Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Body Fluids – Blood-1”.

1. What type of tissue is blood?
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense connective tissue
c) Mucoid connective tissue
d) Specialized connective tissue
Answer: d
Clarification: Blood is specialized fluid connective tissue. It consists of plasma, a fluid matrix and the formed elements, which are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

2. What percentage of blood is plasma?
a) 90%
b) 60%
c) 55%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. The rest 45% consists of the formed elements-the RBCs, the WBCs and the blood platelets. Plasma is straw colored and a viscous fluid.

3. What percentage of plasma is proteins?
a) 22-25%
b) 50-55%
c) 6-8%
d) 15-18%
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. Plasma is straw colored and a viscous fluid. 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92 per cent of plasma is made up of water.

4. Which of these is not a major protein of plasma?
a) Keratin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Globulins
d) Albumins
Answer: a
Clarification: 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92 per cent of plasma is made up of water. The major proteins present in plasma are fibrinogen, globulins and albumins. Keratin is not a major protein of plasma.

5. What is serum comprised of?
a) Blood without plasma
b) Plasma without clotting factors
c) Plasma without minerals
d) Plasma without proteins
Answer: b
Clarification: Serum is composed of plasma which is devoid of clotting factors. Normally, plasma contains 6-8% of proteins and 90-92% of water. It also contains minerals, biomolecules and clotting factors.

6. What percentage of blood contains the formed elements?
a) 90%
b) 55%
c) 45%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Clarification: 45% of blood contains the formed elements while 55% of the blood is plasma. The formed elements are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

7. Where are erythrocytes formed in adults?
a) Red bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Muscles
Answer: a
Clarification: Erythrocytes are also known as red blood cells or RBCs. In adults, erythrocytes are formed in the red bone marrow. They are formed from hematopoietic stem cells via a process known as erythropoiesis.

8. How much hemoglobin is normally present in 100ml of blood?
a) 6-8g
b) 2-3g
c) 20-25g
d) 12-16g
Answer: d
Clarification: Hemoglobin is a complex iron containing protein present in erythrocytes or red blood cells. It is red in color and hence, gives erythrocytes its red color. 12-16g of hemoglobin is present in 100ml of blood.

9. What is the average number of leukocytes per cubic mm of blood?
a) 10,000-20,000
b) 5-5.5 million
c) 6000-8000
d) 300-1000
Answer: c
Clarification: The formed elements of blood are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets. the average number of leukocytes per cubic mm of blood is 6000-8000.

10. Eosinophils are a type of agranulocyte. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Leukocytes or white blood cells are of two types- granulocytes and agranulocytes. Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils are the granulocytes while monocytes and lymphocytes are agranulocytes.

11. Which of these are the most abundant in blood?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils
Answer: d
Clarification: Out of all the different types of leukocytes present in blood, neutrophils are the most abundant in blood. They constitute 60-65% of the total number of white blood cells. They are phagocytic cells.

12. Which of these cells are phagocytic?
a) Eosinophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Monocytes
d) Basophils
Answer: c
Clarification: Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic white blood cells or leukocytes. These cells engulf and destroy foreign particles and various pathogenic organisms by the process of phagocytosis.

13. Which of these chemicals is not secreted by basophils?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Ghrelin
d) Heparin
Answer: c
Clarification: Basophils are a type of white blood cell or leukocyte. They constitute 0.5-1% of the total number of white blood cells. They participate in inflammatory reactions and secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.

14. Which of these cells are associated with allergic reactions?
a) Eosinophils
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Lymphocytes
Answer: a
Clarification: Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions. They constitute 2-3% of the total number of white blood cells. They resist infections. They also have anti-parasitic and bactericidal activity.

15. Which of these cells are thrombocytes formed from?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Megakaryocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) B lymphocytes
Answer: b
Clarification: Thrombocytes or blood platelets are formed from megakaryocytes, which are special cells present in the bone marrow. Thrombocytes are cell fragments which are involved in the clotting of blood.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Disorders in Excretory System”.

1. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until which of the following?
a) A voluntary signal from the CNS
b) An involuntary signal from the CNS
c) A voluntary signal from the ANS
d) An involuntary signal from the ANS
Answer: a
Clarification: Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until a voluntary signal comes from the Central nervous system. The receptors present on the urinary bladder receive these signals.

2. Which of the following initiates the voluntary signal given by CNS?
a) Loosening of stretch receptors in the urinary bladder
b) Stretching of the urinary bladder
c) Movement of the urinary bladder
d) Movement of urethra
Answer: b
Clarification: The signal given by CNS is initiated by the stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with the urine. In response, the stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the CNS.

3. Which of the following sphincters cause the release of the urine?
a) Cardiac sphincter
b) Pyloric sphincter
c) Urethral sphincter
d) Oesophageal sphincter
Answer: c
Clarification: Urethral sphincter causes the release of urine to the outside of the body. This process starts when the central nervous system passes on the motor messages to the smooth muscles of the bladder. This signal initiates their contraction. Simultaneously, relaxation of the urethral sphincter takes place which causes the release of the urine.

4. What is the process of excreting urine known as?
a) Diuresis
b) Polyuria
c) Defaecation
d) Micturition
Answer: d
Clarification: The process of release of urine is called micturition and the neural mechanisms causing it is called micturition reflex. An adult human excretes about 1 to 1.5 litres of urine per day.

5. The urine formed is brownish.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The urine formed is a light yellow coloured watery fluid that is slightly acidic and has a characteristic odour. On average, 25-30 grams of urea is excreted out per day.

6. The presence of ketone bodies is an indication of which of the following diseases?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) High blood cholesterol
d) Liver Cirrhosis
Answer: a
Clarification: Analysis of urine helps in the clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorders. For example, the presence of glucose or Glycosuria and ketone bodies or Ketonuria in urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus.

7. What is uraemia?
a) Accumulation of sodium ions in the blood
b) Accumulation of potassium ions in the blood
c) Accumulation of urea in the blood
d) Accumulation of ammonia in the blood
Answer: c
Clarification: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to the accumulation of urea in blood, a condition known as uraemia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure.

8. What is haemodialysis?
a) Removal of ammonia in the blood by artificial means
b) Removal of potassium ions in the blood by artificial means
c) Removal of sodium ions in the blood by artificial means
d) Removal of urea in the blood by artificial means
Answer: d
Clarification: Urea from blood can be removed by artificial means if a person is not able to excrete out urea. It is removed by a process called haemodialysis in which blood is drained from a convenient artery into a dialysing unit called an artificial kidney.

9. The dialysing fluid has all of the following except?
a) Nitrogenous wastes
b) Proteins
c) Electrolytes
d) Glucose
Answer: a
Clarification: Nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid. The dialysing unit after the addition of an anticoagulant like heparin contains a coiled cellophane tube surrounded by a fluid which proteins, electrolytes and glucose (almost same as that of the plasma) except for the fact that it does not have nitrogenous wastes.

10. What is the significance of the porous nature of the cellophane membrane?
a) It does not allow the movement of molecules
b) It does not allow the movement of water
c) It allows the molecules based on their concentration gradient
d) It allows only water molecules
Answer: c
Clarification: The porous membrane of the cellophane tube of the dialysing unit allows the passage or movement of molecules, based on their concentration gradient. As nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid, therefore these wastes passively move out from our blood and hence filtering it.

11. Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures or kidney failures. A functioning kidney is used in the transplantation from a donor, preferably a close relative to avoid rejection by the immune system of the host.

12. What is the inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney referred to?
a) Cystitis
b) Nephritis
c) Glomerulonephritis
d) Pyelonephritis
Answer: c
Clarification: Inflammation of glomeruli is referred to as glomerulonephritis. The inflammation of urinary bladder, nephron, and pelvis of the kidney is referred to as Cystitis, Nephritis, and Pyelonephritis respectively.

13. Which of the following is the term given to the condition of RBCs in urine?
a) Haematuria
b) Pyuria
c) Haemoglobinuria
d) Proteinuria
Answer: a
Clarification: When RBCs are present in the urine then it is termed as haematuria. The presence of white blood cells, haemoglobin and proteins are termed as pyuria, haemoglobinuria, and proteinuria respectively.

