Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Whittaker’s Classification of Organisms”.

1. Whittaker classified organisms based on their cell structure, mode of nutrition and method of reproduction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Whittaker classified organism into 5 kingdoms based on their cell structure, mode of nutrition, method of reproduction and evolutionary relations namely, Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

2. In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the prokaryotic organisms are grouped under ________
a) Monera
b) Protista
c) Fungi
d) Animalia
Answer: a
Clarification: In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the prokaryotic organisms are grouped under Monera; all the unicellular organisms under Protista and all the fungi form a separate Kingdom. So, Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification managed to include characteristics like nature and structure of cells.

3. In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the unicellular organisms are categorised under ________
a) Protista
b) Monera
c) Porifera
d) Animals
Answer: c
Clarification: In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the unicellular organisms are categorised under Protista. For example, Amoeba, Paramecium, Chlorella and Chlamydomanas fall under the category of Protista.

4. Cell wall in fungi is made up of ________
a) Chitin
b) Cellulose
c) Amino acids
d) Proteins
Answer: a
Clarification: Cell wall in fungi is made up of chitin. In plants, the cell wall is made up of Cellulose. Whittaker’s classification managed to consider the nature of cell wall which resulted in Fungi and Plants forming two different kingdoms.

5. Chlamydomanas is grouped under________
a) Monera
b) Protista
c) Plantae
d) Fungi
Answer: b
Clarification: Chlamydomanas is a unicellular organism and so came under the category of Protista. Whittaker’s classification managed in grouping all the unicellular organisms under the category of Protista.

6. Which among the following don’t contain nuclear membrane?
a) Monera
b) Protista
c) Fungi
d) Animalia
Answer: a
Clarification: In eukaryotes, all the cell organelles are separated by a membrane. This membrane is absent in prokaryotes. Whittaker classified all the prokaryotes under the kingdom Monera. So, nuclear membrane is absent in Monera.

7. Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification failed to include Viruses.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Although Whittaker managed to consider cell structure, nature of the cell, mode of nutrition and method of reproduction in his classification he failed to include viruses in his classification.

8. All the heterotrophic plants are categorized under ____________
a) Protista
b) Fungi
c) Monera
d) Plantae
Answer: b
Clarification: In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification all the heterotrophic plants are categorized under Fungi. For example, mushrooms, hypomycetes etc. Fall under the category of fungi.

9. Which among the following are incorrect?
a) Whittaker’s classification managed to consider cell structure, nature of the cell wall, mode of nutrition and method of reproduction
b) In 2 kingdom classification, all the fungi and algae are forcefully made to join Animalia
c) Whittaker’s classification is polyphyletic and so failed to group similar organism under the same kingdom
d) Whittaker’s classification didn’t include viruses
Answer: b
Clarification: Whittaker’s classification managed to consider cell structure, nature of the cell wall, mode of nutrition and method of reproduction. In 2 kingdom classification, all the fungi and algae are forcefully made to join Plantae. Whittaker’s classification is polyphyletic and so failed to group similar organism under the same kingdom. Whittaker’s classification didn’t include viruses.

10. Plantae consists of _______
a) Prokaryotes
b) Unicellular organisms
c) Multi-cellular organism
d) Heterotrophs
Answer: c
Clarification: Plantae consists of Eukaryotes that are multi-cellular and autotrophic i.e. all the organisms in Plantae have multiple cells that contain membranous cell organelles and also can prepare their own food.

Botany MCQs on “Plant Kingdom – Gymnosperms-2”.

1. Which of the following is incorrect about reproduction in Gymnosperms?
a) Microsporangium contain microsporocytes that undergo meiosis to form microspores
b) Microspores further undergo reduction division to form microgametophyte
c) Microgametophyte is also called as Pollen grain
d) Wind, water and insects act as dispersal agents for pollination
Answer: b
Clarification: Microsporangia contain microsporocytes that undergo meiosis to form microspores. Microspores further undergo reduction division to form microgametophyte. Microgametophyte is also called as Pollen grain. Wind, water and insects act as dispersal agents for pollination.

2. Which among the following are incorrect about Gymnosperms?
a) In Ginkgo, female cones are absent
b) Gymnosperms may be either dioecious or monoecious
c) The embryo that grows after fertilization is exoscopic in nature
d) Companion cells in phloem are absent
Answer: c
Clarification: Female cones are absent in Ginkgo, Cycads and Taxus. Gymnosperms may be either dioecious or monoecious i.e. they may be either homosporous or heterosporous. The embryo that grows after fertilization is endoscopic in nature. Vessels in xylem and companion cells in phloem are absent in Gymnosperms.

