Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Living and Non Living – 1”.

1. Which among the following best describes the word “Growth” in living organisms?
a) Increase in mass either due to accumulation or due to changes that body undergoes internally
b) Increase in mass due to internally cell division and increase in number due to replication are twin characteristic of growth
c) All living organisms grow throughout their life
d) Growth is a sufficient characteristic to determine whether an organism is living or non-living
Answer: b
Clarification: Increase in mass due to internal division and increase in number of organisms are twin characteristics of growth. In non-living organisms increase in mass occurs due to accumulation whereas in living organisms it happens due to the proteins and carbohydrates that we intake. Living organisms except plants grow until certain period of their life and then stop growing. Growth is not a sufficient a characteristic to determine if an organism is living. Sometimes it’s possible that even mountains and sand dunes grow due to an accumulation of sand.

2. Reproduction in Planaria takes place through ________
a) Budding
b) Binary Fission
c) Asexual spores
d) Fragmentation
Answer: d
Clarification: Planaria uses the method of fragmentation and regeneration to reproduce. Whereas fungi reproduce using spores, amoeba uses binary fission to reproduce and hydra uses budding to reproduce.

3. Reproduction is a sufficient condition to determine whether a thing is living or nonliving.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: If an organism reproduces then it is a living organism. However, it need not be a non-living organism if it doesn’t reproduce. Sometimes it’s possible that organisms stop reproducing after a certain period.

4. Sexual reproduction results in variation of the progeny from the parents. What do you think are the appropriate reasons?
a) Since sexual reproduction involves only gene from a single parent which undergoes modifications to produce different traits in the progeny
b) Sexual reproduction involves gene from both the parents which undergoes modifications to produce traits that vary from the parent
c) It is due to variation in the time
d) Parents decide the traits of the progeny and design them accordingly
Answer: b
Clarification: Sexual reproduction involves two parental organisms and the gene from both the organisms are involved which undergo modifications to produce new traits in the progeny.

5. Metabolism means ________
a) division of cells
b) expansion of cell
c) sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in our body
d) production of progeny
Answer: b
Clarification: Metabolism refers to the sum total of all the reactions that occur in an organism. Conversions of chemicals in a living organism are called metabolic reaction.

6. The action that the environment does on an organism is called ________
a) Response
b) Stimuli
c) Reflex
d) Reaction
Answer: b
Clarification: Every organism responds to the external stimuli that the surrounding has on the organism. For example, a touch me not leaf gets closed when touched and a human being runs away when he sees a lion approaching him.

7. Consciousness and cellular organization of the body are the defining features of living organisms.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Cellular organization and consciousness are properties that are exclusively meant for living organisms. Therefore, these can be considered as the defining properties of the living organisms.

8. When the reactions that occur in the body are made to happen in laboratory conditions they are said to be ________
a) Metabolic reactions
b) Oxidation reactions
c) Living reactions
d) Reduction reactions
Answer: c
Clarification: Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are not living things but are called as living reactions. Sum and total of all the chemical reactions that takes place in an organism are called as Metabolic reactions.

9. A reaction that takes place in laboratory rather than in a living body is called _______
a) In situ
b) In vitro
c) Instant
d) In house
Answer: b
Clarification: In vitro refers to the reaction that occurs in laboratory rather than in human body. Example: In vitro fertilization is something where fertilization takes place in test tubes rather than in human body.

10. Among the following statements pick the statement that best describes a living thing.
a) All living things reproduce
b) Living organisms grow endlessly throughout their life
c) Living organisms are those that are self replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli
d) Living organisms are those that depend on AI to take decisions
Answer: b
Clarification: Living organisms are those that are self replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli. Sometimes it’s possible that living things don’t reproduce due to few disorders. Also, all living organisms except plants stop growing after a certain period of time.

Biology Question Papers for Class 11 on “Biological Classification – Viruses, Viroids and Lichens – 2”.

1. Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.
Hershey-Chase experiment broke the barriers of science and expanded the understanding of life. In this experiment, two sets of bacteriophages are used in which one contains radioactive sulphur in its protein coat (Set-I) and other contains radioactive phosphorus in its DNA (Set-II). These two sets were allowed reproduce in E.Coli culture and then centrifuged.
Which among the following are correct Set-I and Set-II after centrifugation?
a) Set-I and Set-II contains radioactive sulphur and phosphorous in their supernatant respectively
b) Set-I and Set-II contains radioactive sulphur in their supernatant
c) Set-I contains radioactive sulphur in its pellet and set-II contains radioactive phosphorous in its supernatant
d) Set-I and Set-II contains radioactive sulphur and phosphorous in their pellet respectively
Answer: c
Clarification: Set-I contains radioactive sulphur in its pellet and set-II contains radioactive phosphorous in its supernatant. This is because T2 bacteriophages replicates by injecting DNA into E.Coli whereas the protein coat remains outside E.Coli. This mixture when centrifuged forms sediment and pellet containing DNA and protein coat respectively.

2. Viruses are smaller than viroids.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Viroids are smaller than viruses. Viroids don’t contain protein coat whereas viruses do contain. Both viroids and viruses are pathogenic i.e. both of them cause diseases.

3. Which among the following is not a difference between viruses and viroids?
a) Viruses contain DNA whereas viroids don’t contain DNA
b) Viruses contain protein coat whereas viroids don’t contain protein coat
c) Viruses contain RNA whereas viroids don’t contain RNA
d) Viruses are found in bacteria, animals and plants but viroids only in plants
Answer: a
Clarification: Viruses contain both RNA and DNA whereas viroids contains. Viruses contain protein coat whereas viroids don’t contain protein coat. Viruses are found in bacteria, animals and plants but viroids only in plants.

4. Who discovered viroids?
a) T.O. Diener
b) Alexander Flemming
c) W.M. Stanley
d) Robert Hooke
Answer: a
Clarification: T.O. Diener discovered viroids in 1971. He found that these infectious agents are smaller than viruses and are the main cause for potato spindle tuber disease.

5. Which among the following is odd?
a) Mumps
b) Small pox
c) Influenza
d) Potato spindle tuber disease
Answer: d
Clarification: Mumps, small pox, herpes and influenza are caused due to viruses. Whereas, T.O.Diener in 1971 discovered that potato spindle tuber disease is caused by set of pathogens that are similar to viruses and named them as viroids.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about the following figure?

a) The protein coat is made of hexagonal units called capsomeres
b) The protein sheath is called capsid
c) The substance in “a” is made of saccharides
d) The four main parts shown in the above figure are head, collar, sheath and tail fibres
Answer: c
Clarification: The part “a” refers to head and contains genetic material made of nucleotides i.e. either DNA or RNA. The protein sheath present is called capsid and is made of hexagonal units called capsomeres. The four main parts shown in the above figure are head, collar, sheath and tail fibres.

7. AIDS stands for _______
a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
b) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
c) All India Disease Syndromes
d) Aided Institute for Development and Sciences
Answer: a
Clarification: AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome and is caused by a virus called Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Symptoms of this disease include night sweats, loss of apetite, diarrhoea, loss of eye sight and malaise etc.

8. The fungal portion in Lichens is known as _________
a) Mycobiant
b) Phycobiant
c) Capsobiant
d) Deuterobiant
Answer: a
Clarification: Lichens exist in symbiotic associations with algae and fungi. The algal and fungal components in Lichens are known as Phycobiant and Mycobiant respectively.

9. RNA of the viroids is of low molecular weight when compared to viruses.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: RNA of the viroids is of low molecular weight when compared to viruses. Viroids are comparatively smaller than viruses. They also lack protein sheath that is found in viruses.

10. Lichens are indicators of pollution because ________
a) They grow in oxygen depleted regions
b) They don’t grow in polluted regions
c) They grow in polluted regions
d) Their growth indicates that the region has very high carbon levels
Answer: b
Clarification: The co-existence of algae with fungus is called lichens. Lichens are the best examples of symbiotic association. They are also good indicators of pollution as they don’t grow in polluted regions.

To practice Biology Question Papers for Class 11,

Zoology Online Test on “Classification of Animal Kingdom into Different Phylum-4”.

