Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Zoology Written Test Questions and Answers on “Animals – Organs and Organ System – 3”.

1. In which of the following classes does the frog belong?
a) Class Aves
b) Class Amphibia
c) Class Reptilia
d) Class Mammalia
Answer: b
Clarification: Frogs can live both on land and in freshwater and belong to class Amphibia of phylum Chordata. The most common species of frog found in India is Rana tigrina.

2. Why are frogs not seen during peak summer and winter?
a) They die
b) They play hide and seek
c) They hide to protect themselves
d) They shift their places
Answer: c
Clarification: The frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter because during this period they take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat and cold. This is called as summer sleep (Aestivation) and winter sleep (Hibernation) respectively.

3. In how many parts is the body of the frog divisible?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: The body of a frog is divisible into 2 parts which are head and trunk. A neck and a tail are absent. Above the mouth, a pair of nostrils is present.

4. Which of the following structures protect the eyes of frog in water?
a) Tympanum
b) Eyelashes
c) Eyelid
d) Nictitating membrane
Answer: d
Clarification: Eyes of frog are bulged out and are covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them while in water. On either side of the eyes, a membranous tympanum receives sound signals.

5. Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism. Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound-producing vocal sacs and also a copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs which are absent in female frogs.

6. Why is the alimentary canal of frogs short?
a) They are carnivores
b) They are omnivores
c) They are herbivores
d) They do not eat food
Answer: a
Clarification: The alimentary canal of frogs is short because they are carnivores and hence the length of the intestine is reduced. The digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and digestive glands.

7. By the use of which of the following structures, frogs capture food?
a) Mouth
b) Bilobed tongue
c) Trilobed tongue
d) Hind limb
Answer: b
Clarification: Food is captured by the bilobed tongue of the frog. Digestion of food takes place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted from the walls of the stomach.

8. By which of the following do frogs do not respire?
a) Skin
b) Lungs
c) Buccal cavity
d) Ear
Answer: d
Clarification: Frogs respire on land and in water by two different methods. In water, skin acts as an aquatic respiratory organ. On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.

9. How many chambers are present in the heart of the frog?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Clarification: The heart of a frog has three chambers, two atria and one ventricle and is covered by a membrane called the pericardium. A triangular structure called as sinus venosus joins the right atrium.

10. Hepatic portal system and Renal portal system are present in the frog.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Special venous connection between liver and intestine as well as the kidney and lower parts of the body are present in the frogs. The former is called a hepatic portal system and the latter is called the renal portal system.

11. Which of the following is not a part of the excretory system of frogs?
a) Kidneys
b) Ureters
c) Vasa efferentia
d) Cloaca
Answer: c
Clarification: The elimination of nitrogenous wastes is carried out by a well-developed excretory system. The excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, ureters, cloaca and urinary bladder.

12. Where does the urinogenital duct open in the case of frogs?
a) Kidneys
b) Cloaca
c) Urinary bladder
d) Testis
Answer: b
Clarification: Two ureters emerge from the kidneys in male frogs. The ureters act as a urinogenital duct which opens into the cloaca. In females the ureters and oviduct separately in the cloaca.

13. In which form does the frog excrete out the nitrogenous waste?
a) Ammonia
b) Nitrogen
c) Urea
d) Uric acid
Answer: c
Clarification: The frog excretes nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea and thus is a ureotelic organism. Excretory wastes are carried by blood into the kidney where it is separated and excreted.

14. Which of the following is an organ of hearing as well as balancing?
a) Eyes
b) Ear
c) Tongue
d) Skin
Answer: b
Clarification: The ear is an organ of hearing as well as balancing. The external ear is absent in frogs and the only tympanum can be seen externally.

15. Which of the following does not pass through cloaca?
a) Faecal matter
b) Tears
c) Urine
d) Sperms
Answer: b
Clarification: The cloaca is a small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperms to the exterior in male frogs. In female frogs, a pair of oviducts arising from the ovaries open into the cloaca separately.

To practice Zoology Written Test Questions and Answers,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Eukaryotic Cells and it’s Organelles – 1”.