14. Which of the following is not a symptom of diabetes mellitus?
a) Ketonuria
b) Glycosuria
c) Renal calculi
d) Polyphagia
Answer: c
Clarification: Diabetes mellitus is due to the deficiency of insulin due to which the glucose level increases in the blood. The symptoms include Ketonuria, glycosuria, polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.

15. Which of the following mineral is not involved in the formation of renal calculi?
a) Calcium oxalate
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Uric acid
d) Urea
Answer: d
Clarification: Kidney stones or renal calculi is due to the formation of calcium oxalate which results in 60% of the kidney stones, calcium carbonate which results in 30% of the kidney stones and uric acid which results in 10-20% of the kidney stones.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Neural Control and Coordination – Ear-1”.

1. Which of these is not a function of ear?
a) Transmitting sound waves
b) Transducing sound waves
c) Maintenance of balance
d) Olfaction
Answer: d
Clarification: The ears of the human body have two important functions. They help in collecting sound waves from the surrounding areas, transmitting and transducing them. They also help to maintain balance.

2. Which of these structures are not present in the outer ear?
a) Pinna
b) Meatus
c) Cochlea
d) Tympanic membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts- the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The outer ear consists of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane.

3. What is the tympanic membrane also known as?
a) Pinna
b) Cochlea
c) Eardrum
d) Meatus
Answer: c
Clarification: The tympanic membrane is also known as the eardrum. It is a part of the outer ear and is situated at the end of the external auditory meatus or auditory canal. It is made of connective tissue and skin.

4. What is the function of the pinna?
a) Collects sound waves from the air
b) Equalizes pressure
c) Acts as auditory receptors
d) Maintains balance
Answer: a
Clarification: The pinna is the portion of the ear which is visible on the body. It is a part of the outer ear along with the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum.

5. To which of these structures does the external auditory meatus extend up to?
a) Cochlea
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Malleus
d) Incus
Answer: b
Clarification: The outer ear comprises of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum. The external auditory meatus extend up to the tympanic membrane.

6. Which of these structures are present around the auditory meatus?
a) Eustachian tube
b) Pinna
c) Temporal bone
d) Tympanic membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The external auditory meatus is a part of the outer ear, present just after the pinna. It extends up to the tympanic membrane. The auditory meatus is surrounded and protected by the temporal bone.

7. Which of these structures are present on either side of the auditory meatus?
a) Pinna, eardrum
b) Cochlea, Eustachian tube
c) Pinna, malleus
d) Eardrum, malleus
Answer: a
Clarification: The outer ear comprises of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum. The auditory meatus lies between the pinna and the eardrum.

8. Which of these structures contain wax-secreting glands?
a) Tectorial membrane
b) Macula
c) Cochlea
d) Auditory meatus
Answer: d
Clarification: The external auditory meatus or the auditory canal and the pinna of the outer ear contain wax-secreting glands. The secreted wax, known as cerumen, provides protection from bacteria, fungus, insects and water.

9. Which of these do not make up the tympanic membrane?
a) Skin
b) Connective tissue
c) Osteocytes
d) Mucus membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The tympanic membrane or the eardrum is a part of the outer ear and lies at the end of the external auditory meatus or auditory canal. It is made up of connective tissue, skin and mucus membrane.

10. The auditory meatus contains fine hairs. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The external auditory meatus or auditory canal is a part of the outer ear and lies between the pinna and the eardrum. It contains fine hairs as well as wax-secreting glands to provide protection.

11. How many ear ossicles do we have?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: b
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts-the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The middle ear consists of three bones known as the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes.

12. Which of these is not an ear ossicle?
a) Hammer
b) Anvil
c) Meatus
d) Stirrup
Answer: c
Clarification: The middle ear consists of three bones known as the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes. The malleus, incus and stapes are also known as hammer, anvil and stirrup, respectively.

13. Which of these structures is attached to the oval window?
a) Malleus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
d) Eardrum
Answer: c
Clarification: The middle ear consists of the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes. Stapes, being the last bone of the middle ear, is attached to the oval window of the cochlea of the inner ear.

