Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biological Classification – Fungi – 1”.

1. Why do you think that food is protected from fungi when stored in refrigerator?
a) Fungi doesn’t grow in warm conditions
b) Refrigerator provides dry and cold conditions that don’t let fungi grow
c) Refrigerator contains CFC gas that is toxic and doesn’t let fungi to grow
d) Since the device works with electricity which doesn’t let fungus to grow
Answer: b
Clarification: Fungi grow in moist and warm conditions. Refrigerator provides dry and cold conditions that prevent fungal growth. Therefore food stored in refrigerator doesn’t get rotten.

2. All fungi are multi-cellular.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: All fungi are multi-cellular except yeast. Yeast is the only unicellular fungi. Yeast belong to Ascomycetes and are sometimes multi-cellular by formation of slender thread like structures called hyphae.

3. The structure shown below is the interconnection of ______

a) Hyphae
b) Dendrites
c) Rootlets
d) Rootlets
Answer: c
Clarification: The above figure shows mycelium. Mycelium is the interconnection of slender thread like structures called hyphae. Fungi are differentiated based on the different mycelium that they possess.

4. Which among the following statements are incorrect about Fungi?
a) All the fungi are multi-cellular organisms except yeast
b) Fungi are heterotrophic and are either parasitic or saprophytic
c) Fungi prefer cold-dry conditions to grow
d) Fungi are immobile and this is the major difference between slime molds and that of fungi
Answer: c
Clarification: Fungi prefer warm and moist conditions to grow. All the fungi are multi-cellular eukaryotic organisms except yeast. Fungi are heterotrophic and are either parasitic or saprophytic. Parasitic fungi sometimes cause diseases. Fungi are immobile and this is the major difference between slime molds and that of fungi.

5. Which among the following is wrong about the following figure?

a) Mycelium is made up of light thread like structures called hyphae
b) Hypha sometimes reproduces by vegetative reproduction
c) Mycelium is septate and coenocytic
d) Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin and polysaccharides
Answer: b
Clarification: Mycelium is a network of light slender thread like structures called hyphae. Mycelium may be septate or aseptate i.e. either might be separated by septum or might not. Aseptate mycelium is coenocytic i.e. many nuclei share common cytoplasm. Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin and polysaccharides.

6. Lichens are __________
a) symbiotic existence of blue-green algae and fungi
b) symbiotic existence of rhizobium bacteria in the roots of leguminous plants
c) co-existence of coral reef with zooxanthellae
d) existence of mycorrhiza along with leguminous plants
Answer: c
Clarification: Lichens are the co-existence of blue green algae with fungi. Fungus protects the algae from sun light. In turn algae provide nutrition for fungus since fungus cannot prepare its own food due to absence of chlorophyll.

7. Symbiosis between honey bee and flowers is an example of _________
a) Obligative symbiosis
b) Facultative symbiosis
c) Commensalism
d) Parasitism
Answer: a
Clarification: In obligative symbiosis, both the organisms get benefitted and this symbiosis is necessary for both of their survival. Symbiotic relationship between honey bee and flowers is necessary for their survival because honey bees needs nectar from flowers and in turn help flowers with pollination.

8. Which among the following statements are incorrect?
a) Some parasitic fungi can cause disease in humans
b) Lichens are an example of obligative symbiosis
c) Lice in humans are example for endo-symbiosis
d) Cell wall of fungi is made of polysaccharides
Answer: c
Clarification: Lice in humans are example of exo-symbiosis. Fungi are heterotrophic and can be either saprophytic or parasitic. Some of the parasitic fungi can cause diseases in humans. Lichens are an example of obligative symbiosis. Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin and polysaccharides.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about Dikaryon?
a) Dikaryon is formed by fusion of two nuclei
b) Dikaryon is haploid nuclei formed due to fusion of two nuclei
c) It further undergoes meiosis to form haploid cells
d) Dikaryon is formed only during adverse environmental conditions
Answer: b
Clarification: Dikaryon is formed due to karyogamy. Sexual cycle of fungi comprises of 3 main steps: Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis. Fungus prefers sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction during adverse environmental conditions. Initially, the cytoplasm of both the cells fuse which is called plasmogamy and followed by fusion of nuclei to form a diploid zygote called dikaryon. Later dikaryon undergoes meiosis in order to produce haploid spores.

