Category: Class 11 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Transport of Mineral Nutrients”.

1. Mineral ions are exported from older parts to younger parts of plant before leaf fall.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Mineral ions are moved from mature organs to younger organs of plants before senescence. In deciduous plants, elements are removed to other parts before all the leaves fall.

2. Plants obtain hydrogen from _________
a) atmospheric hydrogen
b) water in soil
c) methane from fertilizers
d) H₂ from sunlight
Answer: b
Clarification: Plants obtain hydrogen from water in the soil. Hydrogen from sunlight is formed from fusion reactions and is helpful in photosynthesis. Atmospheric hydrogen is inflammable and not helpful for plants. Fertilizers are not preferred as a source for hydrogen as it has many side effects. Water is the best source of hydrogen for plants.

3. Which of the following is not a sink for transfer of mineral elements?
a) Seeds
b) Lateral meristems
c) Leaves
d) Developing fruits
Answer: c
Clarification: As leaves obtain minerals from soil directly, therefore, acts as a source for movement of minerals. Seeds, apical and lateral meristems and developing fruits and flowers act as sink for mineral elements.

4. Nitrogen cannot travel in plants in form of _________
a) atmospheric nitrogen
b) inorganic ions
c) amino acids
d) ammonia
Answer: a
Clarification: Nitrogen cannot travel in plants in form of atmospheric nitrogen. It has to fixed and converted into inorganic ions or organic forms such as amino acids and ammonia.

5. There is no exchange of mineral ions taking place between xylem and phloem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: There is no clear distinction that xylem only conducts water and minerals, and phloem only conducts organic food. There is exchange of mineral ions in between them during the process of loading and unloading.

6. Element which cannot be remobilized include _______
a) N
b) P
c) K
d) Ca
Answer: d
Clarification: Elements such as N, P and K get readily mobilized from older parts to younger ones before the death of the plant or before new growth appears. Ca, being a part of the structure of the cell wall and middle lamella does not move to the younger parts.

7. Statement A: Minerals are present in the soil in the form of charged particles.
Statement B: Concentration of minerals is lower in root than in soil.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: c
Clarification: Minerals are present as charged ions in the soil which can be easily transported to the plant in the same form or after conversion to a more stable form. The concentrations of minerals are always more in the root than in the soil. The root extracts the minerals required from the soil with the help of active absorption.

8. Which of the following is a part of structural component?
a) N
b) Ca
c) P
d) K
Answer: b
Clarification: Ca is a part of structural component of the plant as it present in the cell wall, middle lamella and also required for formation of mitotic spindle. N and K are present in metabolically active cells. P is present in cell membranes, proteins, nucleic acids and nucleotides.

9. The control points or transport proteins are present in _______
a) endodermal cells
b) root hairs
c) epidermal cells
d) cells of cortex
Answer: b
Clarification: Control points or transport proteins are present in endodermal cells of the plant system. Root hairs arise from region of maturation of the root system. They help in increasing area for absorption. Epidermal cells and the cortical cells allow both apoplastic and symplastic pathway.

10. Statement A: Most minerals enter the epidermal cells passively.
Statement B: Uptake of water is by the process of diffusion.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: b
Clarification: Most of the minerals enter the cytoplasm of epidermal cells actively. Few of the minerals in form of ions are transported passively through the epidermal cells. The active uptake of ions and minerals is responsible for establishment of water potential gradient in roots, and therefore for the uptake of water by osmosis.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Higher Plants Photosynthesis – C4 Pathways”.

1. Which of these is not a characteristic of C₄ plants?
a) Toleration of higher temperatures
b) Response to high light intensities
c) Greater productivity of biomass
d) Photorespiration
Answer: d
Clarification: C₄ plants show some special adaptations to survive extreme climate, such as tolerance of higher temperatures, response to high intensity lights, lack of photorespiration and greater productivity of biomass.

2. What is the special leaf anatomy in C₄ plants known as?
a) Mesophyll anatomy
b) Vascular anatomy
c) Kranz anatomy
d) Calvin anatomy
Answer: c
Clarification: C₄ plants have a special type of anatomy of the leaves. This is known as Kranz anatomy. It is characterized by the presence of large cells around the vascular bundles known as bundle sheath cells.

3. What is the arrangement of cells in plants showing Kranz anatomy?
a) Tapered
b) Irregular
c) Wreath
d) Triangular
Answer: c
Clarification: C₄ plants have a special type of anatomy of the leaves. This is known as Kranz anatomy. It is characterized by the presence of large cells around the vascular bundles in the form of a wreath.

