Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Disorders in Muscular and Skeletal System and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Disorders in Muscular and Skeletal System”.

1. Which of these is an autoimmune disorder?
a) Arthritis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Gout
d) Myasthenia gravis
Answer: d
Clarification: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects neuromuscular junctions. It leads to various degrees of weakness in skeletal muscles. The onset of myasthenia gravis can be sudden.

2. Which of these is disorder of the muscular system?
a) Crohn’s Disease
b) Celiac Disease
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Gastroenteritis
Answer: c
Clarification: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder of the muscular system which affects neuromuscular junctions. Crohn’s Disease, Celiac Disease and gastroenteritis are disorders of the digestive system.

3. Which of these disorders affect the neuromuscular junction?
a) Arthritis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Gout
Answer: c
Clarification: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects neuromuscular junctions. It leads to various degrees of weakness in skeletal muscles. The onset of myasthenia gravis can be sudden.

4. Which of these is not a symptom of myasthenia gravis?
a) Rapid spasms
b) Fatigue
c) Muscle weakness
d) Paralysis of skeletal muscles
Answer: a
Clarification: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects neuromuscular junctions. It leads to fatigue, muscle weakness and paralysis of skeletal muscles. Rapid spasms are a result of tetany.

5. Which of these statements is false regarding myasthenia gravis?
a) It affects neuromuscular junctions
b) It is a genetic disease
c) It results in fatigue
d) It leads to paralysis of skeletal muscles
Answer: b
Clarification: Myasthenia gravis is not a genetic disease. Rather, it is an autoimmune disorder which affects neuromuscular junctions. It leads to fatigue, muscle weakness and paralysis of skeletal muscles.

6. Which of these is a genetic disorder?
a) Gout
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Tetany
Answer: c
Clarification: Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder of the muscular system. It leads to the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles and loss of muscle mass. The life span of patients is often shortened.

7. Which of these disorders lead to degeneration of skeletal muscles?
a) Muscular dystrophy
b) Gout
c) Tetany
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: a
Clarification: Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder of the muscular system. It leads to the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles and loss of muscle mass. The life span of patients is often shortened.

8. Which of these disorders lead to rapid spasms?
a) Gout
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Tetany
Answer: d
Clarification: Tetany is a disorder of the muscular system characterized by rapid spasms or wild contractions. It occurs due to low concentrations of calcium ions in body fluids. Calcium ions play an important role in muscle contraction.

9. Which of these disorders is caused due to low concentrations of calcium ions?
a) Muscular dystrophy
b) Gout
c) Tetany
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: c
Clarification: Muscular dystrophy, gout, tetany and osteoporosis are disorders of the muscular system and the skeletal system. Out of these, tetany is caused due to low concentrations of calcium ions.

10. Decreased levels of oestrogen causes osteoporosis. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Osteoporosis is a disorder of the skeletal system. It leads to a reduction in bone mass and increases the chances of the patient getting fractures. Reduced oestrogen level is a common cause.

11. What is the effect of arthritis?
a) Paralysis
b) Rapid spasms
c) Reduced bone mass
d) Inflammation of joints
Answer: d
Clarification: Arthritis is a disorder of the muscular system and the skeletal system. It leads to the inflammation of joints. This results in pain, swelling, reduced range of motion, muscle weakness and stiffness.

12. Which of these is an age-related disorder?
a) Tetany
b) Gout
c) Osteoporosis
d) Muscular dystrophy
Answer: c
Clarification: Osteoporosis is a disorder of the skeletal system. It leads to a reduction in bone mass and increases the chances of the patient getting fractures. Reduced oestrogen level is a common cause.

13. Which disease increases the chance of fractures?
a) Tetany
b) Gout
c) Osteoporosis
d) Crohn’s Disease
Answer: c
Clarification: Osteoporosis leads to a reduction in bone mass and increases the chances of the patient getting fractures. It is an age-related skeletal disorder. Crohn’s Disease is a digestive disorder.

14. Which of these disorders lead to the inflammation of joints?
a) Gout
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Tetany
Answer: a
Clarification: Gout is a disorder of the muscular system and the skeletal system. It leads to the inflammation of joints due to crystallization and deposition of uric acid crystals. It is a form of arthritis.

15. Which disease is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints?
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Gout
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Tetany
Answer: b
Clarification: Gout is a disorder of the muscular system and the skeletal system. It leads to the inflammation of joints due to crystallization and deposition of uric acid crystals. It is a form of arthritis.