1. Which among the following is incorrect about Mollusca?
a) This is the second largest phylum of Animal Kingdom
b) They have organ system level of organization
c) They have a dorsal heart along with dorsal and ventral blood vessels
d) Their body is covered with calcareous shell
Answer: c
Clarification: Mollusks constitute the second largest phylum of Animal kingdom. They have organ system level of organization. They have open type of circulatory system. Their body is covered with calcareous shell.

2. Which among the following statements is incorrect about nervous system in Mollusca?
a) Ganglia are present at important parts of body
b) All the mollusks exhibit cephalization
c) Many of them have eyespots that act as photoreceptors
d) The anterior head region has sensory tentacles that help in sense of touch
Answer: b
Clarification: Most of the mollusks don’t exhibit cephalization. Ganglia are present at important parts of their body. Many of them have eyespots that act as photoreceptors. The anterior head region has sensory tentacles that help in sense of touch.

3. The soft spongy layer of skin over the hump is called as ________
a) Visceral Hump
b) Mantle
c) Radula
d) Foot
Answer: b
Clarification: The soft spongy layer of skin over the hump is called Mantle. The gap between hump and the mantle is called mantle cavity. In some mollusks, mantle cavity acts as the respiratory organs of the body.

4. Which among the following is not correct about organ systems in mollusks?
a) Pair of main nerve cords extends throughout their body
b) Mollusks respire either through gills or mantle cavity
c) Excretion occurs through malpighian tubules
d) They have an open type of circulatory system
Answer: c
Clarification: Pair of main nerve cords extends throughout their body. Mollusks respire either through gills or mantle cavity. Excretion occurs through nephridia. They have an open type of circulatory system.

5. Mollusks have a file like rasping organ called as radula that helps them in catching prey
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Mollusks have a file like rasping organ called as radula that helps them in catching prey. Mollusks have ganglia at important parts of their body which helps them perform important functions.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about Echinodermata?
a) The word “Echino” means spiny and “dermata” means skinned
b) Echinoderms are dioecious with fertilization being external in most cases
c) They have a central nerve ring that extends throughout their body
d) The circulatory system is closed and they have a heart along with blood vessels
Answer: d
Clarification: The word “Echino” means spiny and “dermata” means skinned. Echinoderms are dioecious with fertilization being external in most cases. They have a central nerve ring that extends throughout their body. The circulatory system in Echinoderms is of open type.

7. Which among the following is incorrect about water vascular system in Echinoderms?
a) Water driven tube feet system helps in locomotion as well as in excretion
b) Water vascular system has a ring canal which fills initially followed by that of radial canals
c) Echinoderms excrete waste by osmosis in the tube feet
d) Exchange of gases takes place due to water vascular system
Answer: c
Clarification: Water driven tube feet system helps in locomotion as well as in excretion. Water vascular system has a ring canal which fills initially followed by that of radial canals. Echinoderms excrete waste by diffusion through the tube feet. Exchange of gases takes place due to water vascular system.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about Echinoderms?
a) Larval stage is bilaterally symmetrical and adults are radially symmetrical
b) They are dioecious and most of the times the fertilization is external
c) The larvae is immobile and bilaterally symmetrical
d) They have a complete digestive system with mouth on the ventral side and anus on the dorsal side
Answer: c
Clarification: Larval stage is bilaterally symmetrical and adults are radially symmetrical. They are dioecious and most of the times the fertilization is external. The larvae is immobile and bilaterally symmetrical. They have a complete digestive system with mouth on the ventral side and anus on the dorsal side.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about nervous system in Echinodermata?
a) Radial nerves extend through the arms from the central nerve ring that surrounds the mouth
b) Sensory tentacles help in sense of touch
c) Epidermis contains sensory cells that help in sense of touch
d) Their brain is made up of 4 nerve rings
Answer: d
Clarification: Radial nerves extend through the arms from the central nerve ring that surrounds the mouth. Sensory tentacles help in sense of touch. Epidermis contains sensory cells that help in sense of touch. In Echinoderms, brain is absent.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about Hemichordata?
a) They have three main parts in their body, namely, Proboscis, Collar and a long trunk
b) Open circulatory system is present in these organisms
c) Excretion takes place through proboscis gland
d) Hemichordates are organisms that contain notochord like chordates but lack in all other features
Answer: d
Clarification: Hemichordates have three main parts in their body, namely, Proboscis, Collar and a long trunk. Open circulatory system is present in these organisms. Excretion takes place through proboscis gland. Hemichordates don’t have a notochord instead have a structure similar to notochord called as stomochord.

