

5. Figure shown below represents ____________

a) King Post truss
b) Howe truss
c) Studio truss
d) Fan truss
Answer: d
Clarification: Just like you can see from many roof truss types pictures, the Fan Truss comes with a very simple design and it’s made out of steel. In this particular situation, the trusses form a fink roof truss. On top of that, the main characteristic here is that the top chords are split into smaller lengths, as this allows the build to obtain purlin support. Also, you get a medium span with this type, around 10-15m, which is more than enough for most projects.

6. The structure shown below as a whole represents _____________

a) Queen post truss
b) King post truss
c) Scissor Roof Truss
d) Trapezoidal truss
Answer: a
Clarification: A queen post truss has two principal rafters and two vertical queen posts. The queen post truss extends the span, and combined with spliced joints in the longer members extends the useful span for trusses of these types. As with a king post, the queen posts may be replaced with iron rods and thus called a queen rod truss. This truss is often known as a palladiana (Palladian truss) in Italy, as it was frequently used by the Venetian architect Andrea Palladio. Sometimes a palladian truss is defined as a compound truss with a queen post and king post truss in the same assembly.
The queen post truss and the king post truss may be combined, by using the straining beam of the queen post truss as the tie beam for a king post truss above. Such combinations are known as compound trusses.

7. Figure below is a section of a roof, identify the type _________

a) Salt Box roof
b) Hammerbeam roof
c) Mansard Roof
d) Pyramid roof
Answer: b
Clarification: The hammerbeam roof was the culmination of the development of the arch-braced truss, allowing greater spaces to be spanned. The hammerbeam roof of Westminster Hall in London, designed by Hugh Herland and installed between 1395 and 1399, was the largest timber-roofed space in medieval Europe, spanning a distance of just over 20 metres (66 ft). It is considered to be the best example of a hammer-beam truss in England.
Hammer beam trusses can have a single hammerbeam or multiple hammerbeams. A false hammerbeam roof (truss) has two definitions: 1) There is no hammer post on the hammer beam as sometimes found in a type of arch brace truss or; 2)The hammer beam joins into the hammer post instead of the hammer post landing on the hammer beam.

8. Which is one of the most efficient types of timber roof trusses?
a) Raised Heel Roof Truss
b) Quadrangular Roof Trusses
c) Parallel Chord Roof Truss
d) Scissor Roof Truss
Answer: a
Clarification: This is one of the most efficient types of timber roof trusses, mostly because it brings a very good room for insulation, but at the same time it also provides you with a very good system for structural support. It might require some additional materials in order to make it bring the best results, not to mention that the costs can be a little higher when compared to other truss types, but it does help you lower the energy bill value, so keep that in mind.