250+ TOP MCQs on Chemical Control and Coordination – Hormones of Heart, Kidney and Gastrointestinal and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Chemical Control and Coordination – Hormones of Heart, Kidney and Gastrointestinal”.

1. Which of these structures of heart secrete hormones?
a) Bundle of His
b) Ventricle
c) SA node
d) Atrium
Answer: d
Clarification: The atria are the two upper chambers of the heart. The walls of the atria secrete a hormone known as atrial natriuretic factor or ANF. Its function is to reduce blood pressure to maintain homeostasis.

2. Which hormone is secreted by the heart?
a) MSH
b) CCK
c) ANF
d) PRL
Answer: c
Clarification: ANF or atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by the heart. It is secreted by the walls of the atria. PRL is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, MSH by the pars intermedia and CCK by the GI tract.

3. What is the effect of secretion of ANS?
a) Increases urination frequency
b) Constricts blood vessels
c) Dilates blood vessels
d) Decreases urination frequency
Answer: c
Clarification: ANS or atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by the walls of the atria of the heart. Its effect is to dilate the blood vessels. As a result, blood is provided more space to flow, and hence the blood pressure decreases.

4. Which of these hormones reduce blood pressure?
a) Atrial natriuretic factor
b) Adrenaline
c) Noradrenaline
d) Somatotropin
Answer: a
Clarification: Atrial natriuretic factor or ANF is secreted by the walls of the atria of the heart. Its effect is to dilate blood vessels and hence decrease blood pressure. Adrenaline and noradrenaline increase blood pressure.

5. Which hormone is produced in the kidney?
a) Angiotensinogen
b) Erythropoietin
c) Thrombopoietin
d) Somatostatin
Answer: b
Clarification: The kidney produces erythropoietin. It is produced by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. Angiotensinogen and thrombopoietin are produced by the liver. Somatostatin is secreted by the pancreas.

6. Which part of kidney produces erythropoietin?
a) PCT
b) DCT
c) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
d) Loop of Henle
Answer: c
Clarification: Juxtaglomerular cells of the nephrons of kidney are responsible for the production of the hormone erythropoietin. It is a peptide hormone that induces erythropoiesis or formation of erythrocytes.

7. Which of these hormones is not produced by the GI tract?
a) MSH
b) CCK
c) GIP
d) Secretin
Answer: a
Clarification: The GI tract or gastrointestinal tract contains endocrine tissue at different parts that secrete peptide hormones such as CCK or cholecystokinin, GIP or gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin and gastrin.

8. Pepsinogen secretion is stimulated by ______
a) GIP
b) CCK
c) secretin
d) gastrin
Answer: d
Clarification: Gastrin is a peptide hormone secreted by endocrine tissue located at various parts of the GI tract or gastrointestinal tract. It acts on gastric glands to stimulate the secretion of pepsinogen.

9. Hydrochloric acid secretion is stimulated by ______
a) GIP
b) CCK
c) gastrin
d) secretin
Answer: c
Clarification: Gastrin is a peptide hormone secreted by endocrine tissue located at various parts of the GI tract or gastrointestinal tract. It acts on the gastric glands to stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion.

10. CCK is a peptide hormone. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: CCK or cholecystokinin is produced by the endocrine tissue present in the gastrointestinal tract. It is a peptide hormone. It has a stimulating effect on pancreas and gall bladder.

11. Which of these hormones stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions?
a) MSH
b) CCK
c) Gastrin
d) Secretin
Answer: d
Clarification: Secretin is a peptide hormone secreted by the endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract. It stimulates the exocrine cells of the pancreas. As a result, water and bicarbonate ions are secreted.

12. Which of these hormones stimulates the secretion of bile?
a) MSH
b) GIP
c) CCK
d) PRL
Answer: c
Clarification: CCK or cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone secreted by the endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract or GI tract. It stimulates the gall bladder to secrete bile juice for the digestion of fats.

13. Secretin acts on _____
a) delta cells of pancreas
b) beta cells of pancreas
c) exocrine cells of pancreas
d) alpha cells of pancreas
Answer: c
Clarification: Secretin acts on the exocrine cells of pancreas. It stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions. Hence, secretin, a peptide hormone, helps to maintain the homeostasis of the body.

14. Which hormone reduces the secretion of the gastric hormones?
a) GIP
b) CCK
c) PRL
d) FSH
Answer: a
Clarification: GIP or gastric inhibitory peptide is a peptide hormone secreted by the endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract or the GI tract. It inhibits or reduces gastric secretion. It helps maintain homeostasis.