1. Which of these are not eukaryotic?
a) Plants
b) Fungi
c) Protists
d) Monerans
Answer: d
Clarification: Eukaryotic cells possess a true nucleus. Plants, fungi and protists are eukaryotic organisms as they have a well – defined nucleus. However, monerans do not possess a well – defined nucleus and are thus, prokaryotes.

2. Which of these structures are absent in eukaryotes?
a) Organised nucleus
b) Membrane bound organelles
c) Mesosome
d) Nuclear envelope
Answer: c
Clarification: Eukaryotic organisms have a well – defined nucleus. The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear envelope. The various organelles are membrane bound. However, only prokaryotic organisms possess mesosomes.

3. Which of these are absent in plant cell?
a) Large central vacuole
b) Cell wall
c) Centriole
d) Plastid
Answer: c
Clarification: Plants cells are differentiated from animal cells on the basis of the presence of certain organelles such as plastids, cell wall and a large central vacuole. Only animal cells possess centrioles in their cytoplasm.

4. The structure of the cell membrane was studied in detail after the invention of the _____
a) electron microscope
b) light microscope
c) magnifying glass
d) confocal microscope
Answer: a
Clarification: The structure of the cell membrane was studied in detail in the 1950s after the advent of the electron microscope. The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer containing various proteins in its structure.

5. Which of these structures of the phospholipid bilayer is correctly matched with its property?
a) Phosphate head – hydrophobic
b) Phosphate head – hydrophilic
c) Lipid tail – hydrophilic
d) Lipid tail – Polar
Answer: b
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer in which the polar and hydrophilic phosphate head groups face outwards, while the non-polar and hydrophilic lipid tails face each other.

6. Which of these statements is not true regarding the cell membrane?
a) The phosphate heads are polar
b) It is a phospholipid bilayer
c) The hydrophilic tails face outwards
d) It contains integral proteins
Answer: c
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer in which the polar and hydrophilic phosphate head groups face outwards, while the non-polar and hydrophilic lipid tails face each other.

7. What is the percentage of protein in the cell membrane of human erythrocytes?
a) 52%
b) 40%
c) 37%
d) 33%
Answer: a
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer. It also contains various proteins. The protein and lipid percentages vary in different cells. Human erythrocyte membranes are 52% protein.

8. What is the percentage of lipids in the cell membrane of human erythrocytes?
a) 52%
b) 44%
c) 37%
d) 40%
Answer: d
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer. It also contains various proteins. The protein and lipid percentages vary in different cells. Human erythrocyte membranes are made of 40% lipids.

9. Which of these scientists proposed the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane?
a) Schleiden and Schwann
b) Hershey and Chase
c) Singer and Nicholson
d) Watson and Crick
Answer: c
Clarification: Singer and Nicholson proposed the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane in 1972. According to this model, the lateral movement of proteins was enabled by the quasi-fluid nature of lipid.

10. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of the cell membrane. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer. The cell membrane has two types of proteins- peripheral proteins and integral proteins. Peripheral proteins are present on the surface of the membrane.

11. Fluidity of the cell membrane is a measure of the _____
a) ability of water to pass through the membrane
b) ability of potassium ions to pass through the membrane
c) ability of sodium ions to pass through the membrane
d) ability to move within the membrane
Answer: d
Clarification: Fluidity of the cell membrane is the measure of the ability to move within the membrane. This movement is allowed due to the quasi-fluid nature of lipid present in the cell membrane.

12. Water moves across the cell membrane by _____
a) exocytosis
b) endocytosis
c) osmosis
d) active transport
Answer: c
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer which is semi – permeable. Water moves across this membrane by the process of diffusion. The diffusion of water across a semi – permeable membrane is known as osmosis.

13. Which of these molecules require a carrier protein to pass through the cell membrane?
a) Small neutral solutes
b) Water
c) Polar molecules
d) Non – polar molecules
Answer: c
Clarification: Since the cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer having non – polar lipid tail groups, polar molecules cannot pass through the membrane without the assistance of carrier proteins present within the membrane.

14. Identify the component of the cell membrane.

a) Hydrophilic phosphate head
b) Hydrophobic phosphate tail
c) Hydrophilic lipid tail
d) Hydrophobic lipid head
Answer: a
Clarification: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer in which the polar and hydrophilic phosphate head groups face outwards, while the non-polar and hydrophilic lipid tails face each other.