3. Which among the following are incorrect about Gymnosperms?
a) On reaching female gametophyte, the pollen grains produce a tube like structure that carries sperms to the egg
b) Fertilization in Gymnosperms can also be described as siphonogamic
c) Ovules in Gymnosperms are unprotected unlike that of angiosperms
d) Every megaspore that is produced after meiosis undergoes mitosis to form a female gametophyte
Answer: d
Clarification: On reaching female gametophyte, the pollen grains produce a tube like structure that carries sperms to the egg. Fertilization in Gymnosperms can also be described as siphonogamic. Ovules in Gymnosperms are unprotected unlike that of angiosperms. Among the four megaspores that are formed after meiosis only one megaspore is functional and the rest becomes defunct.

4. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms are together called as __________
a) Spermatophyta
b) Sporophyta
c) Dermitophyta
d) Embryophyta
Answer: a
Clarification: Gymnosperms (Gymno = Naked, spermae = seeds) and Angiosperms (Angio = Covered, spermae = seeds) are together called as Spermatophyta (Spermae = seeds, phyta = plants).

5. The megasporangium tissue acts as nutritive element for the embryo.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: After fertilization, the zygote develops into an embryo and the megasporangium tissue provides nutrition for the development of the embryo. Apart from providing nutrition to the embryo, megasporangium tissue plays a vital role in the development of the female gametophyte.

6. Which among the following is incorrect?
a) The reduced male gametophyte is termed as pollen grains
b) Pollen grains may be monosaccate, disaccate, trisaccate or non-saccate
c) Megasporangium tissue is soft and non-woody
d) After mitosis, a megaspore forms female gametophyte with two or three archegonia that undergoes fertilization
Answer: c
Clarification: The reduced male gametophyte is termed as pollen grains. Pollen grains may be monosaccate, disaccate, trisaccate or non-saccate. Megasporangium tissue is hardy and woody in nature. After mitosis, a megaspore forms female gametophyte with two or three archegonia that undergoes fertilization.

7. A fertilized embryo takes several years to form seeds in the case of Gymnosperms.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A fertilized embryo takes several years to mature and form seeds in the case of Gymnosperms. Polyembryogeny is very common in case of Gymnosperms.

8. The covering outside an ovule in Gymnosperms is called as __________
a) Integument
b) Air sac
c) Embryo sac
d) Carpel
Answer: a
Clarification: The covering outside an ovule in Gymnosperms is called integument. It has a tiny hole at one end that allows germination of pollen grains that are carried to female gametophyte through air and water.

9. Pollen grains are covered with __________
a) Integument
b) Air sac
c) Embryo sac
d) Carpel
Answer: b
Clarification: Pollen grains are dispersed to different parts of the world through air, water and insects. They are equipped with wings (some don’t have wings) and are covered with an air sac.

To practice Botany MCQs,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Animals Structural Organisations – Earthworm – 1”.

1. Earthworm is a(n) ______
a) terrestrial vertebrate
b) aquatic vertebrate
c) aquatic invertebrate
d) terrestrial invertebrate
Answer: d
Clarification: Earthworm is a long cylindrical worm belonging to class Annelida. It does not have a backbone and hence it is an invertebrate. It is terrestrial and inhabits the upper layers of the soil.

2. Which of the following statements about earthworms is true?
a) They are vertebrates
b) They do not live in burrows
c) They can be traced by fecal deposits
d) They inhabit the lower layers of the soil
Answer: c
Clarification: Earthworms can be traced by fecal deposits or worm castings. They are invertebrates as they lack a backbone and a bony skeleton. They live in burrows in the upper layers of the soil.

3. What are the common Indian earthworms?
a) Lacertilia, Pheretima
b) Periplaneta, Lumbricus
c) Pheretima, Lumbricus
d) Periplaneta, Pheretima
Answer: c
Clarification: Pheretima and Lumbricus are the common Indian earthworms. It is a terrestrial invertebrate with a long cylindrical body. Periplaneta is a genus of the cockroach family, while Lacertilia is the genus of the lizard family.

