Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Cell Cycle and Division – M Phase-1”.

1. Which of these is the most eventful period of the cell cycle?
a) G1 phase
b) G2 phase
c) S phase
d) M phase
Answer: d
Clarification: G1 phase, G2 phase and M phase are stages of the resting phase, known as interphase. Although cell growth and DNA replication take place during interphase, it is lesser than the events taking place during mitosis or M phase.

2. What is the phenomenon of nuclear division known as?
a) Telekinesis
b) Cytokinesis
c) Karyokinesis
d) Autokinesis
Answer: c
Clarification: The phenomenon of nuclear division is known as karyokinesis. Cell division is known as cytokinesis. These events take place in the cell during mitosis. Mitosis is terminated with cell division or cytokinesis.

3. Which of these events is not a part of karyokinesis?
a) Metaphase
b) Prophase
c) Interphase
d) Anaphase
Answer: c
Clarification: Interphase or the resting period is not a part of karyokinesis. Karyokinesis involves nuclear division. The stages of M phase, namely, metaphase, anaphase and prophase are a part of karyokinesis.

4. In which phase is chromosome condensation initiated?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
Answer: a
Clarification: Initiation of chromosomal condensation takes place in the M phase of the cell cycle. It marks the starting of cell division. Hence, it takes place in the first stage of M phase, that is, prophase.

5. What happens to the chromosome during chromatin condensation?
a) It becomes tangled
b) It becomes detangled
c) It undergoes temporary denaturation
d) It undergoes inactivation
Answer: b
Clarification: The densely coiled chromatin or chromosome fibers become detangled during the condensation of chromatin. This is an early event of the cell cycle and takes place in the prophase phase.

6. In which phase do the centrosomes start moving to the opposite poles of the cell?
a) Anaphase
b) Metaphase
c) Prophase
d) Telophase
Answer: c
Clarification: The centrosome is located just outside the nucleus. During S phase, it undergoes replication. During prophase of M phase or mitosis, they start moving towards the opposite ends of the cell.

7. Which of these structures is the site of attachment of chromatids?
a) Centromere
b) Aster
c) Kinetochore
d) Centrosome
Answer: a
Clarification: Chromatids are attached to each other at the centromere. Kinetochores are the point of attachment of chromatids on the spindle fibers. Centrosome is a structure present outside the nucleus.

8. What are asters made of?
a) Collagen
b) Intermediate filaments
c) Actin fibers
d) Microtubules
Answer: d
Clarification: Asters are made out of microtubules, which are a type of cytoskeletal proteins of the cell. Asters radiate from centrosomes on the opposite poles of the cells during the M phase of cell division.

9. What are the constituents of the mitotic apparatus?
a) Chromatids, Centrosomes
b) Chromatids, Spindle fibers
c) Asters, Spindle fibers
d) Kinetochores, Centrosomes
Answer: c
Clarification: The mitotic apparatus consists of asters and spindle fibers. Asters radiate out from the centrosomes present on the opposite poles of the cell. They are made out of microtubules which are cytoskeletal proteins.

10. Distinct DNA is observable in G2 phase of cell cycle. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The G2 phase of the cell cycle is a part of the interphase or resting phase. The chromosome is tangled and intertwined. Hence, distinct strands of chromosomes are not observable.

11. Which of these structures are visible under the microscope at the end of prophase?
a) Nucleolus
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi bodies
d) Asters
Answer: d
Clarification: Prophase is the first phase of the M phase or the mitotic phase. At the end of prophase, the nucleolus, Golgi bodies and the endoplasmic reticulum are not visible. Asters are visible. They radiate in all directions from the centrosomes.

12. In which phase does the nuclear envelope disintegrate?
a) Telophase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
Answer: c
Clarification: The nuclear envelope starts disintegrating in the prophase phase of the M phase. However, it is completely disintegrated in the metaphase stage. It is the second phase of mitosis or M phase.

13. In which phase of mitosis can the chromosomes be studied easily?
a) Prophase
b) Anaphase
c) Metaphase
d) Telophase
Answer: c
Clarification: In the metaphase stage of mitosis or M phase, the chromosomes are spread out throughout the cytoplasm and not confined to the nucleus. They are highly condensed and hence can be studied easily.