14. Where is the oval window located?
a) Cochlea
b) Eustachian tube
c) Meatus
d) Pinna
Answer: a
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts- the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The oval window is a portion of the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear. It is attached to the stapes of the middle ear.

15. Which structure connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx?
a) Cochlea
b) Eustachian tube
c) Meatus
d) Pinna
Answer: b
Clarification: The middle ear cavity is connected with the pharynx through the Eustachian tube. It lies in the inner ear. The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalize air pressure on either side of the ear drum.

Biology Online Test for Class 11 on “Biological Classification – Protista – 2”.

1. Which among the following statements are incorrect about the given organism?

a) They are found in stagnated fresh water
b) They have a rigid cell wall made up of pellicle
c) They contain chlorophyll and can make their own food in presence of sunlight
d) They have two flagella with one being shorter than the other
Answer: b
Clarification: The given picture shows Euglena. Euglenoids are present in stagnated fresh water and don’t have cell wall. They instead have a protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible. They contain chlorophyll which helps them to prepare their own food and in absence of sunlight they are heterotrophic and act as predators. They have two flagella with one being shorter than the other.

2. Euglenoids are flexible due to ___________
a) Pellicle
b) Pectin
c) Chitin
d) Cortex
Answer: a
Clarification: Euglenoids have a protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible. Euglenoids have two flagella that help in their movement. Euglena changes its body shape during its movement and this phenomenon called as metaboly is possible due to pellicle.

3. Which among the following are saprophytic protists?
a) Euglenoids
b) Protozoans
c) Dianoflagellates
d) Slime moulds
Answer: d
Clarification: Slime moulds are considered to be fungus like protists since they grow in moulds and reproduce using spores. But there are many differences between Slime moulds and fungi. Unlike fungi, slime moulds lack chitin in their cell wall and are mobile.

4. Slime moulds grow on ______
a) Oceans
b) Fresh water
c) Dead and decay mater
d) Hills
Answer: c
Clarification: Slime moulds grow on dead and decay matter. Under favorable conditions, they aggregate to form plasmodium which grows and spreads across several feet. If the conditions weren’t favorable they form a food bearing spores at their tips which are extremely resistant and get dispersed by air currents.

5. Which among the following are incorrect statements?
a) Slime moulds feed on bacteria, yeast and fungi and have amoeba like food ingestion
b) The pigments in Euglena are identical to that of higher plants
c) Slime moulds reproduce either by forming an aggregate called plasmodium or by spore formation
d) All the other protists except Slime moulds have cell wall
Answer: d
Clarification: Like Slime moulds, Protozoans also don’t contain cell wall. Slime moulds feed on bacteria, yeast and fungi and have amoeba like food ingestion. The pigments in Euglena are identical to that of higher plants. Slime moulds reproduce either by forming an aggregate called plasmodium or by spore formation.

6. Which among the following are incorrect about the reproduction in slime moulds?
a) During favourable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium which may grow and spread over several feet
b) Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips which then get dispersed through air currents
c) The spores possess true walls that is resistant to adverse conditions
d) Slime moulds reproduce either by sexual or by asexual reproduction
Answer: b
Clarification: Slime moulds can reproduce either sexually or asexually. During favourable conditions they form an aggregation called plasmodium which may grow and spread over several feet. Under unfavourable conditions, plasmodium differentiates to form fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips which then get dispersed through air currents. Slime moulds reproduce either sexually or asexually.

7. Protozoans are animal like protists.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Protozoans are animal like protists because they are mobile and are predators. Protozoans comprise of amoeboids, flagellated protozans, ciliated protozoans and sporozoans.

8. Pseudopodia help amoeboids in _______
a) locomotion
b) ingestion of food
c) locomotion and ingestion of food
d) performing metabolic reactions
Answer: c
Clarification: Pseudopodia help amoeboids in both locomotion and ingestion of food. Pseudopodia are temporary extensions in amoeba that help them to move to as well as intake food by surrounding it with temporary extensions.