4. What is the median mid dorsal line present along the length of an earthworm?
a) Dorsal blood vessel
b) Dorsal root ganglion
c) Prostomium
d) Clitellum
Answer: a
Clarification: The dorsal blood vessel is present along the length of the earthworm’s body. It is seen as a dark median line. Prostomium covers the mouth while clitellum is a band of glandular tissue covering the 14^th to 16^th segments.

5. Which of the following statements is true about prostomium?
a) It is present in the posterior end of the earthworm
b) It acts as a wedge to open cracks in the soil
c) It is the mouth of the earthworm
d) It does not have a sensory function
Answer: b
Clarification: The prostomium is located in the anterior end of the earthworm. It is a covering of the mouth and has a sensory function. It also acts as a wedge to open cracks in the soil. It is the first segment of the body of the earthworm.

6. The first body segment of the earthworm is the _____
a) male genital aperture
b) female genital aperture
c) peristomium
d) clitellum
Answer: c
Clarification: Peristomium or buccal segment is the first body segment of the earthworm. It is the mouth part. The genital apertures and clitellum are located towards the middle of the body of the earthworm.

7. Clitellum is a ______
a) glandular tissue
b) muscular tissue
c) neural tissue
d) connective tissue
Answer: a
Clarification: Clitellum is a glandular tissue. It appears as a prominent dark band. The clitellum covers the 14^th to 16^th segment of the body of the mature earthworm. This glandular tissue contains secretory cells.

8. What is present on the 5^th to 9^th segments of the earthworm’s body?
a) Clitellum
b) Peristomium
c) Female genital pore
d) Spermathecal apertures
Answer: d
Clarification: On the sides of the intersegmental grooves of the 5^th to 9^th segment, spermathecal apertures are present. They are eight in number. The peristomium is the first segment while the clitellum is the glandular tissue covering the 14^th to 16^th segment.

9. Where is the female genital pore present in earthworm?
a) 16^th segment
b) 18^th segment
c) 14^th segment
d) 9^th segment
Answer: c
Clarification: The female genital pore of the earthworm is present in the mid – ventral line of the 14^th segment. It is a single pore. The male genital pores are two in number. It is present on the 18^th segment. Earthworms are hermaphrodites.

10. Where are the male genital pores present in earthworm?
a) 16^th segment
b) 18^th segment
c) 14^th segment
d) 9^th segment
Answer: b
Clarification: The male genital pores of the earthworm are present on the ventral lateral sides of the 18^th segment. They are two in number. The earthworm also contains a female genital pore as it is a hermaphrodite.

11. What is the main role of setae in earthworm?
a) Storage of food
b) Respiration
c) Reproduction
d) Locomotion
Answer: d
Clarification: The principal role of setae in earthworm is locomotion. It is present in every body segment except the first, the last and the clitellum. Reproduction is carried out by the female and male genital pores present at other segments.

12. What are the pores present on the surface of the body of the earthworm called?
a) Polypore
b) Exospore
c) Nephridiopore
d) Zoospore
Answer: c
Clarification: Nephridiopore is present on the surface of the earthworm’s body. They are numerous in number. They are minute in size. Polypore, exospore and zoospore are not associated with earthworm but with fungi.

13. Identify the part of earthworm shown in the picture below.

a) Female genital pore
b) Male genital pore
c) Anus
d) Clitellum
Answer: c
Clarification: The anus is the last segment of the earthworm. Since the mouth segment peristomium is shown, it implies that the segment at the opposite end should be the anus. The female and male genital pores and the clitellum are located in the middle of the body.

14. The epidermal pits in the middle of each segment of the earthworm contains _____
a) setae
b) clitellum
c) nephridiopores
d) typhlosole
Answer: a
Clarification: The location of setae is mid – segmental in the epidermal pits. They are S – shaped and present in rows. The main function of the setae is to help with locomotion. They are extendable and retractable.

15. Which of the following statements is true about setae present in earthworm?
a) They are used for reproduction
b) They are retractable
c) They are L – shaped
d) They cannot be extended
Answer: b
Clarification: Setae are both extendable and retractable. They are S – shaped and present in the epidermal pits in the mid – segmental region of every segment. The principal function of the setae is locomotion.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Eukaryotic Cells and it’s Organelles – 3”.

1. Identify the structure.

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: d
Clarification: The structure shown in the diagram is the endoplasmic reticulum. Its membrane, which is a phospholipid bilayer, is continuous with the membrane of the nucleus. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is shown here.