14. What is the shape of a kinetochore?
a) Disc-shaped
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Triangular
Answer: a
Clarification: The kinetochore is a small disc-shaped structure. They are present on centromeres, which are the place of attachment of sister chromatids. The kinetochores are the sites of attachment of chromatids to the spindle fibers.

15. Identify the structure given below.

a) Centrosomes
b) Asters
c) Centromeres
d) Chromatin
Answer: b
Clarification: The given structure is present in the cytoplasm of the cell and radiates out in all directions from the centrosomes present on opposite poles of the cell. Hence, they are the asters, which are made of microtubules.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Mineral Nutrition – Metabolism of Nitrigen-1”.

1. Which of the following is not a pool for nitrogen cycle?
a) Atmosphere
b) Ocean
c) Soil
d) Biomass
Answer: b
Clarification: Oceans are not reservoir for nitrogen cycle. They contain nitrogen in form of deposits. Atmosphere, soil and biomass act as pools for nitrogen cycle and there is exchange of nitrogen among them from one form to another.

2. Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient for both agricultural and natural ecosystems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Nitrogen is a constituent of various substances required by all the living beings. Plants compete with microbes for the uptake of limited nitrogen available in the soil. Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient for both agricultural and natural ecosystems.

3. Statement A: Legume–bacteria relationship is an example of symbiotic biological nitrogen fixation.
Statement B: The association is represented by formation of root knots.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: c
Clarification: The association of bacteria, mostly Rhizobium with the roots of leguminous plants is an example of symbiotic biological nitrogen fixation. Their association leads to formation of pink root nodules.

4. Which is the first stable product of nitrogen fixation?
a) N₂
b) NH₃
c) NH₄⁺
d) NO₃^–
Answer: b
Clarification: NH₃ is the first stable product of nitrogen fixation. N₂ is the form in which nitrogen naturally exists. NO₃^– is the form of nitrogen taken up by the plants. NH₄⁺ is the toxic form of nitrogen which gets accumulated in plants.

5. Which organism is capable of carrying out denitrification?
a) Nitrosomonas
b) Beijernickia
c) Pseudomonas
d) Nitrobacter
Answer: c
Clarification: Pseudomonas is the organism is capable of carrying out denitrification. Beijernickia is free-living nitrogen fixing aerobic nitrogen fixer. Nitrobacter convert nitrite to nitrate form. Nitrosomonas convert ammonia to nitrite form.

6. Statement A: Nodule formation involves a direct interaction between Rhizobium and leaves of host plant.
Statement B: The differentiation of cortical and pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: b
Clarification: Nodules are pinkish small outgrowths on roots. Nodule formation involves a multiple sequential interaction between Rhizobium and roots of host plant. The division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.

7. Enzymes for nitrogen fixation are found exclusively in eukaryotes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The enzymes for nitrogen fixation are found exclusively in prokaryotes. Rhizobium bacterium is known for its symbiotic relationship with roots of legumes. Rhodospirillum, Bacillus, Azotobacter are other bacteria having nitrogen fixing capability.

8. The form of nitrogen absorbed by plants is _________
a) NO₂^–
b) N₂O
c) NH₃
d) NO
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants absorb nitrogen in form of NO₂^– and NO₃^–. N₂O and NO are obtained from electrical N₂ fixation. NH₃ is the first stable product.

9. The process under which nitrogen and hydrogen combine to form ammonia under high temperature and pressure conditions is called as _________
a) biological N₂ fixation
b) natural N₂ fixation
c) electrical N₂ fixation
d) industrial N₂ fixation
Answer: d
Clarification: In industrial N₂ fixation, nitrogen and hydrogen combine to form ammonia under high temperature and pressure conditions. Electrical N₂ fixation is carried out by lightening process. Biological N₂ fixation is taken up by certain prokaryotic bacteria. Natural N₂ fixation is not known yet.

10. In the figure given below, (C) represents __________

a) Decaying biomass
b) Plant Biomass
c) Animal Biomass
d) Soil ‘N’ Pool
Answer: c
Clarification: A represents the decaying biomass. B represents plant biomass. C represents animal biomass. D represents soil ‘N’ pool.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Aerobic Respiration – 1”.