10. Which among the following is not a mode of asexual reproduction?
a) Budding
b) Fragmentation
c) Zoospores
d) Zygospores
Answer: d
Clarification: Fungus reproduces through asexual mode during favourable conditions and opts sexual mode of reproduction only during adverse situations. Budding, fragmentation and spore formation are different modes of asexual reproduction. Zoospores and zygospores are produced by phycospores for asexual and sexual odes of reproduction respectively.

11. Karyogamy means ______
a) fusion of nuclei
b) removal of cell wall
c) formation of new cell wall
d) division of nucleus
Answer: a
Clarification: The word “karyo” means nucleus and “gamy” means fusion. Therefore the word “karyogamy” refers to the fusion of nuclei. In the sexual cycle of fungus to form spores, plasmogamy is followed by karyogamy and then by meiosis.

12. Diploid cell refers to __________
a) two set of chromosomes in a cell
b) germ cells in an organism
c) single set of chromosomes
d) double-membraned nuclei
Answer: c
Clarification: Diploid cell refers to the cells with two set of chromosomes. Haploid cells refer to the cells that have only a single set of chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in a haploid cell is half that of a diploid cell. Germ cells are haploid.

13. Budding is ________
a) sexual mode of reproduction
b) an asexual mode of reproduction where an outgrowth from the parent splits to form the daughter organism
c) an asexual mode of reproduction where the parent organisms splits into fragments and then develops into a new organism
d) an asexual mode of reproduction where cytoplasm and nuclei splits into two equal parts to form two daughter nuclei
Answer: b
Clarification: Budding is an asexual mode of reproduction where an outgrowth from the parent splits to form the daughter organism. Fragmentation is another mode of asexual reproduction where the parent organisms splits into fragments and then develops into a new organism. Binary fission is an asexual mode of reproduction where cytoplasm and nuclei splits into two equal parts to form two daughter nuclei.

14. During reproduction of fungus through fragmentation, ______
a) Mycelium separates into pieces which in turn form new one
b) Germ cells separate into pieces which in turn form new one
c) Zoospores are formed which further germinates to form new mycelium
d) Zygospores are formed which further germinates to form new mycelium
Answer: a
Clarification: During reproduction of fungus through fragmentation, Mycelium separates into pieces which in turn grow to form new mycelium. Fragmentation is one of the most common modes of asexual reproduction in Basidiomycetes.

15. Coenocytic means _______
a) sharing of common cytoplasm
b) removal of plasma membrane
c) sharing of common nucleus
d) sharing of common hyphael wall
Answer: a
Clarification: The word “coeno” means common and “cytic” means cytoplasm. Therefore the word “coenocytic” means sharing of common cytoplasm. Aseptate fungi have multiple nuclei in a common cytoplasm.

Zoology Quiz on “Basis of Classification in Animals – 2”.

1. Which among the following is incorrect about classification on the basis of coelom?
a) Coelom is the cavity between the body wall and gut wall
b) Animals are divided into coelomates, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates
c) Coelom is the fluid filled space other than lymph vessels and blood vessels
d) In coelomates, cavities between the gut wall and mesoderm is absent
Answer: d
Clarification: Coelom is the cavity between the body wall and gut wall. It is the fluid filled space other than lymph vessels and blood vessels. Animals are divided into coelomates, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates based on the presence or absence of the coelom or false coelom respectively.

2. Which among the following is incorrect about pseudocoelomates?
a) Pseudocoelomates means those organisms with false coelom
b) Mesoderm in pseudocoelom is scattered into pouches
c) In pseudocoelomates, coelom is lined completely through mesoderm
d) Nematodes are examples of pseudocoelomates
Answer: c
Clarification: Pseudocoelomates means those organisms with false coelom. Mesoderm in pseudocoelom is scattered into pouches. In pseudocoelomates, coelom is lined partially through mesoderm. Nematodes are examples of pseudocoelomates.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about coelomates?
a) Coelomates is also called as Eucoelomates
b) Body cavity is lined by mesoderm
c) Internal organs are suspended in the coelom and is attached through peritonium
d) Porifera is the best example for coelomates
Answer: d
Clarification: Coelomates is also called as Eucoelomates which means true coelom. Body cavity is lined by mesoderm. Internal organs are suspended in the coelom and are attached through peritoneum. Hemichordates, chordates, annelids and arthropods are the best examples for coelomates.