15. Which of these statements is not true regarding active transport?
a) It is an energy dependent process
b) Molecules are transported along their concentration gradient
c) Sodium – potassium pump requires active transport
d) ATP is utilised
Answer: b
Clarification: Active transport is the movement of molecules or ions from a region of their lower concentration to a region of their higher concentration, against the concentration gradient. It requires energy in the form of ATP.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules – Polysaccharides – 1”.

1. Which of these is a macromolecule?
a) Vitamins
b) Minerals
c) Lipids
d) Polysaccharides
Answer: d
Clarification: Vitamins, minerals and lipids are micro-molecules. This means that they have a molecular weight of less than 800 Da. Polysaccharides are macromolecules as they have a molecular weight greater than 10,000 Da.

2. Which of these is present in the acid insoluble pool of homogenized, strained tissue?
a) Ions
b) Minerals
c) Polysaccharides
d) Vitamins
Answer: c
Clarification: After living tissue is homogenized and strained, it separates into an acid soluble pool and an acid insoluble pool. The acid insoluble pool contains macromolecules such as polysaccharides.

3. Polysaccharide chains are made of ______
a) disaccharides
b) glucose
c) sugars
d) fructose
Answer: c
Clarification: Polysaccharide chains are made of repeating units of different sugars. Hence, polysaccharides are an example of heteropolymers, in which the polymer chain is made of different monomers.

4. Which of these is not a monosaccharide?
a) Sucrose
b) Glucose
c) Fructose
d) Galactose
Answer: a
Clarification: A monosaccharide or simple sugar is the basic unit of carbohydrates. Glucose, fructose and galactose are monosaccharides. Sucrose is a disaccharide which is made of a glucose monomer and a fructose monomer.

5. Cellulose is a _____
a) heteropolymer
b) homopolymer
c) dimer
d) monomer
Answer: b
Clarification: Cellulose is a homopolymer. This means that it is made of repeating units of the same monomer, which is glucose in the case of cellulose. Cellulose is the most abundant organic polymer on Earth.

6. Cellulose is a polymer of _____
a) galactose and fructose
b) glucose and fructose
c) glucose
d) glucose and galactose
Answer: c
Clarification: Cellulose is a homopolymer. This means that its chain consists of repeating units of a single type of monomer. Repeating units of glucose joined by glycosidic bonds form the polymer cellulose.

7. Which of these is a storehouse of energy in plant tissues?
a) Starch
b) Cellulose
c) Glucose
d) Fructose
Answer: a
Clarification: Plant tissues produce glucose by the process of photosynthesis. This glucose is converted to starch which is then stored in the plant tissue. It imparts energy to the plant through the process of respiration.

8. Which of these is a storehouse of energy in animal tissues?
a) Glucose
b) Cellulose
c) Starch
d) Glycogen
Answer: d
Clarification: Glucose is the source of energy for animal tissues. It is stored in the body in polymeric form in a polysaccharide called glycogen. Glycogen can be broken down into glucose for consumption by tissues when required by the body.

9. Inulin is a polymer of ______
a) glucose and fructose
b) glucose
c) fructose
d) glucose, fructose and galactose
Answer: c
Clarification: Inulin is a homopolymer. This means that the polymeric chain is formed from repeating units of the monomer fructose. The fructose units are joined to each other by glycosidic bonds to form inulin.

10. Fructose does not form homopolymers. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Fructose is a monomer and is also known as fruit sugar. It can form homopolymers of repeating units of fructose joined by glycosidic bonds. The homopolymer thus formed is known as inulin.

11. Which part of glycogen is the reducing end?
a) Second monomer from the left
b) Second monomer from the right
c) Left end
d) Right end
Answer: d
Clarification: Glycogen is a polysaccharide composed of glucose monomers that has a branched structure. The right end of polysaccharide chains is the reducing end while the left end is the non-reducing end.

12. Which part of cellulose is the non-reducing end?
a) Second monomer from the left
b) Second monomer from the right
c) Left end
d) Right end
Answer: c
Clarification: Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed of glucose monomers that has a linear structure. The right end of polysaccharide chains is the reducing end while the left end is the non-reducing end.

