Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plant Kingdom – Angiosperms”.

1. Which of the following is incorrect about haplontic life cycle?
a) Gametophytes are the dominant phase in this life cycle
b) Sporophytes are free-living
c) Spores are haploid in nature and form gametophyte by mitotic division
d) Zygote acts as sporophyte
Answer: b
Clarification: Gametophytes are the dominant phase in this life cycle. Sporophytes don’t have free living existence. Spores are haploid in nature and form gametophyte by mitotic division. Zygote acts as Sporophyte that forms spores.

2. Which among the following life cycle suits Chlamydomanas?
a) Haplontic
b) Diplontic
c) Triplontic
d) Haplo-diplontic
Answer: a
Clarification: Chlamydomanas exhibits haplontic life cycle i.e. gametophyte are the dominant phase in this life cycle. In this life cycle, there is no independent existence for Sporophyte. Spores produced are haploid and divide mitotically to form Gametophyte.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about diplontic life cycle?
a) Sporophyte is the dominant phase
b) All spermatophytes exhibit diplontic life cycle
c) Gametophyte depends on the sporophyte
d) Sporophyte depends on Gametophyte for their food
Answer: c
Clarification: Sporophyte is the dominant phase. All spermatophytes exhibit diplontic life cycle. Gametophyte depends on the Sporophyte. Sporophyte has independent existence and can perform photosynthesis and hence can prepare their own food.

4. Which among the following life cycle is exhibited by a rose plant?
a) Haplontic
b) Diplontic
c) Triplontic
d) Haplo-diplontic
Answer: b
Clarification: Rose plant belongs to the category of Angiosperms. All angiosperms and gymnosperms exhibit diplontic life cycle i.e. Sporophyte is the dominant phase and has independent existence.

5. Gametophytes in plants that exhibit diplontic life cycle may be heterotrophic, autotrophic or saprophytic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Gametophytes in plants that exhibit diplontic life cycle may be heterotrophic, autotrophic or saprophytic. For example: in angiosperms, few flowers can perform photosynthesis while few others are carnivorous like drosera and nepenthes and few others are saprophytic like Broomrape.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about Haplo-diplontic life cycle?
a) In this life cycle, both sporophytic phase and gametophytic phase have equal life time
b) Both sporophytic and gametophytic phases are multi-cellular and have independent existence
c) This kind of life cycle is exhibited by Pteridophytes and Bryophyte
d) Ectocarpus exhibits haplo-diplontic life cycle
Answer: d
Clarification: In this life cycle both the sporophytic and gametophytic phase are multi-cellular and have independent existence. In this life cycle, the dominant phases differ. This kind of life cycle is exhibited by Pteridophytes and Bryophytes. Ectocarpus exhibits haplo-diplontic life cycle.

7. Haploid cells undergo mitosis and diploid cells undergo meiosis to form plant body
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Both haploid and diploid cells undergo mitosis to form plant bodies. This results in the formation of either haploid or diploid plant bodies. The haploid plant body is gametophyte and the diploid one is a Sporophyte.

8. Which among the following life cycle is exhibited by Fucus?
a) Diplontic
b) Haplontic
c) Triplolntic
d) Haplo-diplontic
Answer: a
Clarification: Generally, most of the algae are haplontic whereas few others are diplontic. Fucus is one such alagae that exhibits diplontic behavior i.e. Sporophyte is the dominant phase in case of fucus.

9. Which among the following life cycle is exhibited by Polysiphonia?
a) Diplontic
b) Haplontic
c) Triplolntic
d) Haplo-diplontic
Answer: b
Clarification: Most of the algae are haplontic whereas few others are diplontic. Polysiphonia and Ectocarpus and kelps are few such algae that exhibit haplontic life cycle i.e. Gametophyte acts as the dominant phase in case of Polysiphonia.