4. Which among the following is incorrect about acoelomates?
a) Body cavity is absent in these type of organisms
b) Coelenterates are the best examples for acoelomates
c) Mesoderm holds the internal organs in its own place
d) Nematodes also belong to acoelomates
Answer: c
Clarification: Body cavity is absent in acoelomates. In this type of animals, mesoderm helps in holding the internal organs in its own place. Coelenterates, platyhelminthes and porifera are the best examples for acoelomates.

5. Echinoderms are an example for coelomates.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Animals classified into coelomates, pseudocoelomates and acoelomates based on the presence or absence of pseudocoelom. Echinoderms, annelids, mollusks and arthropods are examples of coelomates.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about segmentation?
a) Some animal bodies are divided into segments both internally and externally
b) The functions of each and every segment are unique and don’t intersect in their functions
c) The phenomenon of segmentation is termed as metamerism
d) Segmentation helps few animals in locomotion
Answer: b
Clarification: Some animal bodies are divided into segments both internally and externally. Along with few specific functions each and every segment has many common functions. The phenomenon of segmentation is termed as metamerism. Segmentation helps few animals in locomotion.

7. Incomplete digestive system is found in animals like tape worms.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Some animals have a single opening both for ingestion and egestion. This type of digestive system is called as incomplete digestive system. Incomplete digestive system is found in animals like tapeworm.

8. Notochord is formed by __________
a) Mesodermal cells
b) Ectodermal cells
c) Epidermal cells
d) Endodermal cells
Answer: a
Clarification: Animals are classified as chordates and non-chordates based on the presence or absence of notochord respectively. Notochord is a rod-like structure formed from mesodermal cells.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about notochords?
a) Notochord is a rod-like structure on the dorsal side of the animals
b) During the embryonic development notochord is formed on the dorsal side
c) Notochord is formed from epidermal cells
d) Pisces are an example for chordates
Answer: c
Clarification: Notochord is a rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side of animals. During the embryonic development, notochord gets developed from mesodermal cells. Animals are classified as chordates and non-chordates based on the presence or absence of notochord. Pisces are an example for chordates.

10. Which among the following is coelomate, bilateral and has organ system level of organization?
a) Hemichordates
b) Aschelminthes
c) Coelenterata
d) Platyhelminthes
Answer: a
Clarification: Animals are classified considering several factors like level of organization in the organism, symmetry, arrangement of cells in the embryo, presence or absence of coelom, segmentation in the organism and presence or absence of notochord. Hemichordate is one such organism which has organ system level of organization, bilateral symmetry and body cavity.

To practice Zoology Quiz,

Biology Online Quiz for Class 11 on “Animals Structural Organisations – Cockroach-2”.

1. What structure of the cockroach is called the tegmina?
a) Hindwings
b) Thorax
c) Tongue
d) Forewings
Answer: d
Clarification: The forewings of the cockroach is called tegmina. It is dark, opaque and leathery. The tegmina covers the hindwings. Out of the two pairs of wings, the cockroach uses the hindwings for flight.

2. Which of these is characteristic of hindwings of a cockroach?
a) Thick, Smooth
b) Opaque, Leathery
c) Membranous, Transparent
d) Moist, Thick
Answer: c
Clarification: The hindwings of the cockroach are located below the forewings. The hindwings are membranous and transparent. They are used for the purpose of flight. The forewings are opaque and leathery.

3. How many segments is the abdomen of a cockroach divided into?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 10
d) 2
Answer: c
Clarification: The abdomen of the cockroach is located after the head and thorax. It is divided into 10 segments. Overall, the body of the cockroach is divided into three parts – a triangular head, a thorax and an abdomen.

4. What is the shape of the seventh sternum of the female cockroach?
a) Boat – shaped
b) Triangular
c) Oval
d) Irregular
Answer: a
Clarification: The abdomen of the cockroach is divided into 10 segments. The seventh sternum or segment is boat shaped. It is a part of the brood or genital pouch along with the eighth and ninth segments.

5. Which of these pairs of abdominal segments are a part of brood pouch of female cockroach?
a) 1^st, 2^nd
b) 8^th, 9^th
c) 3^rd, 4^th
d) 11^th, 12^th
Answer: b
Clarification: The 8^th and 9^th segments of the abdomen of the female cockroach are a part of the brood pouch or the genital pouch. The genital pouch is made of the 8^th, 9^th and boat – shaped 7^th segments.