1. What is aerobic respiration?
a) Partial oxidation of glucose
b) Incomplete oxidation of glucose
c) Complete oxidation of organic substances
d) Complete oxidation of only glucose
Answer: c
Clarification: Aerobic respiration is the complete oxidation of organic substances which occur in the presence of oxygen. It is an energy yielding process as a large amount of energy in the form of ATP is released. Water and carbon dioxide are also released as its by-products.

2. Where does aerobic respiration usually takes place?
a) Lower vertebrates
b) Higher organisms
c) Prokaryotes
d) Only unicellular eukaryotes
Answer: b
Clarification: Aerobic respiration is most common in higher organisms. In eukaryotes, the steps of aerobic respiration take place within the mitochondria and this requires oxygen.

3. What is the efficiency of aerobic respiration?
a) More than 75%
b) Approximately 45%
c) Less than 20%
d) 99%
Answer: b
Clarification: The efficiency of aerobic respiration is approximately 45%. For aerobic respiration, the final product of glycolysis is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.

4. Where does the second process of aerobic respiration take place?
a) In the lumen of mitochondria
b) In the matrix of mitochondria
c) In the inner membrane of mitochondria
d) In the cristae of mitochondria
Answer: c
Clarification: The two stages of aerobic respiration are Kreb’s cycle and electron transport system. The first process takes place in the matric of mitochondria while the second process takes place in the inner membrane of mitochondria in eukaryotes.

5. How many CO₂ molecules are left during the complete oxidation of pyruvate?
a) One
b) Two
c) Five
d) Three
Answer: d
Clarification: The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms takes place while leaving three molecules of Carbon-dioxide.

6. Which of the following is a crucial event in aerobic respiration?
a) Simultaneous synthesis of ATP
b) Synthesis of ethanol and water
c) Complete oxidation of methanol
d) Complete oxidation of carbon-dioxide
Answer: a
Clarification: The crucial events in aerobic respiration are the complete oxidation of pyruvate and the passing on of the electrons removed as a part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular oxygen with the simultaneous synthesis of ATP.

7. After entering the mitochondrial matrix, pyruvate undergoes reductive decarboxylation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Pyruvate is the product of glycolysis which occurs in the cytoplasm of all the living organisms. Therefore, for pyruvate to enter Kreb’s cycle, it enters in the mitochondrial matrix where it undergoes oxidative decarboxylation as from 2 molecules of pyruvate, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide are released.

8. Which of the following participates in the reaction catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) Ethanol
d) Coenzyme A
Answer: d
Clarification: The reaction catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase requires the participation of several coenzymes that include NAD⁺ and Coenzyme A.

9. How many molecules of NADH are produced by the metabolism of pyruvic acid?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: During the process, two molecules of NADH are produced from the metabolism of two molecules of pyruvic acid i.e. produced from one glucose molecule during glycolysis.

10. Who discovered the Tricarboxylic acid cycle?
a) Hans Krebs
b) Ernst Haeckel
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Charles Darwin
Answer: a
Clarification: Tricarboxylic acid cycle, more commonly known as Kreb’s cycle was elucidated by Hans Krebs who first discovered it in the flight muscles of pigeon.

11. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of which of the following compounds?
a) Sucrose
b) Acetyl group
c) Ethanol
d) Pyruvate
Answer: b
Clarification: The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group. It reacts with oxaloacetic acid and water and forms citric acid. This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme citrate synthase and a molecule of CoA is released. Further, citrate is isomerised to isocitrate with the help of isomerase enzyme.

12. After the condensation of an acetyl group, citrate is replaced by malic acid.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: After the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid, citric acid is formed. This citrate then isomerises to isocitrate. It then leads to the formation of α-ketoglutaric acid.

13. How many steps of decarboxylation lead to the formation of ketoglutaric acid?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Seven
Answer: c
Clarification: Two steps of decarboxylation leads to the formation of ketoglutaric acid. When citric acid is formed in the cycle, it then forms cis-acotinic acid and then isocitric acid. Isocitric acid further forms oxalosuccinic acid which finally forms ketoglutaric acid in the presence of oxalosuccinate decarboxylase enzyme.