13. The building blocks ok polysaccharides are _____
a) glucose units
b) disaccharides
c) monosaccharides
d) carbon molecules
Answer: c
Clarification: Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides. Some monosaccharides are glucose, fructose and galactose. They are linked through glycosidic bonds to form chains of various polysaccharides.

14. Which of these is not true about cellulose?
a) It is the second most abundant organic polymer
b) It has linear chains
c) It is made of glucose subunits
d) It is a homopolymer
Answer: a
Clarification: Cellulose is a homopolymer of repeating glucose units joined to each other by glycosidic bonds. Cellulose chains are linear in structure. Cellulose is the most abundant organic polymer on Earth.

15. Which of these statements is not true regarding polysaccharides?
a) Cellulose has a linear structure
b) Inulin is a heteropolymer
c) Glycogen has a branched structure
d) Polysaccharide chains have a non-reducing left end
Answer: b
Clarification: Cellulose, inulin and glycogen are polysaccharides. Cellulose has a linear structure while glycogen has a branched structure. All polysaccharide chains have a non-reducing left end. Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plant-Water Relations-1”.

1. Which part of the cell contains water-like substances with dissolved molecules and suspended in them?
a) Protoplasm
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cytosol
d) Matrix
Answer: a
Clarification: Protoplasm of the cell is a fluid, similar to water, contains all the molecules in it. Cytoplasm contains all the particles inside the membrane of a cell. Cytosol is a part of cytoplasm possessing all the organelles excluding the cell nucleus. Matrix is a fluid present in different types depending upon the type of specialized structure such as stroma is the matrix of chloroplast.

2. Woody parts of plants contain relatively less water while soft parts contain more water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Woody plants have dead vascular tissue so there is no conduction of water and do not contain much water. In case of soft parts, they have functional vascular tissue hence possess sufficient amount of water.

3. Statement A: Water is the limiting factor for plant growth and productivity.
Statement B: A minute amount of water is lost to the environment by the leaves.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: c
Clarification: As water is lost in a large amount to the external surroundings due to many environmental and internal factors, hence, is the most important determinant of plant growth and productivity. More than 90% of water is lost to the environment by leaves due to transpiration and evaporation.

4. The amount of water lost by plants due to transpiration and guttation?
a) 98%
b) 12%
c) 92%
d) 50%
Answer: a
Clarification: The amount of water lost by plants due to transpiration and guttation is approximately 98%. Watermelon contains 92% of water. Herbs have 12% of their fresh weight as the dry matter. Mustard plant absorbs water having 50% of their weight in 5 hours.

5. Which potential is considered of negligible value?
a) Water potential
b) Matrix potential
c) Solute potential
d) Pressure potential
Answer: b
Clarification: Matrix potential is the energy developed due the attachment of water with non-dissolved solutes such as soil. It is of negligible value whereas Water potential is the ultimate energy and Solute potential and Pressure potential are important components of water potential.

6. The value of water potential of pure water is ________
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) -2
Answer: c
Clarification: The water potential of pure water is highest with the numerical value of 0. 1 cannot be the value of water potential and -1, -2 values come when solute is dissolved or pressure is applied.

7. Concentration gradient is a mandatory condition for diffusion of substances irrespective of the process involved.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: All the processes require a redox potential in order to transport substances from one place to another. A concentration gradient is an essential condition for the transport of molecules of substances to occur.

8. The greater concentration of water in a system leads to _________
a) increased transpiration
b) increased solute potential
c) hypertonic condition
d) greater kinetic energy
Answer: d
Clarification: Increase in concentration of water in a system leads to increase in K.E and thereby the water potential of the plant. It reduces hypertonic solution and aim to achieve isotonic condition. It decreases the solute potential as the water content increases in comparison to solutes dissolved. Transpiration doesn’t depend on amount of water present in the system.

9. The unit of water potential is_________
a) psi
b) no unit
c) pascal
d) mmole per kg
Answer: c
Clarification: Pascal is the unit of water potential as it is also a kind of pressure. Psi is the Greek symbol use to the denote water potential. It must have a unit as it is not a ratio. mmole per kg is the unit of amount of micro and macro nutrients required by the plant.

