Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Animals – Organs and Organ System and Answers

Biology Aptitude Test for Class 11 on “Animals – Organs and Organ System – 2”.

1. Which class do the cockroaches belong to?
a) Class Insecta
b) Class Chitoptera
c) Class Arachnida
d) Class Diplotera
Answer: a
Clarification: Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are included in class Insecta of Phylum Arthropoda. Bright yellow, red and green coloured cockroaches have been reported in tropical regions.

2. Where do the cockroaches generally live?
a) In moist places
b) In dry places
c) In damp places
d) In bright spaces
Answer: c
Clarification: Cockroaches are nocturnal omnivores that live in damp places throughout the world. They have become residents of human homes and thus are serious pests and vectors of several diseases.

3. In how many segments is the body of cockroach divided?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into three distinct regions- head, thorax and abdomen. The entire body is covered by a hard chitinous exoskeleton which is brown.

4. Which of the following is not included in the mouthparts of the cockroaches?
a) Collateral glands
b) Maxilla
c) Mandible
d) Hypopharynx
Answer: a
Clarification: The mouth-parts of the cockroach consist of a labrum (upper lip), a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae and a labium (lower lip). A median flexible lobe acts as a tongue, which is also known as hypopharynx.

5. Ventral sclerites are known as tergites and dorsal sclerites are known as sternites.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: In each segment of the cockroach, the exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites that are joined to each other by a thin and flexible articular membrane. Dorsal sclerites are known as tergites and ventral sclerites are known as sternites respectively.

6. Which of the following segments is not involved in the formation of a genital pouch in male cockroaches?
a) 7th sternum
b) 9th tergum
c) 10th tergum
d) 9th sternum
Answer: a
Clarification: 7th sternum is not involved in the formation of the genital pouch in the male cockroaches. Their genital pouch is a chamber which lies at the hind end of the abdomen. The genital chamber is bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally by 9th sternum. It contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis. It is also surrounded by some phallomeres.

7. How many chitinous teeth are present in the gizzard of cockroaches?
a) Seven
b) Two
c) Eleven
d) Six
Answer: d
Clarification: Gizzard or proventriculus has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth. Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.

8. What is the function of the part labelled as a question mark in the given diagram?

a) Respiration
b) Circulation
c) Excretion
d) Reproduction
Answer: c
Clarification: The question mark in the given figure represents the Malpighian tubules. They are present at the junction of midgut and hindgut and are 100-150 in number. They help in removal of excretory products from haemolymph, thus they help in excretion. The correct labelling of the diagram is as shown below:

9. How many chambers are present in the heart of a cockroach?
a) Twelve
b) Ten
c) Sixteen
d) Thirteen
Answer: d
Clarification: The heart of cockroach consists of an elongated muscular tube lying along the mid-dorsal line of thorax and abdomen. It is differentiated into thirteen funnel – shaped chambers with ostia on either side.

10. On which side of the body of cockroaches are the spiracles present?
a) Dorsal
b) Lateral
c) Ventral
d) Bottom
Answer: b
Clarification: The respiratory system of cockroaches consists of a network of the trachea, that open through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles which are present on the lateral side of the body.

11. Cockroaches can transmit a variety of viral diseases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A few species of cockroaches can thrive in and around the human habitat. They are pests because they spoil food and contaminate it with their smelly excreta. They can also transmit a variety of bacterial diseases by contaminating the food material.

12. In what form do the cockroaches excrete out their nitrogenous wastes?
a) Ammonia
b) Urea
c) Uric acid
d) Gluconic acid
Answer: c
Clarification: Cockroaches absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hindgut. Therefore, they are also called as uricotelic organisms.

13. How many ommatidia are present in the compound eyes of the cockroach?
a) 1000
b) 2000
c) 6000
d) 7000
Answer: b
Clarification: The compound eyes of cockroaches are situated at the dorsal surface of the head. Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia. With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object.

14. Which of the following structures in the given diagram is responsible for secreting the outermost membrane of spermatophore?

a) Phallic gland
b) Ejaculatory duct
c) Mushroom gland
d) seminal vesicle
Answer: a
Clarification: In the given figure, the phallic gland is responsible for the secretion of the outermost membrane of the spermatophore. Ejaculatory duct adds middle membrane to the spermatophore while mushroom gland is responsible for the formation of the inner membrane of the spermatophore.