9. Amebiasis is caused due to _______
a) Amoeba proteus
b) Entamoeba hystalica
c) Chaos carolinense
d) Trypanosoma
Answer: b
Clarification: Entamoeba hystalica is a parasitic amoeba in human which in turn causes Amebiasis. Amebiasis results in abdominal pain, diarrohoea, blood in stool, fever and loss of appetite.

10. In the organism shown in the figure, food is in taken by ______

a) Pseudopodia
b) Cilia
c) Gullet
d) Vacuole
Answer: c
Clarification: The given figure shows paramoecium. Food is in taken by gullet in Paramoecium. Paramoecium has cilia which perform rhythmic movement which leads in steering of food containing water into the gullet.

11. Movement in paramoecium is due to ______
a) gullet
b) photo-receptors
c) cillia
d) radiating canals
Answer: c
Clarification: Movement in paramecium is due to hair like structures called cilia that grows on its body. Paramoecium can move actively due to the presence of thousands of cilia. Cilia performs rhythmic movement in order to steer food containing water into the gullet.

12. Sleeping sickness is due to ________
a) Trypanosoma
b) Entamoeba hystalica
c) Noctiluca
d) Golden algae
Answer: a
Clarification: Trypanosoma is a flagellated protozoan that is parasitic and causes sleeping sickness. Sleeping sickness causes joint and muscle pains. It results in behavioural changes, confusion and poor coordination.

13. Which among the following are non-mobile protozoa?
a) Sporozoans
b) Chrysophytes
c) Euglenoids
d) Amoeboids
Answer: a
Clarification: Sporozoans are non-mobile and therefore don’t have cilia. They are mostly parasitic and depend on host to meet their food requirements. They reproduce by spore formation.

14. All protozoans are either parasitic or predators. They depend on other animals for their food.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: All protozoans are either parasitic or predators. They depend on other animals for their food. They don’t contain chlorophyll and so can’t prepare their own food. This is why protozoans are considered as animal like protists.

15. The organism shown in the following figure reproduces by _________

a) Binary fission
b) Spore formation
c) Budding
d) Fragmentation
Answer: a
Clarification: The above figure shows amoeba. Amoeba reproduces by binary fission in which the parent organisms expands initially and then divides into two daughter cells with equal cytoplasma and genetic material.

To practice Biology Online Test for Class 11,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Basis of Classification in Animals – 1”.

1. Which among the following is not the basis of classification in Animalia?
a) Segmentation
b) Symmetry
c) Mode of nutrition
d) Levels of organization
Answer: d
Clarification: Levels of organization, symmetry, arrangement of cells in embryo, presence of coelom, segmentation and presence of notochord are the basis for the classification in Animalia. Since all the animals are heterotrophic, there is no need to classify Animalia based on their mode of nutrition.

2. Which among the following is incorrect about levels of organization in animals?
a) Cells are organized in different ways to form the basic body in animals
b) Cellular level of organization refers to the cluster of the cells that combine to form an animal body
c) Tissue level of organization refers to the way tissues combine to form organs which in turn form animal body
d) In organ system level of organization, various organs of the system work coordinately to achieve a specific function
Answer: c
Clarification: Tissue level of organization refers to the grouping of cells to form tissues that combine to form an animal body. There are no organs present in this level of organization. Example: Platyhelmenthes.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about cellular level of organization?
a) A group of cells combine to form the whole body
b) Each cell carries over a specific function
c) This level of organization is also called as cell aggregate of body plan
d) Hydra exhibits this level of organization
Answer: d
Clarification: In cellular level of organization, a group of cells combine to form the whole body. Each cell carries over a specific function. This level of organization is also called as cell aggregate of body plan. Sponges exhibit this level of organization. Hydra exhibits tissue level of organization.

4. Which among the following is incorrect about tissue level of organization?
a) Cells performing same functions group together to form a tissue
b) Organs are absent
c) Planaria exhibits this level of organization
d) Cells are specialized with division of labour
Answer: c
Clarification: Cells performing same functions group together to form a tissue. Organs are absent in this level of organization. Cells are specialized with division of labour. Example for this level of organization is Hydra. Planaria exhibits organ level of organization.