10. Statement A: Solute potential increases with dissolution of solutes.
Statement B: The value of solute potential is always negative.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: a
Clarification: Solute potential is a component of water potential which alters it depending on the amount of dissolved solute added or removed as well as the amount of water present. Since maximum value of water potential is zero which contains no solutes. Addition of solute decrease the water potential, therefore, the increment of solute potential is in negative terms.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Higher Plants Photosynthesis – Light Reaction”.

1. The reaction center in the light-harvesting complex is formed by _____
a) Chlorophyll b
b) Grana
c) Chlorophyll e
d) A single chlorophyll a molecule
Answer: d
Clarification: The reaction center in the light-harvesting complex is formed by a single “chlorophyll a” molecule. This chlorophyll a molecule has the capability to absorb different wavelengths of light energy. It is mainly known for the process called photoionization of chlorophyll.

2. Which of the following is not related to the light reaction?
a) Also called Photochemical phase
b) Light absorption
c) Electron transport
d) Water splitting
Answer: c
Clarification: Electron transport is not related to light reaction. It is because light reaction is mainly based on photochemical processes like light absorption, water splitting, the formation of ATP and NADPH, etc. where electron transport is not included.

3. How many light-harvesting systems are there in light reaction?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Clarification: The photosynthetic pigments are organized into two groups of light-harvesting systems. They are mainly composed of many pigments bonded to proteins. These light-harvesting systems are present within PS I and PS II.

4. The harvesting systems are named in the order of their functioning sequence.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is a false statement. Light-harvesting systems are named in the sequence of their discovery time and not based on the order of their functioning sequence. PS I was found first and later PS II.

5. Which pigment is absent in each photosystem?
a) One molecule of chlorophyll a
b) Two molecules of chlorophyll b
c) One molecule of chlorophyll b
d) One molecule of xanthophyll
Answer: a
Clarification: One molecule of chlorophyll a is absent in each photosystem forming a light-harvesting system also known as the antenna. These pigments make photosynthesis more efficient. The reaction center is formed by this one molecule of chlorophyll a.

6. The reaction center is different in both the photosystems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: It is true since chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700 nm for PS I. For PS II, it has got an absorption maximum at 680 nm. Hence, the names P700 and P680 were given for the reaction centers.

7. PS I is the photosystem present only in _______ photosynthesis.
a) Amoeba
b) Bacterial
c) Fungal
d) Plant
Answer: b
Clarification: PS I is the only photosystem present in bacterial photosynthesis. It lacks PS II since it is having less complexity for photosynthesis, they only require one photosystem.

8. Which among the following are raw materials required for the light reaction?
a) NADPH₂ and H₂O
b) ADP and OH₂
c) ATP only
d) ADP, H₂O, and NADP
Answer: d
Clarification: ADP, H₂O, and NADP are the main required materials for light reaction. The water undergoes photolysis i.e. it splits into hydrogen and oxygen. ADP gets converted into ATP and NADP to NADPH.

9. ______ discovered the two-pigment system theory of light reaction?
a) Emerson
b) Hill
c) Arnon
d) Mathew
Answer: a
Clarification: Emerson was the scientist who proposed the two-pigment theory of light reaction. Robert Hill was the scientist who found the light reaction or photochemical phase. Arnon coined the term phosphorylation.

10. Which of the following is most sensitive to higher wavelengths of sunlight?
a) Photolysis
b) Chlorophyll
c) PS I
d) PS II
Answer: c
Clarification: Photosystem I is most sensitive to higher wavelengths of sunlight. It is because its absorption maxima are 700nm which gives it more strength to capture wavelengths of light. PS II is not as much sensitive as PS I since it has absorption peak only at 680nm.

11. How many electrons and protons are produced during the photolysis of water?
a) 4 electrons and 3 protons
b) 1 electron and 2 protons
c) 3 electrons and protons
d) 4 electrons and 4 protons
Answer: d
Clarification: Four electrons and four protons are produced at the end of the photolysis of water. Two molecules of water get converted into 4H⁺ and 4e^– along with free oxygen. The ions used for this splitting is Mn²⁺, Ca²⁺, and Cl^–.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plant Growth and Development – Differentiation, Dedifferentiation & Redifferentiation”.

1. Which of the following is the process undergone by plants in order to attain maturity?
a) Differentiation
b) Development
c) Dedifferentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: a
Clarification: Differentiation is the process undergone by plants in order to attain maturity. Development is the overall changes occurring in the life cycle of an organism. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the further maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function.