11. Which among the following is incorrect about Hemichordates?
a) Their digestive system is complete with both mouth and anus
b) They are bilaterally symmetrical and are coelomates
c) They adopt tracheal mode of respiration
d) These organisms are also called as acorn worms
Answer: c
Clarification: The digestive system in hemichordates is complete with both mouth and anus. They are bilaterally symmetrical and are coelomates. They use their gills to respire. These organisms are also called as acorn worms.

12. Which among the following statements is incorrect about Hemichordates?
a) Embryo development is indirect i.e. they have an intermediate larval stage
b) The circulatory system is of closed type i.e. they have a dorsal heart and blood vessels
c) They have dorsal and ventral nerves that help in coordination
d) They are monoecious
Answer: d
Clarification: Embryo development is indirect i.e. they have an intermediate larval stage. The circulatory system is of closed type i.e. they have a dorsal heart and blood vessels. They have dorsal and ventral nerves that help in coordination. They are dioecious.

13. Which among the following is correct about the following diagram?

a) a – helps in excretion; b-has mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; c-has gills and helps in respiration
b) a – mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; b – has gills and helps in respiration; c – has brain and central nervous system
c) a – helps in excretion; b – has gills and helps in respiration; c – has mouth and helps in peristalsis of food
d) a – has mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; b – has brain and central nervous system; c – helps in excretion
Answer: a
Clarification: Hemichordates have three main body parts. They are Proboscis, Collar and Trunk. Proboscis helps in excretion. Collar has a mouth and helps in peristalsis of food. Trunk has gills and helps in respiration.

14. Which among the following statements is incorrect about the following diagram?

a) The above figure shows medusa
b) “d” has stingy capsules that help in catching prey
c) “b” helps in ingesting food
d) “a” is the cavity between gut wall and body wall
Answer: d
Clarification: The above figure shows medusa. In the above diagram, a, b, c, d indicates gastro-vascular cavity, hypostome, tentacles and cnidoblasts respectively. Cnidoblasts have stingy capsules that help in catching prey.

To practice Zoology Online Test,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Animal Tissues-1”.

1. Which of the following functions is not performed by unicellular organisms?
a) Digestion
b) Respiration
c) Reproduction
d) Neural coordination
Answer: d
Clarification: Neural coordination is not performed by unicellular organisms because neural coordination requires a complex set of cells and tissues to carry out the process which is not present in a single cell. It is coordination between different cells of the neural tissue.

2. The human body is composed of how many cells?
a) Billions
b) Millions
c) Thousands
d) Quadrillion
Answer: a
Clarification: The human body is composed of billions of cell to perform various functions. These cells aggregate to form tissues which in turn aggregate to form organs. Many organs coordinate with each other to form the organ system.

3. What is meant by a tissue?
a) Group of cells of similar origin
b) Group of cells of dissimilar origin
c) Group of similar or dissimilar cells
d) Group of unrelated cells
Answer: c
Clarification: The group of similar or dissimilar cells that have a common origin and perform a similar function is called tissue. These tissues are organised in specific proportion and pattern to form an organ like stomach, lung, heart and kidney.

4. The structure of the cell varies according to which of the following?
a) Shape
b) Size
c) Life
d) Function
Answer: d
Clarification: The structure of the cells varies according to their function. Therefore, the tissues are different and are broadly classified into four types –
i. Epithelial tissue
ii. Connective tissue
iii. Muscular tissue
iv. Neural tissue.

5. Which of the following tissues has the most regenerative power?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Neural tissue
Answer: a
Clarification: Epithelial tissue has the most regenerative power while neural tissue has the least regenerative power. We commonly refer to an epithelial tissue as epithelium.