10. Which among the following is incorrect?
a) In bryophytes, haploid gametophyte is the dominant phase
b) In Volvox, haploid gametophyte is the dominant phase
c) In Spirogyra, diploid Sporophyte is the dominant phase
d) In Pappaya, haploid gametophyte is the dominant phase
Answer: c
Clarification: Haploid gametophyte is the dominant phase in bryophytes and in volvox. Also, in Spirogyra, the diploid Sporophyte is the dominant phase. In Pappaya, haploid gametophyte is the dominant phase.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Flowering Plants Morphology – Fruit and the Seed-1”.

1. After fertilization, ovary ripens to a fruit and ovules turn into the seed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: After fertilization, ovary ripens to a fruit and ovules turn into the seed. Sometimes it’s even possible that fruits don’t contain seeds because they get ripened even before the fertilization takes place.

2. Which among the following is incorrect about structure of the fruit?
a) Wall of the fruit is called as “Pericarp”
b) The outer –most layer of epidermal cells is called epicarp
c) The inner most layer is called endo-carp
d) The edible part in apple is the mesocarp
Answer: d
Clarification: Wall of the fruit is called as “Pericarp”. The outer–most layer of epidermal cells is called epicarp and the inner most layer is called endo-carp. The edible part in an apple is the swollen thalamus.

3. The edible part of a coconut is the ______
a) Exocarp
b) Endocarp
c) Endosperm
d) Epicarp
Answer: c
Clarification: The edible part of a coconut is the endosperm. Edible part varies in every fruit. In pear and apple, the edible part is the swollen thalamus. And in a banana it’s the ovary of the flower that forms the fruit.

4. Which among the following is not correct about simple dry fruits?
a) In simple dry fruits, the entire pericarp is dry and hard when it reaches maturity
b) In this type of fruits, a single ripened ovary with one or many seeds
c) In drupe, only mesocarp is fleshy and edible
d) Cherries are an example of berry
Answer: d
Clarification: In simple dry fruits, the entire pericarp is dry and hard when it reaches maturity. In this type of fruits, a single ripened ovary with one or many seeds. In drupe, only mesocarp is fleshy and edible. Cherries are an example of drupe.

5. Several ripened ovaries produced by same flower on same thalamus form aggregate fruits and each ovary forms a fruitlet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Several ripened ovaries produced by same flower on same thalamus form aggregate fruits and each ovary forms a fruitlet. Raspberries and strawberries can be considered as examples of aggregate fruits.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about classification of fruits based on their structure?
a) Multiple ovaries of multiple flowers form multiple fruits
b) Fruitlets of multiple and aggregate fruits can be either fleshy or dry
c) Water melon is an example of multiple fruit
d) Pericarp in simple fleshy fruits is mostly fleshy
Answer: c
Clarification: Multiple ovaries of multiple flowers form multiple fruits. Fruitlets of multiple and aggregate fruits can be either fleshy or dry. Water melon is an example of multiple fruit. Pericarp in simple fleshy fruits is mostly fleshy.

7. Which among the following statements is incorrect about classification of fruits based on the origin of the fruit?
a) Based on the origin of the fruit, fruits are classified into true fruits and false fruits
b) True fruits are those that develop from ovary of a flower
c) False fruits are those that develops from ovary and other parts
d) False fruits are also called as superior fruit
Answer: d
Clarification: Based on the origin of the fruit, fruits are classified into true fruits and false fruits. True fruits are those that develop from ovary of a flower. False fruits are those that develops from ovary and other parts. False fruits are also called as inferior fruit.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about fruits?
a) Seedless fruits are formed if fertilization fails to takes place
b) In pineapple, ovary is the edible part
c) In pear, both ovary and thalamus are edible
d) In coconut, endocarp is the edible part
Answer: d
Clarification: Seedless fruits are formed if fertilization fails to takes place. In pineapple, ovary is the edible part and in pear both ovary and thalamus are edible. In a coconut endosperm is the edible part.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about seed?
a) A seed mainly contains a seed coat and an embryo
b) Embryo contains cotyledons, radicle and plumule
c) Embryo also contains endosperm that reserves nutrition for the embryo
d) Radicle grows into the shoot and the plumule forms the root system
Answer: d
Clarification: A seed mainly contains a seed coat and an embryo. Embryo contains cotyledons, radicle and plumule. Embryo also contains endosperm that reserves nutrition for the embryo. Plumule grows into the shoot and the radicle forms the root system.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about seeds based on the presence of the endosperm?
a) Endosperm is usually absorbed and digested by the developing embryo
b) Seeds that lack endosperm at maturity are called non-endospermic seeds
c) Seeds that contain endosperm are called endospermic seeds
d) In endospermic seeds, embryo gets absorbed and digested even before the seed gets detached from the plant
Answer: d
Clarification: Endosperm is usually absorbed and digested by the developing embryo. Seeds that lack endosperm at maturity are called non-endospermic seeds. Seeds that contain endosperm are called endospermic seeds. In non-endospermic seeds, embryo gets absorbed and digested even before the seed gets detached from the plant.