14. Which of the following compounds is the first member of the TCA cycle?
a) Oxaloacetic acid
b) α-ketoglutaric acid
c) Succinic acid
d) Malic acid
Answer: a
Clarification: Oxaloacetic acid is the first member of the TCA cycle. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment of Oxaloacetic acid.

15. What is the full form of SLP?
a) Subgeneric Level of Phosphorylation
b) Subcutaneous Level Photophosphorylation
c) Substrate Level Phosphorylation
d) Substrate Level Pyruvatisation
Answer: c
Clarification: SLP stands for Substrate Level Phosphorylation. During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised. This is substrate-level phosphorylation.

Biology MCQs for AIIMS Exam on “Disorders in Digestive System – 2”.

1. Which of the following is not a cause for indigestion?
a) Overeating
b) Food poisoning
c) Anxiety
d) Adequate enzyme secretion
Answer: d
Clarification: In indigestion, the food is not properly digested which leads to a feeling of fullness. The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating, and spicy food.

2. What is the full form of PEM?
a) Protein-energy malfunction
b) Protein-energy malnutrition
c) Pulmonary ejection malfunction
d) Pancreas enzyme malnutrition
Answer: b
Clarification: PEM stands for Protein-energy malnutrition. PEM affects children and infants to produce marasmus and kwashiorkor.

3. In which of the following countries dietary deficiencies are not common?
a) European countries
b) South and South-east Asia
c) South America
d) West and Central Africa
Answer: a
Clarification: Dietary deficiencies of proteins and total food calories are widespread in many underdeveloped countries of South and South-east Asia, South America, and West and Central Africa.

4. PEM does not affect which section of the population?
a) Population affected by turmoil
b) Population affected by drought
c) Population affected by famine
d) Overpopulation
Answer: d
Clarification: PEM may affect large sections of the population during drought, famine, and political turmoil. This happened in Bangladesh during the liberation war.

5. Marasmus is produced by a deficiency of proteins only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. If the mother’s milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value.

6. In which age group marasmus is likely to happen?
a) Infants
b) Children between 1-5 years of age
c) Teenagers
d) Old people
Answer: a
Clarification: Marasmus is found in infants of less than one year in age. Marasmus often happens when the mother has a second pregnancy or childbirth when the older infant is still too young.

7. Which of the following is not a symptom of marasmus?
a) Extreme emaciation of the body
b) Thinning of limbs
c) Swelling of body parts
d) Replacement of tissue proteins
Answer: c
Clarification: In marasmus, protein deficiency impairs growth, and replacement of tissue proteins, extreme emaciation of the body, and thinning of limbs are also observed. The skin also becomes dry, thin, and wrinkled.

8. Which of the following deficiency leads to Kwashiorkor?
a) Fats
b) Protein
c) Vitamin
d) Water
Answer: b
Clarification: Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk by a high calorie-low protein diet in a child more than one year in age.

9. Which of the following is not a symptom of kwashiorkor?
a) Extensive oedema
b) Emaciation of the body
c) Failure of growth and brain development
d) Wasting of muscles
Answer: b
Clarification: Kwashiorkor shows a wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, failure of growth, and brain development. But unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under the skin, moreover, extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen.

10. Where do most of the water is absorbed in our body?
a) Stomach
b) Buccal cavity
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine
Answer: d
Clarification: Most of the water is absorbed in the large intestine. The undigested food becomes semi-solid and then enters into the rectum, anal canal, and is finally egested out through the anus.

11. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B₁₂
c) Vitamin B₃
d) Vitamin C
Answer: c
Clarification: Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin B₃ which is also known as Niacin or Nicotinamide. Pellagra is characterized by dementia, dermatitis and diarrhoea.

12. Which of the following is not a source of vitamin C?
a) Amla
b) Gooseberry
c) Orange
d) Carrot
Answer: d
Clarification: Citrus fruits are the source of vitamin C. It is also known as ascorbic acid and antiviral vitamin. Vitamin C is the most readily excreted vitamin through urine. It also acts as an antioxidant.

13. Which of the following vitamins is also known as poor man’s vitamin?
a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin B
Answer: b
Clarification: Vitamin D is also known as a poor man’s vitamin or sunshine vitamin. Vitamin D is good for maintaining healthy bones as vitamin D acts as a hormone and helps in the absorption of Calcium from the intestine.