6. Which of the following tissues is derived from all the three germinal layers?
a) Connective tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Neural tissue
Answer: b
Clarification: Epithelial tissue is derived from Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. Connective and Muscular tissues are derived from mesoderm. Nervous or neural tissue is derived from ectoderm.

7. Which of the following functions is not performed by epithelial tissue?
a) Protection
b) Secretion
c) Absorption
d) Conduction
Answer: d
Clarification: Epithelial tissue performs the function of protection, secretion, absorption, excretion and diffusion. Conduction of stimulus is the function of neural tissue.

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding epithelial tissue?
a) It does not have a free surface
b) Provides a covering for some part of the body
c) Cells are compactly packed
d) It is of two types
Answer: a
Clarification: Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment and thus provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body. The cells of this tissue are compactly packed with a little intercellular matrix. There are two types of epithelial tissues namely simple epithelium and compound epithelium.

9. The simple epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has a protective function.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes. The compound epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has a protective function as it does in our skin.

10. Which of the following is not a type of simple epithelial tissue?
a) Squamous epithelium
b) Cuboidal epithelium
c) Columnar epithelium
d) Compound epithelium
Answer: d
Clarification: Based on structural modification of the cells, simple epithelium is further divided into three types. These are:
i. Squamous epithelium
ii. Cuboidal epithelium
iii. Columnar epithelium.

11. In which of the following places, the squamous epithelium is not found?
a) Wall of blood vessels
b) Air sacs of lungs
c) Trachea
d) Bowman’s capsule
Answer: c
Clarification: Squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. They are found in the walls of blood vessels, lymph vessels, air sacs of lung alveoli, Bowman’s capsule and Henle’s loop.

12. In which of the following places, the cuboidal epithelium is not found?
a) Ducts of glands
b) Tubular parts of the nephron
c) Germinal epithelium of gonads
d) Vasa deferens
Answer: d
Clarification: The cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the ducts of glands, tubular part of nephrons like DCT, collecting tubule and collecting duct. It is also found in the germinal epithelium of gonads.

13. Where is brush bordered cuboidal epithelium found?
a) DCT
b) PCT
c) Collecting duct
d) Collecting tubule
Answer: b
Clarification: Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is found in Proximal Convoluted Tubule. It is responsible for 70% reabsorption of glomerular filtrate. This epithelium has microvilli.

14. The nuclei of columnar epithelial cells are located at the base.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The nuclei of columnar epithelial cells are located at the base. The columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells. This epithelium is found in small intestine and stomach.

15. What are cuboidal or columnar cells called when they bear cilia?
a) Ciliated epithelium
b) Flagellated epithelium
c) Convoluted epithelium
d) Brush bordered epithelium
Answer: a
Clarification: If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface they are called the ciliated epithelium. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

Zoology Viva Questions and Answers on “Animals Structural Organisations – Frogs-3”.

1. Which of these structures is not a part of excretory system in frogs?
a) Cloaca
b) Ureter
c) Urinary bladder
d) Anus
Answer: d
Clarification: The anus is not a part of the excretory system of frogs. Their excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, a urinary bladder, a ureter and a cloaca. Waste is passed out of the cloaca. Frogs are ureotelic.

2. Which of these statements is true with respect to the anatomy of frog?
a) The oviduct and ureters are merged in female frog
b) The urinary and genital ducts are separate in male frogs
c) The urinary bladder is ventral to the rectum
d) Frogs are uricotelic
Answer: c
Clarification: In frogs, the urinary bladder is thin walled and is situated ventral to the rectum. In female frogs, the oviduct and ureters are separate, whereas in male frogs, the urinary and genital ducts fuse to form urinogenital ducts.

3. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain of frog?
a) 12
b) 8
c) 10
d) 6
Answer: c
Clarification: The frog has a well-developed nervous system as well as an endocrine system. The nervous system is divided into central, peripheral and autonomic nervous systems. 10 pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain.

4. In the brain of frogs, optic lobes are present in the _______
a) midbrain
b) hindbrain
c) forebrain
d) medulla oblongata
Answer: a
Clarification: A pair of optic lobes are present in the midbrain of frogs. The forebrain contains olfactory lobes and the diencephalon while the hindbrain contains the cerebellum and medulla oblongata.