5. Platyhelmenthes exhibit organ level of organization.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In organ level of organization, organs are specialized to perform a specific action. Tissues are grouped to form organs. Example for this level of organization is Platyhelmenthes.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about organ system level of organization?
a) Organs group to form organ systems
b) Each and every organ system are specialized to perform a specific physiological activity
c) Annelids exhibit this level of organization
d) All of these animals have a cavity between their digestive tract and body wall called as coelom
Answer: d
Clarification: Organs group to form organ systems. Each and every organ system is specialized to perform a specific physiological activity. Annelids exhibit this level of organization. Some of these animals are coelomates, few others are pseudo coelomates and others are acoelomates.

7. In a closed circulatory system, interstitial fluids and blood has no specific distinction and therefore called as hemolymph.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: In an open circulatory system, interstitial fluids and blood has no specific distinction and therefore called as hemolymph. Whereas in closed circulatory system, interstitial fluids and blood has specific distinction. Because in closed circulatory system, blood flows through blood vessels.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about circulatory system in different animals?
a) In open circulatory system, blood is pumped by heart into blood cavity
b) In closed circulatory system, blood is enclosed in blood vessels
c) Interstitial fluid is separated from blood in the case of closed circulatory system
d) Closed circulatory system is exhibited by arthropods
Answer: d
Clarification: In open circulatory system, blood is pumped by heart into blood cavity. In closed circulatory system, blood is enclosed in blood vessels. Interstitial fluid is separated from blood in the case of closed circulatory system. Closed circulatory system is exhibited by chordates and open circulatory system is exhibited by mollusca and arthropods.

9. Sponges are ______
a) Asymmetrical
b) Radially Symmetrical
c) Bilaterally symmetrical
d) Bimedially symmetrical
Answer: b
Clarification: Sponges are asymmetrical. They contain uneven branches growing on their surface that makes them asymmetrical. Symmetry is also considered as the basis of classification. An animal is considered to be radially symmetrical if their body looks similar when cut in any radial direction. Examples: Colentrates and echinodermata. An animal is considered to be bilaterally symmetrical if their body looks when cut along the lateral direction. Examples: Annelids, Arthropods and humans.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about arrangement of cells in embryo?
a) The word “blasted” derives its origin from the word blastula which means a hollow ball of cells formed during the early stage of embryo
b) If the number of cell layers in blastula is two in number, i.e. ectoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to diploblastic
c) If the number of cell layers in blastula is three in number, i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to triploblastic
d) In diploblastic organisms, mesoglea, a well differentiated substance, is present between endoderm and ectoderm
Answer: d
Clarification: The word “blasted” derives its origin from the word blastula which means a hollow ball of cells formed during the early stage of embryo. If the number of cell layers in blastula is two in number, i.e. ectoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to diploblastic. If the number of cell layers in blastula is three in number, i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to triploblastic. In diploblastic organisms, mesoglea, an undifferentiated substance, is present between endoderm and ectoderm.

11. Mesoderm gives rise to ______
a) Muscular tissues
b) CNS
c) Urinary bladder
d) Skin
Answer: a
Clarification: Mesoderm gives rise to skeletal and muscle tissues, blood, lymph and connective tissues. Ectoderm gives rise to epidermis, hair, mammary glands and CNS. Endoderm gives rise to organs like stomach, pancreas, urinary bladder and intestines.

12. Which among the following is incorrect about types of digestive system in animals?
a) A digestive system with one opening to outside is called incomplete digestive system
b) A digestive system with separate openings for ingestion and egestion is called complete digestive system
c) Platyhelmenthes have a complete digestive system
d) Sea sponges have an incomplete digestive system
Answer: c
Clarification: A digestive system with one opening to outside is called an incomplete digestive system and a digestive system with separate openings for ingestion and egestion is called complete digestive system. Platyhelmenthes and sea sponges have an incomplete digestive system.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Flowering Plants Morphology – Fabaceae, Solanaceae and Lillaceae”.