Zoology Interview Questions and Answers on “Animals Structural Organisations – Earthworm – 2”.

1. The body wall of the earthworm is externally covered by ______
a) mucous
b) capsule
c) epidermis
d) cuticle
Answer: d
Clarification: The body wall of the earthworm is externally covered by the cuticle. It is thin and non-cellular. The epidermis lies below the cuticle. It also contains two layers of muscles and an inner coelomic epithelium.

2. The epidermis of earthworm is made of ______
a) squamous epithelial cells
b) cuboidal epithelial cells
c) columnar epithelial cells
d) multi-layered squamous epithelial cells
Answer: c
Clarification: The epidermis is made of columnar epithelial cells. They are present in a single layer. The epidermis lies below the cuticle. There are two layers of muscles present below the epidermis. Human skin is made of squamous epithelium.

3. The buccal cavity of the earthworm leads to the _____
a) gizzard
b) esophagus
c) pharynx
d) anus
Answer: c
Clarification: The buccal cavity is present from the 1^st to 3^rd segment. It is the mouth part of the body of the earthworm. The buccal cavity opens up into the pharynx. The pharynx is made of muscular tissue.

4. Identify the correct pathway of food ingested by an earthworm.
a) Mouth→Pharynx→Esophagus→Gizzard
b) Mouth→Esophagus→Pharynx→Gizzard
c) Mouth→Esophagus→Gizzard→Pharynx
d) Mouth→Pharynx→Gizzard→Esophagus
Answer: a
Clarification: Food is ingested by the earthworm through the mouth. The mouth part opens up into the muscular pharynx. This is followed by a narrow esophagus followed by the gizzard where food is broken down by the process of grinding.

5. What is the function of gizzard in earthworm?
a) Secretion of digestive enzymes
b) Grinding soil particles and leaves
c) Absorption of water
d) It is a respiratory structure
Answer: b
Clarification: The gizzard has the principal role of grinding soil particles and decaying leaves. It does not secrete digestive enzymes nor does it play a role in water absorption. It is not a respiratory structure and only helps in the mechanical breakdown of food.

6. Where are the calciferous glands of the earthworm present?
a) Esophagus
b) Gizzard
c) Stomach
d) Intestine
Answer: c
Clarification: The calciferous glands of the earthworm are present in the stomach. The food of the earthworm contains soil particles and humus. The calciferous glands neutralize the humic acid which is present in the humus.

7. Which segments of the earthworm contain the stomach?
a) 9^th to 14^th
b) 23^rd to 25^th
c) 16^th to 18^th
d) 5^th to 8^th
Answer: a
Clarification: The stomach of the earthworm extends from the 9^th to 14^th segments. It is present after the gizzard, where the ingested food is mechanically grinded before being passed through to the stomach.

8. Which segment of the earthworm contains the intestinal caecum?
a) 25^th
b) 23^rd
c) 24^th
d) 26^th
Answer: d
Clarification: The 26^th segment of the body of the earthworm contains intestinal caeca. It projects out from the wall of the intestine. The intestine of the earthworm starts at the 15^th segment and continues till the last segment.