15. Which of the following labelled structures are responsible for the formation of the genital pouch?

a) A and B
b) B and C
c) C and D
d) D and E
Answer: d
Clarification: The correct labelling of the diagram is as follows-
D and E represent genital chamber and vestibulum respectively which are responsible for the formation of the genital pouch in female cockroaches.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Prokaryotic Cells and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Prokaryotic Cells”.

1. What is the full form of PPLO?
a) Pleural Parasite Like Organisms
b) Phosphatic Pneumonia Like Organisms
c) Pleuro Parasite Like Organisms
d) Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms
Answer: d
Clarification: The full form of PPLO is Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms. They are a type of prokaryotic organisms, which also include bacteria, blue – green algae and mycoplasma. The lack a true nucleus.

2. Which of these is not a basic shape of bacteria?
a) Vibrio
b) Spirillum
c) Triangular
d) Coccus
Answer: c
Clarification: Bacteria have four basic shapes. These are bacillus or rod – shaped, coccus or spherical shape, vibrio or comma shaped and spirillum or spiral shaped. Bacteria are a type of prokaryotic organisms.

3. Which of these bacteria lack a cell wall?
a) Escherichia
b) Pseudomonas
c) Mycoplasma
d) Mycobacterium
Answer: c
Clarification: All bacteria have a cell wall covering the cell membrane, except in the genus mycoplasma. Since all bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, they do not have a well – defined nucleus. The genetic material is naked.

4. What is the size of a typical eukaryotic cell?
a) 10 – 20 μm
b) 0.1 – 0.2 μm
c) 100 – 200 μm
d) 1 – 2 μm
Answer: a
Clarification: The size of a typical eukaryotic cell is 10 – 20 μm. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells and also multiply more rapidly. Bacteria, blue-green algae, mycoplasma and PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms) are the types of prokaryotic cells.

5. What is the shape of a bacterial plasmid?
a) Linear
b) Circular
c) Irregular
d) Bacillus
Answer: b
Clarification: Plasmids are extrachromosomal small circular DNA that is present in bacterial cell, apart from the genomic DNA. Plasmid DNA confers several special features to the cell such as resistance to certain chemicals.

6. What are plasmid made of?
a) Proteins
b) Polysaccharides
c) Nucleic acids
d) Lipids
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasmids are made of nucleic acids. They are extrachromosomal small circular DNA that is present in bacterial cell, apart from the genomic DNA. Plasmid DNA confers several special features to the cell.

7. Which of these structures is used in bacterial transformation?
a) Plasmid
b) Cell membrane
c) Ribosomes
d) Genomic DNA
Answer: a
Clarification: Plasmids are made of nucleic acids. They are extrachromosomal small circular DNA that is present in bacterial cell, apart from the genomic DNA. They are used as vectors for bacterial transformation.

8. From which structure is a mesosome derived from?
a) Plasmid
b) Cell wall
c) Ribosome
d) Cell membrane
Answer: d
Clarification: Mesosome is a characteristic feature of prokaryotes, which is not present in eukaryotic cells. It is a differentiated form of cell membrane derived by the infoldings of the cell membrane in prokaryotes.

9. How many layers are present in the bacterial cell envelope?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Clarification: Bacterial have a tightly bound three – layered cell envelope. The uppermost layer is the glycocalyx, followed by the cell wall in the middle and the innermost plasma membrane. The cell envelope provides protection.

10. Gram negative bacteria take up gram strain. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Bacteria are classified into Gram – positive bacteria and Gram – negative bacteria on the basis of their response to a staining procedure known as Gram staining. Gram positive bacteria take up gram strain.

11. Which of these bacteria have chromatophores?
a) Escherichia
b) Mycobacteria
c) Mycoplasma
d) Cyanobacteria
Answer: d
Clarification: Chromatophores are pigment containing membranous extensions in the cytoplasm of bacteria. Cyanobacteria contain chromatophores. They are photosynthetic bacteria that are aquatic in nature.

12. Which of these structures is not a part of the bacterial flagella?
a) Filament
b) Basal Body
c) Lamina
d) Hook
Answer: c
Clarification: Motile bacteria have a thin filamentous structure extending from the cell known as the flagella. Flagella are made of three parts – the filament which is the longest portion, the hook and the basal body.