1. Plants are usually described beginning with its habit, vegetative characters and floral characters like inflorescence, parts of a flower – Gynoecium, Androecium, Calyx and Corolla.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants are usually described beginning with its habit, vegetative characters and floral characters like inflorescence, parts of a flower – Gynoecium, Androecium, Calyx and Corolla.

2. In a flower a superior ovary is represented by ___________
a) K
b) A
c) G
d) ^{– – –}G^– –
Answer: c
Clarification: In a flower a superior ovary is represented by G. Calyx is represented by K and corolla is represented by c. A represents Androecium and ^{– – –}G^– – represents an inferior ovary. P refers to the perianth in the flower.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about the symbols used in a floral formula?
a) K is used to represent the calyx of a flower
b) C is used to represent the perianth of a flower
c) Br is used to represent the bracetate of a flower
d) A is used to represent the androecium of a flower
Answer: b
Clarification: K is used to represent the calyx of a flower. Br is used to represent the bracetate of a flower. A is used to represent the androecium of a flower. C is used to represent the corolla of a flower. P indicates the perianth of a flower.

4. Which among the following is not correct about a floral diagram?
a) A floral diagram represents a clear pictorial view of a flower
b) The position of the mother axis with respect to the other floral parts is represented by the dot on the top of the floral diagram
c) It is possible to represent the cohesion and adhesion within parts of whorls and between whorls using a floral diagram
d) In a floral diagram, the fusion is represented by enclosing the figure within brackets and adhesion is represented by drawing line over the symbols of the floral parts
Answer: d
Clarification: A floral diagram represents a clear pictorial view of a flower. The position of the mother axis with respect to the other floral parts is represented by the dot on the top of the floral diagram. It is possible to represent the cohesion and adhesion within parts of whorls and between whorls using a floral diagram. In a floral formula, the fusion is represented by enclosing the figure within brackets and adhesion is represented by drawing line over the symbols of the floral parts.

5. Fusion and adhesion are indicated by enclosing the figure within bracket or by drawing a line above the symbols of the floral parts respectively.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In a floral formula, fusion and adhesion are indicated by enclosing the figure within bracket or by drawing a line above the symbols of the floral parts respectively. A floral formula represents a flower using simple symbols.

6. Fabaceae was earlier known as ________
a) Solanaceae
b) Papilionoideae
c) Liliaceae
d) Potato family
Answer: b
Clarification: Fabaceae was earlier known as Papilionoideae. They are mostly widespread throughout the world and are sub-family of the family Leguminosae. They are found mostly as climber but sometimes can be even erect.

7. Which among the following statements is incorrect about Fabaceae?
a) Their venation is reticulate
b) They are found in almost every part of the world
c) They belong to the family of Leguminosae
d) The flowers in this kind grow in basipetal fashion
Answer: d
Clarification: Venation in Fabaceae is reticulate. They are found in almost every part of the world. They belong to the family of Leguminosae. The flowers in this kind grow in acro-petal fashion.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about Fabaceae?
a) They are zygomorphic and gamosepalous in nature
b) They have an inferior ovary
c) Their androecium is diadelphous
d) Soyabeans belongs to this category
Answer: b
Clarification: Fabaceae is zygomorphic and gamosepalous in nature. They have a superior ovary. Their androecium is diadelphous. Soyabeans, Lupin etc. belongs to the category o Fabaceae.

9. Which among the following is incorrect?
a) Solanaceae is also called as the potato family
b) Lupin and sweet pea is also called as ornamentals
c) The flowers in Solanaceae grow in a basipetal fashion
d) The petals in Solanaceae show imbricate aestivation
Answer: d
Clarification: Solanaceae is also called as the potato family. Lupin and sweet pea is also called as ornamentals. Lupin and sweet pea is also called as ornamentals. The petals in Solanaceae show valvate aestivation.

10. Androecium in Solanaceae is _________
a) Epipetalous
b) Epiphyllous
c) Monoadelphous
d) Polyadelphous
Answer: a
Clarification: Androecium in Solanaceae is Epipetalous which means that the stamens are attached to the petals. Androecium is said to be epiphyllous when attached to the perianth like that in lily.