9. What is the function of typhlosole in earthworm?
a) Mechanical breakdown of food
b) Secretes digestive enzymes
c) Increases the surface area for absorption
d) Excretes waste products
Answer: c
Clarification: Typhlosole is present in the intestine after the 26^th segment. It arises from the median fold of the dorsal wall. It increases the surface area of absorption of nutrients from the digested food material.

10. Open blood vascular system is present in Pheretima.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Pheretima has a closed blood vascular system. This implies that its blood is confined to the components of the vascular system only. The components of this vascular system are heart, blood vessels and capillaries. In closed type of vascular system, the circulating blood travels in one direction only.

11. Which segments of the earthworm contain the blood glands?
a) 9^th to 12^th
b) 16^th to 18^th
c) 23^rd to 25^th
d) 4^th to 6^th
Answer: d
Clarification: The 4^th, 5^th and 6^th segments of the body of the earthworm contain the blood glands. The function of these glands is to produce blood cells and hemoglobin. These components of blood are dissolved in the blood plasma.

12. Respiratory exchange in earthworms takes place through ______
a) gills
b) mouth
c) body surface
d) lungs
Answer: c
Clarification: Respiratory exchange in earthworms takes place via the body surface. Since earthworm is an annelid, it lacks gills and lungs. The mouth of the earthworm is responsible for uptake of food only.

13. What is the excretory organ in earthworm known as?
a) Gizzard
b) Typhlosole
c) Nephridium
d) Setae
Answer: c
Clarification: Nephridium is the excretory organ in earthworm. Nephridia occur as coiled tubules arranged segmentally. Typhlosole and gizzard are involved in digestion of food while setae help in locomotion.

14. Which of the following is not a type of nephridia present in earthworm?
a) Intestinal
b) Septal
c) Integumentary
d) Pharyngeal
Answer: a
Clarification: The nephridia in earthworm are of three types – septal nephridia, integumentary nephridia and pharyngeal nephridia. All three types are similar in structure. Intestinal nephridia is not present.

15. Which of the following is not true about nephridia in earthworm?
a) They are excretory organs
b) They do not regulate the composition of body fluids
c) They are of three types
d) They regulate the volume of body fluids
Answer: b
Clarification: Nephridia regulate both the volume as well as the composition of body fluids. They are the excretory organs of the earthworm. They are of three types – septal, integumentary and pharyngeal.

To practice Zoology Interview Questions and Answers,

Biology Problems for Class 11 on “Eukaryotic Cells and it’s Organelles – 4”.

1. Which of these organelles possess a single circular DNA molecule?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) Peroxisome
c) Lysosome
d) Mitochondria
Answer: d
Clarification: Apart from the genomic DNA present inside the nucleus, the mitochondria possesses its own genetic material in the form of a single circular DNA molecule. This DNA codes for some mitochondrial proteins.

2. Where is 70S ribosome found in the animal cell?
a) Inside the nucleus
b) Surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) Inside mitochondria
d) In the cytoplasm
Answer: c
Clarification: Apart from the genomic DNA present inside the nucleus, the mitochondria possesses its own genetic material in the form of a single circular DNA molecule. It also possesses 70S (prokaryotic) ribosomes.

3. Which of these plastids store proteins?
a) Amyloplasts
b) Elaioplasts
c) Aleuroplasts
d) Chromoplasts
Answer: c
Clarification: Chromoplasts impart colours to the different cells of a plant such as yellow colour of a flower or a fruit. Elaioplasts store oils and fats, amyloplasts store starch and aleuroplasts store proteins.

4. How many chloroplasts are present in each cell of Chlamydomonas?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Clarification: Chloroplasts are plastids containing the green pigment chlorophyll, which is necessary to trap sunlight to carry out the process of photosynthesis. Chlamydomonas has only one chloroplast per cell.