15. Which of these functions is reduced by GIP?
a) Spermatogenesis
b) GI motility
c) Oogenesis
d) Melanin production
Answer: b
Clarification: Motility of the GI tract or the gastrointestinal tract is reduced by GIP or gastric inhibitory peptide. It is a peptide hormone secreted by the endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract.

250+ TOP MCQs on Diversity in the Living World and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Diversity in the Living World – 1”.

1. What is the expansion of ICBN?
a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
b) International Code for Biological Naming
c) Indian Code for Biological Naming
d) International Council for Biodiversity and Nature
Answer: a
Clarification: ICBN stands for International Code for Botanical Nomenclature. ICBN deals with the nomenclature of the plants. International Code for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN) is responsible for the binomial; nomenclature of animals.

2. Which among the following is involved in the naming of the animals scientifically?
a) ICBN
b) ICAN
c) ICPN
d) ICZN
Answer: d
Clarification: Animals are named by the principles and criteria provided in International Code for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN). There is a separate set of rules for the naming of plants called International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN).

3. What do you think is the need of nomenclature?
a) Scientists can use this term in their seminars
b) To have a standard name for an organism instead of having many names in different languages
c) Nomenclature is something which is same for all organisms and people need not mention each organism with different names
d) Nomenclature looks fancier and more technical than regional names
Answer: b
Clarification: There are different languages and so different regional names for an organism. Therefore, scientists came up with the idea of binomial nomenclature. Binomial nomenclature is introduced to standardize the name of a living organism.

4. A binomial nomenclature consists of _______ and_________
a) Generic name and Phyla
b) Class and Phyla
c) Generic name and specific epithet
d) Phyla and Kingdom
Answer: c
Clarification: Generic name and specific epithet are the two parts of a binomial nomenclature. A generic name specifies the genus of an organism and the specific epithet describes the species to which it belongs to.

5. Binomial nomenclature is given by ____________
a) Carolous Linnaeus
b) Charles Darwin
c) Henry Cavendish
d) James Chadwick
Answer: a
Clarification: Carolous Linnaeus introduced the system of Binomial Nomenclature. Charles Darwin came up with the theory of evolution. Henry Cavendish is the one who discovered hydrogen. James Chadwick is the one who discovered neutron.

6. Azadirachta indica var. minor Valeton belongs to the genus ________
a) Azadirachta
b) Indica
c) Minor
d) Valeton
Answer: a
Clarification: In Azadirachta indica var. minor Valeton, Azadirachta describes the genus and Indica refers to the species. Valeton is the scientist who proposed this nomenclature to Neem tree.

7. The scientific name of lion is _________
a) Panthera Leo
b) Panthera Tigress
c) Panthera Lion
d) Panthera leo
Answer: d
Clarification: Biological names are Latinized and written in Italics. The generic epithet starts with capital letter while the second component specific epithet starts with small letter. Here the binomial nomenclature of Lion is Panthera leo but not Panthera Leo. Also, in Panthera Tigress the second component is written in capital letter which means that Panthera Tigress is not the answer. And in Panthera Lion the word Lion is not derived from Latin which reflects that Panthera Lion is also not the answer.

8. Magnifera Indica is the binomial nomenclature of mango.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Biological names are Latinized or derived from Latin and written in Italics. The genus starts with capital letter while the second component, the specific epithet, starts with small letter.

9. Which among the following statements are correct?
a) All the biological names have their origin in Latin
b) The first word in a biological name represents the species and the next represents genus
c) Canis lupus familaris is the binomial nomenclature of a dog
d) Panthera Tigress is the binomial nomenclature of a tiger
Answer: b
Clarification: Biological names need not have their origin in Latin but need to be Latinized or to be derived from Latin irrespective of the origin. Also in binomial nomenclature the generic epithet should start with a capital letter followed by the specific epithet starting with a small letter.

10. The word “Taxa” means ________
a) Phyla
b) Genus
c) Classification
d) Kingdom
Answer: c
Clarification: The word “Taxa” means classification. And the study of taxa is called as taxonomy. Taxonomy is the classification of animals into different taxa and helps us to study organisms easily.

11. Which of the following taxa are in their increasing order of their similarities?
a) Class, Phylum, Kingdom
b) Genus, Kingdom, Phylum
c) Kingdom, Genus, Specific epithet
d) Specific epithet, Phylum, Genus
Answer: c
Clarification: The increasing orders of similarities among various taxa are: KingdomSimilarities increase along the above order and differences decrease along the above order.