14. Which of the following vitamin cannot show hypervitaminosis?
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
Answer: a
Clarification: Hypervitaminosis is the tendency of the vitamin to accumulate in the body. This property is shown by the water-insoluble or fat-soluble vitamins which include vitamin A, D, E and K.

15. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by folic acid deficiency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Folic acid and vitamin B₁₂ deficiency cause megaloblastic anaemia where RBCs become larger than normal. Also RBCs are not produced in enough quantity.

To practice Biology MCQs for AIIMS Exam,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Disorders in Circulatory System”.

1. What is the diastolic blood pressure?
a) 120 mm Hg
b) 140 mm Hg
c) 90 mm Hg
d) 80 mm Hg
Answer: d
Clarification: The normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury pressure). The systolic pressure or pumping pressure is 120 mm Hg while the diastolic pressure or resting pressure is 80 mm Hg.

2. What is the minimum blood pressure for hypertension?
a) 170/90 mm Hg
b) 130/70 mm Hg
c) 140/90 mm Hg
d) 120/80 mm Hg
Answer: c
Clarification: The normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury pressure). Hypertension is also known as high blood pressure as the systolic and diastolic pressures increase to 140/90 mm Hg.

3. What is CAD also known as?
a) Hypertension
b) Arteriosclerosis
c) Atherosclerosis
d) Angina
Answer: c
Clarification: CAD or Coronary Artery Disease is also known as atherosclerosis. It occurs in the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscles. It leads to the narrowing of the arteria lumens.

4. Which of these diseases make the lumen of arteries narrower?
a) Atherosclerosis
b) Hypertension
c) Angina
d) Heart failure
Answer: a
Clarification: Atherosclerosis or Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) leads to the narrowing of the lumen of arteries. This occurs due to the deposition of cholesterol, fibrous tissue and calcium in the coronary arteries.

5. Which of these are not deposited in the lumen of coronary arteries in CAD?
a) Calcium
b) Phosphorus
c) Fats
d) Fibrous tissue
Answer: b
Clarification: In CAD (Coronary Artery Disease), the lumens of the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscles, becomes narrow. This happens due to the deposition of cholesterol, fibrous tissue and calcium.

6. What is acute chest pain known as?
a) Atherosclerosis
b) Hypertension
c) Angina pectoris
d) Heart failure
Answer: c
Clarification: Acute chest pain is also known as angina or angina pectoris. It occurs when an adequate amount of oxygen does not reach the heart. Hence, the heart muscles cannot function properly and this causes chest pain.

7. What causes angina pectoris?
a) Lack of oxygen in heart muscles
b) Increase in blood pressure
c) Deposition of phosphorus in blood vessels
d) Irregular heartbeat
Answer: a
Clarification: Angina pectoris or acute chest pain is a heart disease that occurs when an adequate amount of oxygen does not reach the heart muscles. It is caused due to factors which affect proper blood flow.

8. Which of these is a main symptom of congestive heart failure?
a) Heart stops beating
b) Increase in blood pressure
c) Acute chest pain
d) Congestion of the lungs
Answer: d
Clarification: Congestive heart failure is a heart disease which is characterized by the heart not being able to pump blood adequately enough to meet the requirements of the body. Congestion of the lungs is a main symptom of this disease.

9. Which of these is not a heart disease?
a) Hypertension
b) Angina pectoris
c) Celiac disease
d) Atherosclerosis
Answer: c
Clarification: Hypertension or high blood pressure, angina pectoris or acute chest pain and atherosclerosis or Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) are examples od heart disease. Celiac disease is a disease of the digestive system.

10. Hypertension can cause kidney damage. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Hypertension or high blood pressure is when the blood pressure recorded is 140/90 mm Hg and above. It can affect vital organs such as the brain and kidney. Hence, hypertension can cause kidney damage.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Locomotion & Movement – Joints”.

1. Which of these is not a function of joints?
a) Articulations
b) Allows bone growth
c) Enables mobility
d) Supports body
Answer: d
Clarification: Joints are found between bones. Their functions include articulations of bones to each, permitting bones to grow, and enabling movement and locomotion. Joints do not support the body like bones do.