2. The final structure at maturity of a cell or tissue is independent of the location of the cell within.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The final structure at maturity of a cell or tissue is also determined by the location of the cell within. Cell positioned away from root apical meristem forms root cap cells while those pushed to the periphery forms the epidermis.

3. The cells of tracheary elements lose their protoplasm and become dead at maturity due to the deposition of lignocellulosic secondary cell well formation. This is an example of _________
a) redifferentiation
b) development
c) dedifferentiation
d) differentiation
Answer: d
Clarification: The formation of secondary cell wall around tracheids and vessels is an example of differentiation. Development is the overall changes occurring in the life cycle of an organism. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the further maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function.

4. Which of the following phenomena includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death?
a) Dedifferentiation
b) Development
c) Differentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: b
Clarification: Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the further maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to mature.

5. Elongation and thickening of sclerenchyma cells are an example of __________
a) dedifferentiation
b) development
c) differentiation
d) redifferentiation
Answer: c
Clarification: Differentiation leads to elongation and thickening of sclerenchyma cells. : Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the further maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function.

6. Which of the following processes lead to the formation of secondary xylem and phloem?
a) Development
b) Redifferentiation
c) Dedifferentiation
d) Differentiation
Answer: b
Clarification: Redifferentiation leads to the formation of secondary xylem and phloem. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to mature.

7. Vacuolization and development of end wall perforation in sieve tube elements are examples of _______
a) development
b) differentiation
c) dedifferentiation
d) redifferentiation
Answer: b
Clarification: Differentiation is responsible for the vacuolization and development of end wall perforation in sieve tube elements. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to attain maturity. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death.

8. The phenomenon under which living cells which have otherwise lost the capacity to divide, regain the property of division under certain conditions is known as __________
a) development
b) differentiation
c) dedifferentiation
d) redifferentiation
Answer: c
Clarification: Dedifferentiation is the phenomenon that leads to regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Dedifferentiation is regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death.

9. Which of the following phenomenon leads to the specification of functions of dedifferentiated cells upon maturity?
a) Development
b) Differentiation
c) Dedifferentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: d
Clarification: Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death. Dedifferentiation is the phenomenon that leads to regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to attain maturity.

10. Which of the following processes lead to formation of cork cambium and interfascicular cambium?
a) Development
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Differentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: b
Clarification: Dedifferentiation leads to formation of cork cambium and interfascicular cambium. Dedifferentiation is the phenomenon that leads to regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to attain maturity. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death.

11. Which of the following processes lead to formation of callus in plant tissue culture carried out in a laboratory?
a) No differentiation
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Differentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: b
Clarification: Dedifferentiation leads to formation of cork cambium and interfascicular cambium. Dedifferentiation is the phenomenon that leads to regaining the lost capacity of cells or tissues of plants to divide under special conditions. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to attain maturity. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Development includes all the changes undergone by a living plant from seed emergence to death.

12. Cells of which of the following plant organs do not undergo differentiation?
a) Cork
b) Root apical meristem
c) Shoot apical meristem
d) Intrafasicular cambium
Answer: a
Clarification: Cork cell is formed by the process of redifferentiation. Redifferentiation is the maturation of dedifferentiated cells thereby specializing for a particular function. Cells of root apical meristem, shoot apical meristem and intrafasicular cambium undergo differentiation. Differentiation is the division and growth of cells in order to attain maturity.

13. Statement A: Most plants undergo indeterminate growth, growing as long as the plant lives.
Statement B: Indeterminate growth is synonymous to immortality.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: b
Clarification: Indeterminate growth means growth of plant is unspecified and is carried out till the plant survives. Plants are capable of indeterminate growth as they possess perpetually embryonic tissues called meristems. Plant parts such as leaves, thorns and flowers have determinate growth. Indeterminate growth is not synonymous to immortality, the plant continues to thrive, divide and mature.

14. Which of the following processes takes place in (C)?

a) Vascularization
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Differentiation
d) Redifferentiation
Answer: d
Clarification: A: Differentiation
B: Dedifferentiation
C: Redifferentiation
Vascularization occurs in procambium to form primary xylem and phloem along with intrafascicular cambium.