6. Where are spermathecal pores located in cockroach?
a) Maxilla
b) Gonapophysis
c) Brood pouch
d) Anal cerci
Answer: c
Clarification: The brood pouch or the genital pouch contains the spermathecal pores. The brood pouch also contains the female gonopore and the collateral glands. The 7^th, 8^th and 9^th segments of the abdomen make up the brood pouch.

7. Which of these structures is dorsal in male cockroach?
a) Anus
b) Male genital pore
c) Gonapophysis
d) Foreleg
Answer: a
Clarification: The anus is located dorsally on the body of the male cockroach. It is used for excretion. The male genital pore, the gonapophysis and the forelegs of the male cockroach is located on its ventral side.

8. Which of these structures is present in male cockroaches only?
a) Tegmina
b) Genital pouch
c) Anal cerci
d) Anal style
Answer: d
Clarification: Both male and female cockroaches have tegmina or forewing, genital pouch and anal cerci. Anal style is present only in male cockroaches. They possess one pair of thin and thread-like anal cerci.

9. In which abdominal segment are the anal cerci present in cockroach?
a) 8^th
b) 6^th
c) 10^th
d) 7^th
Answer: c
Clarification: The anal cerci are present in the 10^th abdominal segment in both male and female cockroaches. Cockroaches possess one pair of anal cerci. The anal cerci are jointed filamentous structures.

10. Crop in cockroach is used to grind the ingested food. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: False, as crop is used for the storage of food. It is a sac like structure that is located after the esophagus. The gizzard is located after the crop. Its function is the mechanical breakdown of food by grinding.

11. Which of these completes the pathway of ingested food in cockroach?

a) Pharynx
b) Salivary reservoir
c) Ileum
d) Crop
Answer: d
Clarification: The crop is located between the esophagus and the gizzard. It is a sac like structure which is used for the purpose of food storage. The ileum is a part of the intestine, while the pharynx and salivary reservoir are located before the crop.

12. Which body system is the proventriculus of cockroach a part of?
a) Nervous system
b) Circulatory system
c) Digestive system
d) Reproductive system
Answer: c
Clarification: The proventriculus of cockroach is also known as gizzard. It is a part of the digestive system of cockroach. The function of the gizzard is to mechanically break down food by the process of grinding.

13. The teeth of the gizzard in cockroach is composed of ______
a) calcium
b) cellulose
c) chitin
d) cellobiose
Answer: c
Clarification: The teeth of the gizzard or proventriculus is made of chitin. The function of the gizzard in cockroach is to mechanically break down the ingested food by the process of grinding. The teeth help in grinding.

14. Which of these is not true about hepatic caeca in cockroach?
a) It lies below the gastric caeca
b) It secretes digestive juices
c) It is composed of blind tubules
d) It is located between the foregut and midgut
Answer: a
Clarification: The hepatic caeca is a ring of 6 to 8 blind tubules. It is located between the foregut and midgut. It secretes digested juices. However, it is not located below the gastric caeca but is also known as gastric caeca.

15. Where are the Malpighian tubules present in cockroach?
a) Before foregut
b) Between midgut and hindgut
c) Between foregut and midgut
d) After hindgut
Answer: b
Clarification: The Malpighian tubules of cockroach are present between the midgut and hindgut. They are 100-150 in number and are arranged in a ring. The Malpighian tubules are yellow, thin and filamentous.

To practice Biology Online Quiz for Class 11,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules-2”.

1. 20 amino acids undergo different permutations and combinations to form a large number of proteins.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: 20 amino acids undergo different permutations and combinations to form a large number of proteins. Proteins are biomacromolecules that function as enzymes, defense compounds and help to maintain structure.

2. Which among the following is incorrect about amino acids?
a) Amino acids are those that contain an amine group and a carboxylic group
b) Base on the position of amino group with respect to the carboxylic group, amino groups are classified as α-, β-, γ-, δ- amino acids
c) Proteins on hydrolysis produce α-, β-, γ-, δ- amino acids
d) Amino acids are usually represented by a three letter symbol or a one letter convention
Answer: c
Clarification: Amino acids are those that contain an amine group and a carboxylic group. Base on the position of amino group with respect to the carboxylic group, amino groups are classified as α-, β-, γ-, δ- amino acids. Proteins on hydrolysis produce only α-amino acids.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about amino acids?
a) There are 20 naturally occurring amino acids
b) All the amino acids are chiral
c) Amino acids are classified as acidic, basic or neutral based on the relative number of amino and carboxylic groups
d) Amino acids are classified as essential amino acids and non-essential based on whether they are synthesized in the body or not
Answer: b
Clarification: There are 20 naturally occurring amino acids. All the amino acids except glycine are chiral. Amino acids are classified as acidic, basic or neutral based on the relative number of amino and carboxylic groups. Amino acids are classified as essential amino acids and non-essential based on whether they are synthesized in the body or not.