5. What lies between the medulla oblongata and spinal cord in frogs?
a) Foramen lacerum
b) Foramen magnum
c) Foramen ovale
d) Foramen of Monro
Answer: b
Clarification: The foramen magnum lies between the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord in frogs. The medulla oblongata is a part of the hindbrain of frogs. The brain and the spinal cord together make up its central nervous system.

6. Which of these is a cellular aggregation in frog?
a) Tympanum
b) Eyes
c) Nasal epithelium
d) Internal ears
Answer: c
Clarification: The sensory organs in frog are eyes for vision, tympanum and internal ears for hearing, organs of touch called sensory papillae, taste buds for taste and nasal epithelium for smell. The senses for vision and hearing are well developed and the rest are cellular aggregations.

7. Which of these is not a function of ear in frog?
a) Defense
b) Hearing
c) Balance
d) Equilibrium
Answer: a
Clarification: The ears of frogs contain two part- the tympanum and the internal ear. The tympanum is thin and sheet like. It receives sound waves from the environment. The internal ear helps with balance and equilibrium.

8. What is the shape of testes in male frogs?
a) Triangular
b) Irregular
c) Spherical
d) Ovoid
Answer: d
Clarification: The testes in male frogs is ovoid in shape. They are yellow in color. The testes are attached to the upper part of each kidney of the frog with the help of a double fold of the peritoneum.

9. Which of these structures attach the testes to the kidneys in male frogs?
a) Tympanum
b) Bidder’s canal
c) Mesorchium
d) Sensory papillae
Answer: c
Clarification: The mesorchium attaches each of the yellowish ovoid testes of the male frogs to the upper part of each kidney. The mesorchium is a double fold of the peritoneum that attaches both the structures.

10. Frogs have compound eyes. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Frogs have simple eyes. This means that their eyes are made of single units each. Compound eyes are made of several ommatidia and are characteristic of arthropods, annelids and mollusks.

11. Which of these is not a function of cloaca in frogs?
a) Passing of fecal matter
b) Passing of sperm
c) Passing of urine
d) Passing of ova
Answer: d
Clarification: The cloaca is an excretory organ of frog. It is connected to both the excretory system and the reproductive system of male frog. It helps in the passing of sperm, fecal matter and urine, but not ova.

12. In frogs, vasa efferentia arises from the _____
a) Bidder’s canal
b) Kidneys
c) Testes
d) Cloaca
Answer: c
Clarification: Vasa efferentia arises from the testes. They are 10 to 12 in number. The vasa efferentia enter each of the kidneys and open into the Bidder’s canals. The vasa efferentia is a part of the male reproductive system.

13. How many ova does a female frog lay at a time?
a) 30 to 40
b) 10,000 to 20,000
c) 2500 to 3000
d) 50,000 to 80,000
Answer: c
Clarification: A female frog typically lays 2500 to 3000 ova. Fertilization is external in frogs and takes place in water. The development consists of a larval stage called tadpole. The tadpole is aquatic in nature.

14. Where does fertilization take place in frogs?
a) Water
b) Land
c) Inside the female frog
d) Inside the male frog
Answer: a
Clarification: Frogs show external fertilization. This process takes place in water. The development of frogs involves a larval stage called tadpole. Tadpoles are restricted to the water and later metamorphosize into an adult frog.

15. Which of these statements is true with respect to frog?
a) They are pests for agricultural crop
b) Legs of frogs can be eaten
c) They do not play a part in ecological balance
d) They are herbivores
Answer: b
Clarification: Frogs are beneficial for farming as they feed on insects and hence protect the agricultural crop. They are an essential part of the food web and hence maintain ecological balance. They are not herbivores. Frog legs can be eaten.

To practice Zoology Viva Questions and Answers,

Biology MCQs for Medical Entrance Exams on “Biomolecules – Chemical Analysis – 3”.