5. Identify the part of the chloroplast.

a) Inner membrane
b) Thylakoid
c) Stroma
d) Lamella
Answer: b
Clarification: Chloroplasts are plastids which contain the green pigment chlorophyll. The structure of the chloroplast shown in the diagram is the thylakoid, which is present on the stroma, stacked on top of each other.

6. Which structure of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates?
a) Lamellae
b) Grana
c) Stroma
d) Inner membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: Chloroplasts are plastids which contain the green pigment chlorophyll. The stroma is the ground substance of the chloroplast. It contains enzymes which are required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.

7. Which of these statements is not true about ribosomes?
a) They are bound by a single membrane
b) They are composed of RNA and proteins
c) They were first observed by George Palade
d) The small subunit of the prokaryotic ribosome is 30S
Answer: a
Clarification: Ribosomes are not bound by a membrane. They are made of RNA and proteins. Ribosomes were first observed by George Palade. The small subunit of the prokaryotic ribosome is 30S.

8. The eukaryotic ribosome is 80S. what does this ‘S’ denote?
a) Supernatant coefficient
b) Segregation coefficient
c) Solidification coefficient
d) Sedimentation coefficient
Answer: d
Clarification: The ‘S’ in 80S ribosome, or Svedberg’s Unit, stands for sedimentation coefficient. The sedimentation coefficient (S) of a particle characterizes the rate of sedimentation during centrifugation.

9. Which of these is not a part of the cytoskeleton?
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Axoneme
d) Intermediate filaments
Answer: c
Clarification: The cytoskeleton is comprised of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments. It is a network of these filamentous proteins. Axoneme is present in flagella and cilia.

10. Cytoskeleton does not provide motility. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The cytoskeleton is comprised of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments. It is a network of these filamentous proteins. The cytoskeleton provides mechanical support and motility.

11. The flagellar core is known as the _____
a) filament
b) hook
c) basal body
d) axoneme
Answer: d
Clarification: which are responsible for the movement of cells. The flagellar core is called the axoneme which has microtubules running parallel to the long axis.

12. How many microtubules does the axoneme contain?
a) 6 + 5
b) 8 + 3
c) 9 + 2
d) 7 + 4
Answer: c
Clarification: Flagella are thin long hair – like growths of the cell membrane. The flagellar core is called the axoneme which has microtubules running parallel to the long axis. It contains 9 + 2 axonemal microtubules.

13. What is the shape of a centriole?
a) Irregular
b) Spherical
c) Cylindrical
d) Cuboidal
Answer: c
Clarification: Centrosome is a cell organelle containing two structures cylindrical in shape, called centrioles. Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other. The centrioles are composed of tubulin protein.

14. Which protein is the centriole made of?
a) Tubulin
b) Actin
c) Myosin
d) Keratin
Answer: a
Clarification: Centrosome is a cell organelle containing two structures cylindrical in shape, called centrioles. Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other. The centrioles are composed of tubulin protein.

15. What forms the basal body of flagella?
a) Axoneme
b) Centrioles
c) Keratin
d) Calcium carbonate
Answer: b
Clarification: Centrosome is a cell organelle containing two structures cylindrical in shape, called centrioles. Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other. They also form the basal body of cilia and flagella.

To practice Biology Problems for Class 11,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biomolecules – Structure of Proteins-1”.

1. Proteins are heteropolymers of ______
a) lipids
b) monosaccharides
c) peptides
d) amino acids
Answer: d
Clarification: Proteins are heteropolymers made of amino acid monomers. There are 21 amino acids. Various numbers and combinations of amino acids in a sequence or chain forms different types of proteins.

2. Structure of molecules in inorganic chemistry refers to the ______
a) three-dimensional structure
b) two-dimensional structure
c) molecular formula
d) primary structure
Answer: c
Clarification: Structure of molecules in inorganic chemistry refers to the molecular formula of the compound. In organic chemistry it refers to the two-dimensional structure while in physics it refers to the three-dimensional structure.