13. Which of these is not a surface structure in bacteria?
a) Flagella
b) Pili
c) Mesosome
d) Fimbriae
Answer: c
Clarification: Flagella, pili and fimbriae are structures present on the surface of the bacterial cell for various purposes such as motility and attachment. Mesosome is an infolding of cell membrane, present in the cytoplasm.

14. What are the subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes?
a) 50S, 30S
b) 60S, 40S
c) 70S, 30S
d) 60S, 30S
Answer: a
Clarification: Prokaryotes have a 70S ribosome and eukaryotes have an 80S ribosome. The 70S prokaryotic ribosome contains one large 50S subunit and one small 30S subunit. It is site of protein synthesis.

15. Which of these statements is not true regarding inclusion bodies in prokaryotes?
a) Reserve material is stored in these structures
b) They are bound by a single membrane
c) Gas vacuoles are found in blue-green bacteria
d) They lie free in the cytoplasm
Answer: b
Clarification: Inclusion bodies are not covered by membranes and lie freely in the cytoplasm. They store reserve material such as phosphate granules. blue-green bacteria contain gas vacuoles which is an inclusion body.

250+ TOP MCQs on Biomolecules – Proteins and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules – Proteins”.

1. What is the full form of RuBisCO?
a) Ribosome bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxidase
b) Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxidase
c) Ribosome bisphosphate Carboxy-Oxygenase
d) Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxygenase
Answer: d
Clarification: The full form of RuBisCO is Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxygenase. It is an important enzyme found in plants that plays a major role in photosynthesis. It catalyzes the first major step of carbon fixation.

2. Which protein is the most abundant?
a) ATP synthase
b) Collagen
c) RuBisCO
d) NADPH oxidase
Answer: c
Clarification: RuBisCO or Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase-Oxygenase is the most abundant protein in the biosphere. It is an important enzyme required in photosynthesis to catalyze the first major step of carbon fixation.

3. Which protein is most abundant in the animal world?
a) Actin
b) Keratin
c) Collagen
d) Histone
Answer: c
Clarification: Collagen is the most abundant protein of the animal world. It is the main structural protein in the extracellular matrix in the connective tissues. Collagen forms a scaffold to provide strength and structure to the entire body.

4. Which of these is not a function of protein?
a) Major constituent of the cell membrane
b) Transport of nutrients
c) Defense against pathogens
d) Regulation of homeostasis
Answer: a
Clarification: Proteins have numerous important functions in the body. They help to transport nutrients across cells and through blood. They make up the immune system and maintain homeostasis. However, lipids are the major constituent of the cell membrane.

5. How are essential amino acids obtained?
a) Produced in the body
b) Through diet
c) Its levels remain constant
d) From plants
Answer: b
Clarification: Amino acids can be divided into two groups- essential amino acids and non-essential amino acids. Non-essential amino acids are produced by the body while essential amino acids are obtained through our diet.

6. A protein is a _____
a) monomer
b) homopolymer
c) heteropolymer
d) dimer
Answer: c
Clarification: Proteins are heteropolymers of amino acids. This means that out of the 20 amino acids, various combinations of the amino acids may result in the formation of a protein. This protein may be functional or non-functional.

7. Amino acids are linked together by _____
a) peptide bonds
b) hydrogen bonds
c) glycosidic linkages
d) hydrophobic interactions
Answer: a
Clarification: Amino acids are linked to each other by the formation of peptide bonds between the acidic group of one amino acid and the amino group of the other amino acid with the release of one water molecule.

8. A continuous strand of the same amino acids linked to each other forms a _____
a) dimer
b) monomer
c) heteropolymer
d) homopolymer
Answer: d
Clarification: A homopolymer is a repeated sequence of the same monomer multiple number of times. Heteropolymers are made of different monomers. For example, proteins are heteropolymers of various amino acids.

9. Collagen is a(n) ______
a) hormone
b) intracellular ground substance
c) intercellular ground substance
d) enzyme
Answer: c
Clarification: Collagen is an intercellular ground substance. It is a major structural protein found in the extracellular matrix of the various connective tissues found in the body. It is the most abundant protein in the animal world.

10. Dietary proteins are the source of non-essential amino acids. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Non-essential amino acids are those which can be produced in the body, so it is not necessary to obtain them from the diet. Dietary proteins are the source for essential amino acids which cannot be produced in the body.