2. Which of these are the point of contact between bones and cartilage?
a) Tendons
b) Ligaments
c) Joints
d) Fascia
Answer: c
Clarification: Joints are found between bones and between bones and cartilages. Hence, they are the points of contact bones and cartilage. Ligaments attach bone to bone while tendons attach bone to muscle.

3. What do joints act as during movement?
a) Effort
b) Lever
c) Fulcrum
d) Load
Answer: c
Clarification: Movement is generated initially by muscles. Muscles receive an impulse from the nervous system and contract. This force generated carries out movement through joints, which act as fulcrums.

4. Which of these is not a classification of joints?
a) Connective
b) Fibrous
c) Cartilaginous
d) Synovial
Answer: a
Clarification: The points of connection of bones to each other and to cartilages are called joints. They are of three types, namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints and synovial joints. Connective is a classification of tissue.

5. Which of these joints do not show any movement?
a) Fibrous
b) Synovial
c) Pivot
d) Cartilaginous
Answer: b
Clarification: Joints are classified into three types, namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints and synovial joints. Fibrous joints do not show any movement due to the presence of dense fibrous connective tissues.

6. Which of these show no movement?
a) Joint between atlas and axis
b) Knee joint
c) Skull bones
d) Joints between carpals
Answer: c
Clarification: The joints of the skull bones show no movement. They are fibrous joints. The knee joint is a hinge joint. The joint between atlas and axis is a pivot joint and the joints between the carpals are gliding joints.

7. Which of these join the skull bones to each other to form the cranium?
a) Dense fibrous connective tissues
b) Loose fibrous connective tissues
c) Specialized connective tissue
d) Dense irregular connective tissue
Answer: a
Clarification: The joints of the skull bones are fibrous joint. They show no movement. The skull bones are fused end-to-end with each other with the help of dense fibrous connective tissues to form the cranium.

8. What is the immovable junction between two bones known as?
a) Socket
b) Saddle
c) Hinge
d) Suture
Answer: d
Clarification: The immovable junction between two bones is known as a suture and occurs due to the presence of fibrous joints. Fibrous joints do not allow any movement of the bones, such as in the skull bones.

9. What type of joint is present between adjacent vertebrae?
a) Pivot joint
b) Fibrous joint
c) Cartilaginous joint
d) Gliding joint
Answer: c
Clarification: Cartilaginous joint is present between adjacent vertebrae. These joints are characterized by the presence of cartilage. Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement of the body part.

10. In synovial joints, bones are joined together with the help of cartilages. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Joints are of three types, which are namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints and synovial joints. Bones are joined to each other with the help of cartilages at cartilaginous joints.

11. Which of these joints permit limited movement?
a) Hinge joints
b) Ball and socket joints
c) Fibrous joints
d) Cartilaginous joints
Answer: d
Clarification: Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement, such as the cartilaginous joints present between adjacent vertebrae of the vertebral column. Fibrous joints do not allow any movement, such as in the skull bones.

12. Which of these is an example of hinge joint?
a) Between the carpals
b) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
c) Knee joint
d) Between atlas and axis
Answer: c
Clarification: An example of hinge joint is the knee joint. It is a type of synovial joint. Hinge joints are also present at the ankles, interphalangeal joints and elbows. It allows movement along only one axis.

13. Which of these is an example of saddle joint?
a) Between the carpals
b) Knee joint
c) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
d) Between atlas and axis
Answer: c
Clarification: Saddle joint is present between the carpal and metacarpal of thumb. It is a classification of synovial joint. Among the two bones involved in the formation of such a joint, one is shaped like the saddle of a horse.

14. Which of these is an example of pivot joint?
a) Between atlas and axis
b) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
c) Knee joint
d) Between the carpals
Answer: a
Clarification: Pivot joint is a classification of synovial joint. It is present between the atlas and axis, which are the first vertebra and the second vertebra, respectively, of the vertebral column. It is also called rotary joint.

15. Which of these is an example of gliding joint?
a) Knee joint
b) Between the carpals
c) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
d) Between atlas and axis
Answer: b
Clarification: An example of hinge joint is the knee joint. Saddle joint is present between the carpal and metacarpal of thumb. Pivot joint is present between atlas and axis. Gliding joint is present between the carpals.