3. Structure of molecules in physics refers to the ______
a) primary structure
b) two-dimensional structure
c) three-dimensional structure
d) molecular formula
Answer: c
Clarification: In physics, the structure of molecules refers to the three-dimensional structure of the molecule. In inorganic chemistry it refers to the molecular formula of the compound. In organic chemistry it refers to the two-dimensional structure.

4. How many levels of organization do proteins have?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
Answer: a
Clarification: There are four levels of structural organization of proteins. These are the primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and the quaternary structure. The level affects the function of the protein.

5. What is the configuration of proteins in the primary structure?
a) Helix
b) Line
c) Sheet
d) Globule
Answer: b
Clarification: In the primary structure of proteins, the proteins are imagined to be arranged in a linear fashion such as a line. Helix and sheets are the configuration of proteins for the secondary structure.

6. What makes up the primary structure of proteins?
a) Peptides
b) Peptones
c) Amino acids
d) Polypeptides
Answer: c
Clarification: The primary structure of amino acids is made of monomers of amino acids. The amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the adjacent one.

7. What is the left end of the primary structure of proteins represented by?
a) First amino acid
b) Last amino acid
c) Cofactor
d) Methyl group
Answer: a
Clarification: The primary structure of amino acids is made of monomers of amino acids. Hence, cofactors are absent. The left end of the primary or linear structure of proteins is represented by the first amino acid.

8. What is the right end of the primary structure of proteins represented by?
a) Methyl group
b) Cofactor
c) First amino acid
d) Last amino acid
Answer: d
Clarification: The primary structure of amino acids is made of monomers of amino acids. Hence, cofactors are absent. The right end of the primary or linear structure of proteins is represented by the last amino acid.

9. What is the first amino acid of the primary structure known as?
a) A-terminal amino acid
b) C-terminal amino acid
c) N-terminal amino acid
d) L-terminal amino acid
Answer: c
Clarification: The left end of the primary or linear structure of proteins is represented by the first amino acid. The left end of the first amino acid contains the amino group and is hence called the N-terminal.

10. A protein thread exists as an extended rigid rod. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is false as a protein thread cannot exist as an extended rigid rod conformation. It undergoes folding in the form of helices or sheets with the help of various interactions. This represents the secondary structure.

11. What is the last amino acid of the primary structure known as?
a) N-terminal amino acid
b) L-terminal amino acid
c) S-terminal amino acid
d) C-terminal amino acid
Answer: d
Clarification: The right end of the primary or linear structure of proteins is represented by the last amino acid. The right end of the first amino acid contains the carboxyl group and is hence called the C-terminal.

12. Identify the labeled portion of the peptide.

a) N-terminal amino acid
b) C-terminal amino acid
c) L-terminal amino acid
d) S-terminal amino acid
Answer: a
Clarification: The diagram represents a primary structure or linear structure. The amino acid on the left represents the first amino acid. The left end of the first amino acid contains the amino group and is hence called the N-terminal.

13. Identify the labeled portion of the peptide.

a) I-terminal amino acid
b) N-terminal amino acid
c) C-terminal amino acid
d) L-terminal amino acid
Answer: c
Clarification: The diagram represents a primary structure or linear structure. The amino acid on the right represents the last amino acid. The right end of the last amino acid contains the carboxyl group and is hence called the C-terminal.

14. Which of these bonds is present in the primary structure of protein?
a) Peptide bond
b) Glycosidic bond
c) Hydrogen bond
d) Disulfide bonds
Answer: a
Clarification: The primary structure of amino acids is made of monomers of amino acids. The amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the adjacent one.

15. Which of these is a type of secondary structure of proteins?
a) Line
b) Sheet
c) Globule
d) Spherical
Answer: b
Clarification: The secondary structure of proteins is formed by the folding of the primary or linear structure. The linear chain of amino acids may be folded into a helix or a sheet. These are the secondary structures.