11. Which of these is an enzyme?
a) GLUT-4
b) Collagen
c) Insulin
d) Trypsin
Answer: d
Clarification: Trypsin is an enzyme that helps in protein digestion in the small intestine. Collagen is a structural protein; insulin is a hormone and GLUT-4 is a carrier protein that enables the transport of glucose into the cell.

12. Which of these is a hormone?
a) Collagen
b) Keratin
c) Insulin
d) GLUT-4
Answer: c
Clarification: Keratin and collagen are structural proteins found in the body. GLUT-4 is a carrier protein that enables the transport of glucose into the cells. Insulin is a hormone that regulates the blood glucose level.

13. What is the function of antibody?
a) Acts as tissue toxins
b) Degrades old erythrocytes
c) Fights infectious agents
d) Helps in growth of cells
Answer: c
Clarification: Antibodies or immunoglobulins are proteins that play a major role in the immune response of our body. They are Y-shaped proteins present in blood plasma that help fight various pathogens and infectious agents.

14. Which of these proteins help in recognition of sensory signals?
a) Receptor proteins
b) Structural proteins
c) Hormones
d) Nucleoproteins
Answer: a
Clarification: Receptor proteins help to recognize various sensory signals such as smell and taste. Receptor proteins present on and inside cells recognize various hormones and compounds required for the normal functioning of the cell.

15. What is the function of GLUT-4?
a) Enables transport of both insulin and glucose into cells
b) Enables glucose transport into cells
c) Enables glucose transport out of cells
d) Enables transport of both sodium and glucose out of cells
Answer: b
Clarification: GLUT-4 is a carrier protein. It is an insulin-regulated glucose transporter. The function of GLUT-4 is to enable the transport of glucose molecules into the cells through a series or cascade of reactions.

250+ TOP MCQs on Plants – Means of Transport and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plants – Means of Transport”.

1. Diffusion is a common process in fluids, but diffusion in solids rather than of solids is more likely.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In case of solids, the molecules of one substance do not get inside the intercellular spaces of another substance as they are rigid in nature. But there are intermolecular spaces in between molecules of solids, however small they may be. So, diffusion of fluids in that space is very much possible.

2. Which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion?
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) ATP available
d) Concentration gradient
Answer: c
Clarification: Diffusion is a passive process and it doesn’t require energy in the form of ATP. Temperature, Pressure and Concentration gradient do affect the rate of diffusion to varying degrees.

3. Statement A: Active transport of molecules is an uphill movement.
Statement B: Simple diffusion is non-selective process.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: a
Clarification: Active transport of molecules is an uphill movement from low concentration to high concentration. Simple diffusion is a downhill movement from high concentration to low concentration.

4. Which among the following is not the property of proteins present in the membrane that support facilitated diffusion?
a) Not liable to saturate
b) Response to inhibitors
c) Regulated by hormones
d) Highly selective
Answer: a
Clarification: Proteins are liable to saturate, respond to inhibitors, under hormonal regulation and highly selective, thus, are responsible for facilitated diffusion.

5. Diffusion is mainly a ________
a) mechanical process
b) physical process
c) chemical process
d) biological process
Answer: b
Clarification: Diffusion is a physical process. It has applications in mechanical, chemical and biological processes such as in fluid mechanics, solid state and transport of substances.

6. Diffusion is fastest in ________
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) lipids
d) vitamins
Answer: c
Clarification: Diffusion is faster in substances with molecules having hydrophobic moiety. Among the following, lipids have hydrophobic moiety whereas carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins have hydrophilic moiety.

7. Concentration gradient is a mandatory condition for diffusion of substances irrespective of the process involved.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: All the processes require a redox potential in order to transport substances from one place to another. A concentration gradient is an essential condition for the transport of molecules of substances to occur.

8. Porins are not present in _____
a) plastids
b) bacteria
c) mitochondria
d) golgi complex
Answer: d
Clarification: Plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria possess porins but they’re absent in golgi complex.

9. Which kind of facilitated diffusion is depicted in the picture given below?

a) Uniport
b) Symport
c) Antiport
d) Export
Answer: c
Clarification: In antiport, carrier proteins allow diffusion of molecules in opposite direction. Symport is the diffusion two molecules in the same direction. In uniport, there is transport of only one molecule at a time. Export is the movement of molecules out of a source.