12. Magnifera indica and Azadirachta indica belongs to __________
a) Same genus
b) Same species
c) Same phylum
d) Same region
Answer: b
Clarification: Since the second component which refers to the genus is same in both the binomial nomenclatures. The word phylum is used particularly for animal kingdom.

13. Classification is the main concept behind taxonomy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Classification enables us to identify and study organisms easily. Study of classification is called taxonomy. Identification and classification of organisms is the basic concept behind taxonomy.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Plant Kingdom – Algae-1 and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plant Kingdom – Algae-1”.

1. Which of the following is not the basis for sub-classification in plants?
a) Well differentiable structure
b) Presence of seeds
c) Structure of branches
d) Seed coat
Answer: c
Clarification: Plants are sub-classified based on their well-differentiable structure, presence of vascular tissues, presence of seeds, seed coat i.e. if the seeds are naked or covered.

2. The word “Thallophyta” means ________
a) plants that don’t have well-differentiable structure
b) plants that have large leaves
c) plants that grow in colonies
d) plants that are filamentous
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants are classified as Thallophyta and others based on their well differentiable structure. Plants whose structure can’t be differentiated are put under the category of “Thallophyta”.

3. Which among the following is an incorrect statement?
a) Chlamydomanas is an example of unicellular algae
b) Chlamydomanas have flagella to promote their movement
c) Ulothrea is a unicellular autotrophic algal
d) Spirogyra attains its name because of spiral like arrangement of chloroplasts
Answer: c
Clarification: Ulothrea are multicellular autotrophic algae. Chlamydomanas is an example of unicellular algae. Chlamydomanas have flagella to promote their movement. Spirogyra attains its name because of spiral like arrangement of chloroplasts.

4. Which among the following are called as salad leaves?
a) Ulothrea
b) Ulva
c) Chladophora
d) Spirogyra
Answer: b
Clarification: Ulva is a multicellular algal that grows on moist rocks and walls. It is edible and is used as salad leaves. It is also called as sea lettuce. It has 2 layers of irregularly arranged cells.

5. Which among the following are incorrect about volvox?
a) Volvox grow in colonies
b) The structure that connects them are called cytoplasmic bridges
c) Daughter colonies of volvox grow inside the parent colony
d) They are immobile due to absence of flagellum
Answer: d
Clarification: Volvox grows in colonies. The structures that connect them are called cytoplasmic bridges. Daughter colonies of volvox grow inside the parent colony. They contain flagellum that facilitates their movement.

6. The inner cell wall in spirogyra is made up of ________
a) Pectin
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Lipids
Answer: b
Clarification: Spirogyra contains two cellular layers. The outer cellular layer is made of Pectin. The inner cellular in spirogyra is made up of Cellulose. This double cellular layered structure helps them to withstand osmotic pressure.

7. Which among the following is incorrect about Ulothrea?
a) Ulothrea is a multicellular filamentous algae
b) Ulothrea contains three different sets of cells i.e. apical, basal and lateral cells
c) Apical cells are rounded at one end whereas basal cells are elongated at one end
d) Every cell contains chlorophyll in them
Answer: d
Clarification: Ulothrea are multicellular filamentous algal. Ulothrea contains three different sets of cells i.e. apical, basal and lateral cells. Apical cells are rounded at one end whereas basal cells are elongated at one end. Every cell contains chlorophyll except basal cell contains chlorophyll in them.

8. Which among the following are incorrect about Chladophora?
a) Chladophora is a filamentous branched algal
b) Chladophora is also called river weed in some areas
c) It is edible and are used in salads
d) There are many different varieties of chladophora that are difficult to be classified
Answer: c
Clarification: Chladophora is a filamentous branched algal. Chladophora is also called river weed in some areas. It is edible. There are many different varieties of chladophora that are difficult to be classified. Ulva are also called as sea lettuce since they are used in salads.

9. Thallophyta follows cryptogamae.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Thallophyta follow cryptogamae. The word “crypto” means secret and “gamae” means reproduction i.e. Thallophyta reproduces in a hidden manner using spores without formation of seeds or flowers.

10. Plants other than that of Thallophyta are classified based on the presence or absence of vascular tissues as Bryophyta and others.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants other than that of Thallophyta are classified based on the presence or absence of vascular tissues as Bryophyta and others. Plants are further classified based on their presence of seed and their seed cover.