4. Zwitter ion in aqueous solution is __________
a) Amphoteric
b) Acidic
c) Basic
d) Anomalous
Answer: d
Clarification: Zwitter ion is formed when an amino acid is present in an aqueous solution. In an aqueous solution, –COOH looses hydrogen ion whereas –NH₂ gains hydrogen to form –COO^– and –NH₃+. It is amphoteric in an aqueous solution.

5. Non-essential amino acids are those amino acids that our body doesn’t contain and acquires it through food.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Non-essential amino acids are those amino acids that are present in our body already and need not be taken through food. Essential amino acids are those amino acids that our body fails to synthesize and have taken through diet.

6. Proteins are polymers of amino acids that are connected by __________
a) Peptide linkage
b) Glycosidic linkage
c) Phosphodiester linkage
d) Vanderwaal linkages
Answer: a
Clarification: Proteins are polymers of amino acids undergo dehydration to form a peptide linkage. Dipeptides are formed by a single peptide bond and a tripeptide through two peptide bonds and so on.

7. Which among the following statements is incorrect about classification of protein?
a) Fibrous proteins result when long peptide chains run parallel and are held by hydrogen and sulphide linkages
b) Globular structures result when chain of polypeptide coil around themselves to form a globe like structure
c) Linear structure of amino acids in a polypeptide is called primary structure
d) Collagen is an example of globular protein
Answer: d
Clarification: Fibrous proteins result when long peptide chains run parallel and are held by hydrogen and sulphide linkages. Globular structures result when chain of polypeptide coil around themselves to form a globe like structure. Linear structure of amino acids in a polypeptide is called primary structure. Collagen is an example of fibrous protein.

8. Tertiary structure of protein is formed by __________
a) Sulphide linkages between different amino acids
b) Multiple chains of polypeptides held together by hydrogen bonds
c) Peptide linkages between two amino acids
d) Hydrogen bond formed by helical or pleated structure
Answer: a
Clarification: Primary structure of protein is formed by peptide linkages between two amino acids. Secondary structure, i.e. α-Helix and β-Sheath, of protein is formed by hydrogen bonds. Tertiary structure of protein is formed by sulphide linkages between different amino acids Quaternary structure is formed when multiple chains of polypeptides held together by hydrogen bonds.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about denaturation?
a) Proteins have a unique structure which might get disrupted with change in pH and temperature
b) Secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure is lost
c) Proteins still retain their characteristics as they don’t lose their primary structure
d) Proteins are stereospecific to many enzymes
Answer: c
Clarification: Proteins have a unique structure which might get disrupted with change in pH and temperature. Denaturation leads to loss of secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure. Proteins lose their characteristic if their structure is lost. Proteins are stereospecific to many enzymes.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about enzymes?
a) Enzymes are proteins or non-proteins that act as bio-catalysts
b) Holoenzymes comprise of a prosthetic group and an apoenzyme
c) Prosthetic group can be either co-factors or co-enzymes
d) Cutting a potato leads to the breakage of bonds in the enzymes present in it
Answer: d
Clarification: Enzymes are proteins or non-proteins that act as bio-catalysts. Holoenzymes comprise of a prosthetic group and an apoenzyme. Prosthetic group can be either co-factors or co-enzymes. Cutting a potato is a physical change and doesn’t lead to the breakage of bonds in the enzymes present in it.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules – Concept of Metabolism – 2”.

1. Which of these is mandatory for all metabolic reactions?
a) Breakdown of biomolecules
b) Synthesis of biomolecules
c) Presence of inhibitor
d) Presence of catalyst
Answer: d
Clarification: Metabolic reactions may involve either the synthesis or breakdown of biomolecules through the processes of anabolism or catabolism, respectively. However, all reactions have a catalyst.

2. Which of these statements is true about metabolism?
a) Metabolic pathways are always circular
b) Metabolic pathways are always linear
c) All metabolic reactions are catalyzed
d) The level of metabolites is always constant
Answer: c
Clarification: Metabolic pathways can be both circular and linear in nature. Due to metabolism, all biomolecules have a turnover and their levels are not constant. All metabolic reactions are catalyzed.