10. Statement A: Pumps are proteins that use energy to carry substances across the cell membrane.
Statement B: They transport substances from high concentration to low concentration.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: c
Clarification: Active transport is carried out by pump proteins. Pumps are proteins that use energy to carry substances across the cell membrane. They transport substances from high concentration to low concentration with the use of ATP.

250+ TOP MCQs on Pigments Involved in Photosynthesis and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Pigments Involved in Photosynthesis”.

1. Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
a) Chlorophyll a
b) Bacteriochlorophyll
c) Chlorophyll b
d) Phycobilin
Answer: a
Clarification: Chlorophyll is not an accessory pigment as it the chief pigment of the chloroplast. Chlorophyll b, xanthophyll, and carotenoids are accessory pigments. Bacteriochlorophyll and phycobilin are other pigments present in leaves.

2. Which is the correct color matching in chromatogram?
a) Chlorophyll a – yellow-green
b) Chlorophyll b – yellow-orange
c) Xanthophyll – yellow
d) Carotenoids – bright or blue-green
Answer: c
Clarification: Xanthophyll shows a yellow color. Chlorophyll a shows bright or blue – green color whereas chlorophyll b shows yellow – green. Carotenoids show varying color from yellow to yellow – orange.

3. Which of the following is the main function of carotenes?
a) Not an accessory pigment
b) Photooxidation
c) Helps in photosynthesis
d) Helps in transpiration
Answer: b
Clarification: They just have mainly two functions. That is photooxidation which means they produce oxygen due to light. Also, it helps the plant from photodamage i.e. the plant gets protected from excess heat. Carotene is also known as an accessory pigment.

4. Methyl group is mainly present in which photosynthetic pigment?
a) Chlorophyll b
b) Xanthophyll
c) Carotenoids
d) Chlorophyll a
Answer: d
Clarification: Methyl group CH3 is mainly present in chlorophyll a. But in chlorophyll b, it has an aldehyde group in the C7 position. Chlorophyll a and b structure mainly differs in the substituent of porphyrin.

5. Chlorophyll is soluble in water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is a wrong statement. Chlorophyll is not soluble in water since it has a hydrophobic tail. It is soluble only in solvents like alcohol, acetone, etc. which has the capability to extract chlorophyll.

6. Who found out that the pigment chlorophyll is found in the chloroplast in plant cells?
a) Robert Hill
b) Hugo de Vries
c) Julius Von Sachs
d) C. Van Neil
Answer: c
Clarification: Julius Von Sachs found out that the pigment chlorophyll is present in chloroplast. Von Sachs in his experiment found out glucose stored in the form of starch. This led to the discovery of pigment chlorophyll in the chloroplast.

7. What is the empirical formula of chlorophyll b?
a) C55H70O6N4Mg
b) C55H72O5N4Mg
c) C55H79O7N4Mg
d) C55H80O6N5Mg
Answer: a
Clarification: The empirical formula of chlorophyll b is C55H70O6N4Mg. They have 55 atoms of carbon, 70 atoms of hydrogen, 6 atoms of oxygen, 4 atoms of nitrogen and one atom magnesium. They are very microscopic and officially an accessory pigment.

8. How many numbers of chlorophyll are present in a photosynthetic unit?
a) 100 – 150
b) 90
c) 200 – 250
d) 300 – 350
Answer: c
Clarification: In a photosynthetic unit, 200 – 250 number of chlorophylls are present. They are embedded in the thylakoids of chloroplast. It differs for different plant species as in algae, it is only 100 in number. The number of chlorophylls is based on their requirement and function.

9. The size of the chlorophyll molecule is Head: 20 x 20 A°, Tail: 15 A°
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is a wrong statement. They have a perfect body structure with a head and tail. The size of the chlorophyll molecule is Head: 15 x 15 A°, Tail: 20 A°. The size of the head is slightly smaller than the tail by 5 A°. They can be measured only in Angstrom unit because of their minute size.

10. Which is false regarding chlorophyll a and b?
a) Chlorophyll b is an accessory pigment
b) Chlorophyll is the main chief pigment
c) Chlorophyll a is more than chlorophyll b
d) Both are present in equal proportion
Answer: d
Clarification: In chloroplast, chlorophyll-a is more than chlorophyll b. They are not present in equal proportion. Since chlorophyll-a is the main chief pigment in photosynthesis, it is more in number. Chlorophyll b is less in number since it is only an accessory pigment.