250+ TOP MCQs on Animal Kingdom – Chordata-2 and Answers

Zoology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on “Animal Kingdom – Chordata-2”.

1. Which among the following is incorrect about Pisces?
a) They have a streamlined body and a muscular tail that helps them in their movement
b) They are cold-blooded animals and can regulate the body temperature
c) Their heart is 2 chambered
d) Their skeleton is made of cartilage and bone
Answer: b
Clarification: Pisces have a streamlined body and a muscular tail that helps them in their movement. They are cold-blooded animals and can regulate the body temperature. Their heart is 2 chambered. Their skeleton is made of cartilage and bone.

2. Which among the following is an incorrect statement about circulatory system in Pisces?
a) Their circulatory system is of closed type
b) They have two-chambered heart i.e. they have an auricle and a ventricle
c) They have a single circulatory system with gills i.e. oxygenated blood is pumped to body parts only once
d) Auricle is also called receiving chamber and ventricle is also called as pumping chamber
Answer: c
Clarification: Circulatory system is of closed type in Pisces. They have two-chambered heart i.e. they have an auricle and a ventricle. They have a single circulatory system with gills i.e. heart receives blood only once. Auricle is also called receiving chamber and ventricle is also called as pumping chamber.

3. Which among the following is the main difference between Chondrichthytes and Osteichthytes?
a) Endoskeleton composition
b) Fins
c) Type of blood
d) Type of jaws
Answer: a
Clarification: Pisces are sub-classified into Chondrichthytes and Osteichthytes based on the composition of endoskeleton. In Chondrichthytes or cartilaginous fishes, endoskeleton is made of cartilage. In Osteichthytes, endoskeleton is made of bone.

4. Which among the following is not correct about Chondrichthytes?
a) Chondrichthytes are jawless fishes
b) They have stream-lined body
c) Notochord is present throughout their life
d) Their skin is covered with pointed denticles
Answer: a
Clarification: Chondrichthytes have powerful jaws. They have stream-lined body. Notochord is present through-out their life. Their skin is covered with pointed denticles. Some chondrichthytes like Tripado have electric organs to paralyze the prey. Some of them also use poisonous sting to catch prey.

5. Which among the following is incorrect about Osteichthyes?
a) Swim bladder helps them retain buoyancy
b) Many of them are edible
c) Gills are separate without operculum
d) Skin covered with cycloid/ ctenoid scales
Answer: c
Clarification: Swim bladder helps them retain buoyancy. Many of them are edible. Gills have operculum. Skin covered with cycloid/ ctenoid scales. Most of the Osteichthyes like Katla and Rhono are edible.

6. Which among the following is incorrect about Tetrapoda?
a) Lobe-finned fishes were ancestors of tetrapods
b) Tetrapoda are classified into 4 sub-classes i.e. Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia
c) The word tetrapoda means those that have four chambered heart
d) Most of them are terrestrial
Answer: c
Clarification: Lobe-finned fishes were ancestors of tetrapods. Tetrapoda are classified into 4 sub-classes i.e. Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia. The word tetrapoda means those that have four limbs. Most of them are terrestrial.

7. Which among the following is incorrect about Amphibia?
a) They can live both on land and water
b) They are warm-blooded animals
c) They have three chambered heart
d) They have gills/ lungs to respire
Answer: b
Clarification: Amphibians can live both on land and water. They are cold-blooded animals i.e. they can’t regulate temperature. They have three chambered heart. They have gills/ lungs to respire.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about organ system in Amphibia?
a) In amphibians, blood passes the heart twice
b) Left auricle deals with deoxygenated blood
c) Ventricle deals with both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
d) Tympanum represents ears in amphibians
Answer: b
Clarification: In amphibians, blood passes the heart twice i.e. they have double circulation. Left auricle deals with oxygenated blood whereas right auricle deals with deoxygenated blood. Ventricle deals with both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Tympanum represents ears in amphibians.

9. Which among the following is incorrect about Reptilia?
a) These are cold-blooded animals with scales on them
b) All of them have a three-chambered heart
c) Kidneys are present for excretion
d) These are oviparous
Answer: b
Clarification: Reptiles are cold-blooded animals with scales on them. Most of them have three-chambered heart except crocodile. Crocodile has a four chambered heart. Kidneys are present for excretion. These are oviparous.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about Aves?
a) Scales are absent and skin is dry except at the one end there is an oil gland
b) Endoskeleton is made of bones and they respire through lungs
c) They have cold-blooded animals
d) They are dioecious and oviparous
Answer: c
Clarification: Scales are absent and skin is dry except at the one end there is an oil gland. Endoskeleton is made of bones and they respire through lungs. They are warm-blooded animals. They are dioecious and oviparous.