2. What is the space inside the endoplasmic reticulum called?
a) Tubular compartment
b) Extra – tubular compartment
c) Luminal compartment
d) Extra – luminal compartment
Answer: c
Clarification: The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle whose membrane is continuous with the membrane of the nucleus. It divides the intracellular space into two compartments – luminal and extra – luminal.

3. Where are the ribosomes attached in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) In the lumen
b) On the folds towards the nucleus
c) On the surface
d) On the folds towards the cell membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: Endoplasmic reticulum is of two types- smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough endoplasmic reticulum. The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes present on its outer surface.

4. What is present on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) Ribosomes
b) Peroxisomes
c) Lysosomes
d) Endosomes
Answer: a
Clarification: Endoplasmic reticulum is of two types- smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough endoplasmic reticulum. The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes present on its outer surface.

5. Endoplasmic reticulum without ribosomes is called ______
a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) non – ribosomal endoplasmic reticulum
d) nuclear endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b
Clarification: Endoplasmic reticulum is of two types – smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough endoplasmic reticulum. The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes present on its outer surface.

6. Which of these cell organelles is involved in protein synthesis?
a) Lysosome
b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) Peroxisome
Answer: c
Clarification: The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains ribosomes on its surface. Hence, the rough endoplasmic reticulum is actively involved in protein synthesis. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in lipid synthesis.

7. Which of these statements is not true regarding rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) The inner compartment is called the tubular compartment
b) It is involved in protein synthesis
c) Ribosomes are attached to its outer surface
d) Its membrane is continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus
Answer: a
Clarification: The inner compartment of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is called the luminal compartment. The ribosomes are attached to the outer surface and it is actively involved in protein synthesis.

8. What is the site of production of lipid-like steroidal hormones in animal cells?
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Peroxisomes
d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: d
Clarification: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of synthesis of lipid-like steroidal hormones. It is the major site for the production of lipids. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of synthesis of proteins.

9. What is the diameter of cisternae of Golgi bodies?
a) 5μm to 10μm
b) 0.05μm to 0.1μm
c) 0.5μm to 1.0μm
d) 50μm to 100μm
Answer: c
Clarification: Golgi bodies were named after the scientist who discovered them, Camillo Golgi. Golgi bodies contain flat, disc – shaped sacs called cisternae. The diameter of the cisternae is 0.5μm to 1.0μm.

10. The forming face of the Golgi complex is convex. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Golgi complex is made of sacs called cisternae. The forming face which faces the nucleus is convex or cis, while the maturing face which faces away from the nucleus is concave or trans.

11. Which of these is not a function of the Golgi apparatus?
a) Packaging of proteins
b) Modification of proteins
c) Synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids
d) Synthesis of proteins
Answer: d
Clarification: Golgi bodies are involved in the synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids. They are also involved in the modifications and packaging of proteins received from the endoplasmic reticulum. It does not synthesize proteins.

12. Which of these is not a lysosomal enzyme?
a) Lipases
b) Protease
c) Kinases
d) carbohydrase
Answer: c
Clarification: The lysosome contains various enzymes collectively known as lysosomal acid hydrolases. The enzymes are hydrolytic enzymes such as lipase, protease and carbohydrase. Kinases are not hydrolytic enzymes.

13. Which of these statements is false regarding lysosomes?
a) They are bound by a single membrane
b) They contain hydrolytic enzymes
c) Lysosomal enzymes are active at a basic pH
d) They can digest nucleic acids
Answer: c
Clarification: Lysosomes are bound by a single membrane. The contain hydrolytic enzymes which are active at an acidic pH and digest substances such as carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids, by hydrolysis.

14. What are the membranes of vacuoles called?
a) Tonoplast
b) Leucoplast
c) Amyloplast
d) Chromoplast
Answer: a
Clarification: Vacuoles are covered by a single membrane known as tonoplast. Vacuoles contain substances for storage such as water, or excretory products such as sap and other materials not useful for the cell.

15. Which of these is a function of the contractile vacuole in Amoeba?
a) Lipoprotein synthesis
b) Osmoregulation of the cell
c) Glycoprotein synthesis
d) Degradation of nucleic acids
Answer: b
Clarification: Vacuoles contain substances for storage such as water, or excretory products such as sap and other materials not useful for the cell. the contractile vacuole in Amoeba is responsible for osmoregulation and excretion.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules – Nuclei Acids”.