1. Which of the following acids is used for the chemical analysis of living tissues?
a) Trichloroacetic acid
b) Trifluoroacetic acid
c) Tribromoacetic acid
d) Triiodoacetic acid
Answer: a
Clarification: Trichloroacetic acid is used for the chemical analysis of living tissues like a vegetable or a piece of liver, etc. and the tissue is grinded using a mortar and a pestle.

2. What are biomolecules?
a) Molecules of quantum mechanics
b) Molecules of Life
c) Molecules related to string theory
d) It is a molecule
Answer: b
Clarification: Biomolecules means the molecules of life or all the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be called as biomolecules.

3. What is the percentage weight of carbon in the earth’s crust?
a) 0.01
b) 0.3
c) 0.03
d) 0.14
Answer: c
Clarification: The percentage weight of carbon in the earth’s crust is 0.03. It is 18.5 in the human body. The percentage weight of hydrogen in earth’s crust is 0.14 and in the human body is 0.5.

4. What is the use of elemental analysis?
a) To add those nutrients in food
b) To find the elemental composition of living tissues
c) To gain confidence
d) To research the unknown
Answer: b
Clarification: Elemental analysis gives the elemental composition of living tissues in the form of hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon, etc. while analysis for compounds gives an idea of the kind of organic and inorganic constituents present in living tissues.

5. Why do we use dry weights for the chemical analysis?
a) Because it is vulnerable
b) Because of water leaks everywhere
c) Because water is not absorbed by chemicals
d) Because different organisms have different water-absorbing capacities
Answer: d
Clarification: During a chemical analysis, one weighs a small amount of living tissue, say a leaf or liver and this weight is known as wet weight. After that, we dry it. All the water evaporates. The remaining material gives dry weight. Now because different organisms have different water-holding capacities, so their wet weights would be different.

6. Amino acids contain an amino group and an acidic group at different carbons
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the same carbon i.e., the α carbon. Hence, they are called α-amino acids.

7. What is the other name of α-amino acids?
a) Substituted methanes
b) Substituted alcohols
c) Substituted alkyl halides
d) Substituted carboxylic acids
Answer: a
Clarification: α-amino acids are also called as substituted methanes. Four substituent groups are occupying the four valency positions. These are hydrogen, carboxyl group, amino group and a variable R group.

8. Based on which of the following there are different kinds of amino acids?
a) Nature of R group
b) Nature of amino group
c) Nature of carboxyl group
d) Nature of hydrogen
Answer: a
Clarification: Based on the nature of the R group there are many amino acids. However, those which occur in proteins are only of twenty types. The R group can be hydrogen, alcohol, etc.

9. What is the name of the given structure?

a) Glucose
b) Arabinose
c) Phospholipid
d) Uridine
Answer: c
Clarification: The given structure depicts a phospholipid known as lecithin. These lipids have phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic compound in them. Lecithin is found in the cell membrane of every cell and on the surface of lung alveoli.

10. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
a) Tryptophan
b) Tyrosine
c) Lysine
d) Glutamic acid
Answer: c
Clarification: Lysine and arginine are some of the basic amino acids. Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids. Aspartic acid and glutamic acid are some examples of acidic amino acids.

11. What is the name of the given structure?

a) Adenosine
b) Adenine
c) Adenylic acid
d) Uridine
Answer: b
Clarification: The given structure represents adenine. Living organisms have several carbon compounds in which heterocyclic rings can be found. Some of these are nitrogen bases- adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil and thymine.

12. Lipids are generally water-soluble.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Lipids are generally water – insoluble. They could be simple fatty acids. A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to an R group. The R group could be a methyl, ethyl or any higher number of carbon – containing groups.

13. How many carbon atoms are there in palmitic acid?
a) 16
b) 18
c) 20
d) 22
Answer: a
Clarification: Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon. These fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated.

14. Which of the following is not a nucleotide?
a) Adenylic acid
b) Thymidylic acid
c) Guanylic acid
d) Cytidine
Answer: d
Clarification: Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides. Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine are nucleosides.

15. What is the name of the given structure?

a) Ribose
b) Glucose
c) Deoxyribose
d) Fructose
Answer: a
Clarification: The given structure represents ribose. Sugars like ribose and deoxyribose when are found attached to a nitrogen base, they are called nucleosides.

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