11. Which among the following is incorrect about Mammals?
a) They are mostly terrestrial and feed their young ones with milk
b) Scales are absent, instead hairs, sweat and oil glands on skin
c) They respire through lungs and their heart is four-chambered
d) Bats are the only mammals that lay eggs and feed their young ones with milk
Answer: d
Clarification: Mammals are mostly terrestrial and feed their young ones with milk. Scales are absent, instead hairs, sweat and oil glands on skin. They respire through lungs and their heart is four-chambered. Platypus is the only mammal that lays eggs and feed its young ones with milk.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Animal Tissues-3 and Answers

Zoology Problems on “Animal Tissues-3”.

1. Which of the following represents the intercellular matrix of cartilage?
a) Solid and pliable
b) Hard and non-pliable
c) Solid and non-pliable
d) Hard and pliable
Answer: a
Clarification: The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression. Cartilage is present in the tip of the nose, outer ear joints, between adjacent bones of the vertebral column, limbs and hands in adults.

2. What does the question mark represent in the following diagram?

a) Osteocyte
b) Chondrocyte
c) Collagen cells
d) Lacunae
Answer: b
Clarification: The question mark in the given diagram represents a chondrocyte or a cartilage cell. Cells of cartilage or chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults.

3. Which of the following represent the intercellular matrix of a bone?
a) Solid and pliable
b) Hard and non-pliable
c) Loose and non-pliable
d) Hard and pliable
Answer: b
Clarification: Bones have a hard and a non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which give bone its strength. Also, the matrix of the bone is present in the form of layers called lamellae.

4. Cartilage is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Bone is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body. Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs. Limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight-bearing functions.

5. Which of the following tissue sections has been represented in the given diagram?

a) Cartilage
b) Muscle
c) Bone
d) Tendon
Answer: c
Clarification: The given figure represents a section of the bone. The bone cells or the osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae. Haversian system in mammalian bones provides passage to the blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve fibres which are present in the bone.

6. Which of the following is the main circulating fluid of the body?
a) Blood
b) Lymph
c) Water
d) Sebum
Answer: a
Clarification: Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. It is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of various substances.

7. What does muscle fibres consist of?
a) Fibriliocytes
b) Short fibrils
c) Fibroblasts
d) Myofibrils
Answer: d
Clarification: Each muscle is made up of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils called myofibrils.

8. Muscles are of how many types?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: Muscles are of three types namely skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscles. Muscles play an active role in all the movements of the body.

9. Which of the following muscle is represented in the given diagram?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Complicated muscle
d) Loose muscle
Answer: a
Clarification: The given diagram represents the skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscles are closely attached to the skeletal bones. In a typical skeletal muscle, striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.

10. What does the given figure represent?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Simple muscle
Answer: b
Clarification: The given figure represents smooth muscle or involuntary muscle. The smooth muscle fibres taper at both the ends and do not show striations. Cell junction holds them together and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath.

11. Which of the following is not the correct location of a smooth muscle?
a) Stomach
b) Bones
c) Blood vessels
d) Intestine
Answer: b
Clarification: The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine contain smooth muscles. They are involuntary as their functioning cannot be directly controlled.

12. Where are the cardiac muscles found?
a) Only in the heart
b) Around the heart
c) Outside the heart
d) Away from the heart
Answer: a
Clarification: Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick together. Fastest contraction is seen in cardiac muscles.

13. What does the question mark in the given diagram represent?

a) Striped muscles
b) Plasma membrane
c) Blood capillaries
d) The junction between adjacent cells
Answer: d
Clarification: The question mark here represents the junction between the adjacent cells. Communication junctions or the intercalated discs at some points allow the cells to contract as a unit.

14. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over the body?
a) Connective tissue
b) Muscular tissue
c) Neural tissue
d) Epithelial tissue
Answer: c
Clarification: Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions. Neurons, the unit of the neural system are excitable cells.

15. Which of the following cells make more than half the volume of neural tissue?
a) Microglial cells
b) Epithelial cells
c) Neuroglial cells
d) Macrophages
Answer: c
Clarification: Neuroglial cells make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body. These cells protect, support and insulate the neurons. They do not conduct the impulse but they can divide and hence they have regeneration power.

To practice Zoology Problems,