3. Which of these is a physical process?
a) Combustion of hydrocarbons
b) Curdling of milk
c) Dissolving carbon dioxide in water
d) Rusting of iron
Answer: c
Clarification: Dissolution of carbon dioxide in water is an example of a physical process. It is reversible. The combustion of hydrocarbons, curdling of milk and rusting of iron are chemical processes.

4. Catalysts that enhance the rate of metabolic reactions are _____
a) proteins
b) lipids
c) lipoproteins
d) polysaccharides
Answer: a
Clarification: Catalysts enhance the rate of a chemical reaction without getting depleted. All metabolic reactions taking place inside the body involve the presence of a catalyst. They are proteins.

5. Enzymes are _____
a) lipids
b) proteins
c) polysaccharides
d) lipoproteins
Answer: b
Clarification: Enzymes are biological catalysts that enhance the rate of a metabolic reaction. All metabolic reactions taking place inside the body involve the use of enzymes. Enzymes are proteinaceous.

6. Which of these are biocatalysts?
a) Neurotransmitters
b) Hormones
c) Enzymes
d) Trace elements
Answer: c
Clarification: Biocatalysts are substances that speed up or catalyze the rate of metabolic reactions. Enzymes are known as biocatalysts as they speed up metabolic reactions without getting depleted. They are proteins.

7. Which of these is true about enzymes?
a) All enzymes have catalytic power
b) Enzymes are active at high temperatures
c) Enzymes are carbohydrates
d) Enzymes often get depleted
Answer: a
Clarification: Enzymes are biocatalysts that are protein in nature. They are active at room temperature and get denatured at high temperatures. Their levels or amounts remain constant in the body.

8. Which of these is an example of anabolism?
a) Glucose to pyruvate
b) Glucose to lactic acid
c) Glycogen to glucose
d) Acetic acid to cholesterol
Answer: d
Clarification: Anabolism is a type of metabolism which involves the biochemical synthesis of larger biomolecules from smaller ones. Hence, the formation of cholesterol from acetic acid is an example of anabolism.

9. Which of these is an example of catabolism?
a) Glucose to glycogen
b) Acetic acid to cholesterol
c) Glucose to pyruvate
d) Amino acids to polypeptides
Answer: c
Clarification: Catabolism is a type of metabolism which involves the biochemical breakdown of larger biomolecules to smaller ones. Hence, the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate is an example of catabolism.

10. The dissolution of carbon dioxide in water is a catalyzed reaction in the body. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: All metabolic reactions taking place inside the body are catalyzed. Hence, the dissolution of carbon dioxide for transport throughout the body also involves the presence of a catalyst.

11. Which of these processes require energy?
a) Formation of acetic acid from cholesterol
b) Formation of glucose from glycogen
c) Formation of pyruvate from glucose
d) Formation of protein from amino acids
Answer: d
Clarification: The conversions of glucose to pyruvate, glycogen to glucose and cholesterol to acetic acid are catabolic processes. The formation of proteins from amino acids is an anabolic process and requires energy input.

12. Which of these processes liberate energy?
a) Formation of protein from amino acids
b) Formation of glycogen from glucose
c) Formation of lactic acid from glucose
d) Formation of cholesterol from acetic acid
Answer: c
Clarification: The conversions of amino acids to proteins, glucose to glycogen and acetic acid to cholesterol are anabolic processes. The formation of lactic acid from glucose is a catabolic process and liberates energy.

13. How many steps are involved in the conversion of glucose to lactic acid?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
Answer: c
Clarification: The conversion of glucose to lactic acid is a catabolic process. It involves the release of energy. The larger glucose molecule is metabolically broken down into lactic acid molecules by glycolysis.

14. What is the full form of ATP?
a) Adenosine triphosphate
b) Adenine triphosphatase
c) Adenyl triphosphatase
d) Adreno triphosphate
Answer: a
Clarification: The full form of ATP id adenosine triphosphate. It is the energy currency of the cell. It is found in all living organisms. The energy is derived from the bond energy present in the ATP molecule.

15. Where does glucose get converted to lactic acid in the body?
a) Liver
b) Skeletal muscles
c) Spleen
d) Stomach
Answer: b
Clarification: Lactic acid is formed in the skeletal muscles by the incomplete breakdown of glucose by the process of catabolism. It occurs due to low levels of oxygen, which is required for the breakdown of glucose.