1. Which of these is present in the acid insoluble fraction of living tissue?
a) ascorbic acid
b) Magnesium
c) Riboflavin
d) DNA
Answer: d
Clarification: DNA is present in the acid insoluble fraction. It is a macromolecule. Riboflavin or vitamin B₂, magnesium and ascorbic acid or vitamin C are present in the acid soluble fraction of living tissue.

2. Nucleic acids are _____
a) polypeptides
b) polyimides
c) polynucleotides
d) polysaccharides
Answer: c
Clarification: Nucleic acids are chains of nucleotides. Thus, they are called polynucleotides. Each nucleotide contains a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. Nucleic acids are the genetic material.

3. Which of these is not a part of the macromolecular fraction of a cell?
a) Polynucleotides
b) Polysaccharides
c) Riboflavin
d) Polypeptides
Answer: c
Clarification: The macromolecular fraction of the cell consists of polynucleotides or nucleic acid, polypeptides and polysaccharides which are carbohydrates. All of their molecular wights are above 10,000 Da.

4. What is the building block of nucleic acids?
a) Nucleotide
b) Nucleoside
c) Nucleosome
d) Nucleoprotein
Answer: a
Clarification: The building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base such as adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine or uracil.

5. How many distinct components does each nucleotide contain?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: Each nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base such as adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine or uracil. They are the building blocks of nucleic acids which are the genetic material.

6. How many distinct components does each nucleoside contain?
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: c
Clarification: Each nucleoside consists of a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base such as adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine or uracil. When a phosphate group attaches to the nucleoside, it forms a nucleotide.

7. Which of these components of nucleotides is heterocyclic?
a) Adenine
b) Phosphoric acid
c) Monosaccharide
d) Phosphate
Answer: a
Clarification: Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar. The nitrogenous bases are heterocyclic in nature.

8. Which monosaccharide is present in nucleic acid?
a) Fructose
b) Galactose
c) Glucose
d) Ribose
Answer: d
Clarification: Glucose, fructose, galactose and ribose are all monosaccharides. The monosaccharide contained in nucleic acid is ribose and deoxyribose. They are pentose sugars. Ribose sugar is present in RNA while deoxyribose sugar is present in DNA.

9. The phosphate groups present in nucleotides are related to ______
a) pyrophosphoric acid
b) phosphorous acid
c) phosphoric acid
d) metaphosphoric acid
Answer: c
Clarification: The phosphate groups present in nucleotides and hence, nucleic acids are related to phosphoric acid. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

10. The distinct components of nucleotides are phosphate group, heterocyclic compound and polysaccharide. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base which is a heterocyclic compound and a pentose sugar, which is a monosaccharide.

11. Which of these is a substituted purine?
a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Guanine
Answer: d
Clarification: Adenine and guanine are the substituted purines. The substituted pyrimidines are cytosine, thymine and uracil. They are the nitrogenous bases present in nucleic acids along with pentose sugar and phosphate group.

12. What type of sugar does DNA contain?
a) Ribose
b) 3’ deoxyribose
c) 2’ deoxyribose
d) 5’ deoxyribose
Answer: c
Clarification: DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid. Hence, it contains deoxyribose sugar. It is a ribose sugar molecule with an oxygen atom removed from the second carbon. Hence, it is a 2’ deoxyribose sugar.

13. Identify the compound.

a) Adenine
b) Adenylic acid
c) Adenosine
d) Adenylyl cyclase
Answer: c
Clarification: The given structure contains a pentose sugar and the nitrogenous base adenine attached to it. There is no phosphate group present in the structure. Hence, it is the nucleoside adenosine.

14. Identify the compound.

a) Uridine
b) Uracil
c) Uridine monophosphate
d) Uridylic acid
Answer: a
Clarification: The given structure contains a pentose sugar and the nitrogenous base uracil attached to it. There is no phosphate group present in the structure. Hence, it is the nucleoside uridine.

15. Identify the compound.

a) Adenine
b) Adenylic acid
c) Adenosine
d) Adenylyl cyclase
Answer: b
Clarification: The given structure contains a phosphate group, pentose sugar and the nitrogenous base adenine (purine) attached to it. Hence, it is the nucleotide adenylic acid. It is an ester of phosphoric acid and the nucleoside adenosine.