250+ TOP MCQs on Growth and Development in Plants and Answers

Botany Interview Questions and Answers on “Growth and Development in Plants – 2”.

1. Which of the following is not the characteristics of the cells of the phase of elongation?
a) Increased vacuolation
b) Cell enlargement
c) Plasmodesmatal connections
d) Cell wall deposition
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasmodesmatal connections are not the characteristic cells of the phase of elongation, rather they represent the cells of the meristematic phase of growth. Some characteristics of the cells of the phase of elongation include increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition which gives strength to the existing cell wall.

2. Which zone lies next to the phase of elongation?
a) Phase of maturation
b) Meristematic zone
c) Zone of enlargement
d) Root cap
Answer: a
Clarification: Phase of maturation lies next to the phase of elongation. This phase lies away from the root apex and is formed last in the growth of the root of the plant.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the cells of the maturation zone?
a) Thin-walled
b) Thick-walled
c) Enlarged cells
d) Plasmodesmatal connections
Answer: b
Clarification: The cells of the maturation zone, attain their maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modifications. From this region, some of the epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread-like structures called root hair.

4. What is the growth rate?
a) Increased growth per unit distance
b) Decreased growth per unit distance
c) Increased growth per unit time
d) Intermediate growth between time and distance
Answer: c
Clarification: The increased growth per unit time is termed as growth rate. Thus, the rate of growth can be expressed mathematically and can be represented with the help of various charts and graphs.

5. The growth rate is generally of how many types?
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Clarification: An organism or a part of the organism can produce more cells in a variety of ways. The growth rate shows an increase that may be arithmetic or geometric.

6. Root elongating at a constant rate is an example of arithmetic growth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The simplest expression of arithmetic growth is exemplified by a root elongating at a constant rate. On plotting the length of the organ against the time, a linear curve is obtained.

7. How many phases are generally there is a geometric growth curve?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The geometric growth curve has three phases, namely:
i. Lag phase
ii. Exponential or log phase
iii. Stationary phase.

8. Which of the following curves is a characteristic of all living organisms?
a) Hyperbola
b) Straight line
c) Linear curve
d) Sigmoid curve
Answer: d
Clarification: A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of a living organism growing in a natural environment. It is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant.

9. In how many ways the quantitative comparison between the growth of the living system can be made?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Clarification: Quantitative comparison between the growth of a living system can be made in two ways:
i. Absolute growth rate
ii. Relative growth rate

10. What is meant by the absolute growth rate?
a) Measurement of total growth
b) Comparison of total growth
c) Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time
d) Measurement and comparison of total growth
Answer: c
Clarification: The measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time are called an absolute growth rate. The growth of the given system per unit time expressed on a common basis is called a relative growth rate.

11. Which of the following is not an essential element for the growth of the plant?
a) Water
b) Oxygen
c) Nutrients
d) Carbon-dioxide
Answer: d
Clarification: Carbon dioxide is not an essential element for the growth of the plants as it is a by-product which is released during the respiratory pathway. Water, oxygen and nutrients act as very essential elements for growth pf plants as they help in the developmental processes of plants.

12. Turgidity of cells helps in extension growth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Turgidity of cells helps in the extension of growth as the turgor pressure inside these turgid cells helps in maintaining the form and structure of cells and also the soft parts of the plant.

13. Which of the following provides medium for enzymatic activities of the plant?
a) Oxygen
b) Soil
c) Nutrients
d) Water
Answer: d
Clarification: Water provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for growth in the plants as water is a common medium which is easily available to the plants and most of the enzymes known for the plants can get easily dissolved in the water.

14. Which of the following is essential for the growth of the plants?
a) Optimum Temperature
b) Very high temperature
c) Very humid atmosphere
d) Very low temperature
Answer: a
Clarification: Every plant organism has an optimum temperature range best suited for its growth. Any deviation from this range could be detrimental to the survival of the plant.

15. What is differentiation?
a) When cells only differentiate
b) When cells differentiate and mature to perform specific functions
c) When cells divide
d) When cells mature and die
Answer: b
Clarification: Differentiation is the process by which the cells derived from root apical and shoot apical meristems differentiate into special cells to perform special functions like storing of food, providing buoyancy to the floating plants and synthesising food for the plant.

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