4. Which of the following is false regarding the bundle sheaths of plants showing Kranz anatomy?
a) They lack chloroplasts
b) They are layered around the vascular bundles
c) They have thick walls
d) They lack intercellular spaces
Answer: a
Clarification: In plants showing Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheaths surrounding the vascular bundles have characteristics such as thick walls, a large number of chloroplasts and no intercellular spaces. They are layered around the vascular bundles.

5. Which of these is a C₄ plant?
a) Wheat
b) Maize
c) Rice
d) Cotton
Answer: b
Clarification: C₄ plants have a special type of anatomy of the leaves. This is known as Kranz anatomy, characterized by the presence of large cells around the vascular bundles. Wheat, rice and cotton are C₃ plants.

6. Which of these features cannot help us differentiate between C₃ and C₄ plants?
a) Presence of Kranz anatomy
b) Presence of photorespiration
c) Presence of chloroplasts
d) Presence of bundle sheath
Answer: c
Clarification: C₄ plants show Kranz anatomy in which bundle sheath cells surrounds the vascular bundles. They lack photorespiration and show presence of bundle sheaths. However, chloroplasts are present in both types of plants.

7. Which of these is the primary carbon dioxide acceptor in the Hatch and Slack pathway?
a) PEP
b) PGA
c) OAA
d) PEPcase
Answer: a
Clarification: The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in the Hatch and Slack pathway is PEP or phosphoenol pyruvate. PEP is present in the mesophyll cells. Phosphoenol pyruvate is a 3-carbon molecule.

8. Which of these are not present in mesophyll cells?
a) OAA
b) PEP carboxylase
c) PEPcase
d) RuBisCO
Answer: d
Clarification: The mesophyll cells contain PEP or phosphoenol pyruvate, which is the primary carbon dioxide acceptor. It also contains the enzyme PEPcase or PEP carboxylase. However, it lacks RuBisCO.

9. Which of these is the C₄ acid?
a) PEP
b) PGA
c) OAA
d) RuBisCO
Answer: c
Clarification: The C₄ acid has 4 carbon atoms. It is oxaloacetic acid or OAA. It is the first stable product of carbon dioxide fixation in C₄ plants. PGA is a 3-carbon organic acid while PEP also has 3 carbon atoms.

10. Plants adapted to dry tropical regions use the C₄ pathway. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants using the C₄ pathway have special adaptations which help them survive extreme climatic conditions. Some such adaptations are toleration of high temperatures, response to high light intensities and lack of photorespiration.

11. Which of these is not a 4-carbon compound?
a) Aspartic acid
b) OAA
c) Malic acid
d) PGA
Answer: d
Clarification: Oxaloacetic acid or OAA is the first stable product of carbon dioxide fixation in C₄ plants. OAA, along with malic acid and aspartic acid are 4-carbon compounds. However, PGA is a 3-carbon compound.

12. Which enzyme is a major component of the bundle sheath cells?
a) PEPcase
b) PEP
c) RuBisCO
d) PEP carboxylase
Answer: c
Clarification: PEP or phosphoenol pyruvate is not an enzyme. PEPcase, also known as PEP carboxylase is not present in bundle sheath cells. However, bundle sheath cells are rich in the enzyme RuBisCO.

13. Which of these is common to C₃ and C₄ plants?
a) OAA
b) PGA
c) Calvin cycle
d) Photorespiration
Answer: c
Clarification: In C₃ plants, the first stable product of carbon dioxide fixation is 3-PGA or 3-phosphoglyceric acid. For C₄ plants, it is OAA or oxaloacetic acid. C₄ plants lack photorespiration. The Calvin cycle is common to both.

14. In which of these cells does the Calvin pathway occur in C₃ plants?
a) Mesophyll cells
b) Bundle sheath cells
c) Epidermal cells
d) Sieve cells
Answer: a
Clarification: The Calvin pathway occurs in C₃ plants in the mesophyll cells. In such plants, the first stable product of carbon dioxide fixation is 3-PGA or 3-phosphoglyceric acid. In C₄ plants, the Calvin cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells.

15. In which of these cells does the Calvin pathway occur in C₄ plants?
a) Mesophyll cells
b) Bundle sheath cells
c) Epidermal cells
d) Sieve cells
Answer: b
Clarification: The Calvin pathway occurs in C₄ plants in the bundle sheath cells. The bundle sheath cells are a characteristic of C₄ plants. They surround the vascular bundles in layers. It is the site of Calvin cycle.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Digestive System – 1”.

1. Which of the following is not a major component of our food?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) Minerals
Answer: d
Clarification: Minerals doesn’t belong to the category of major components of food. Carbohydrates are most required by the body to meet the energy requirements. Proteins are next important for meet growth requirements of the body. Fats are required by the body for insulation of organs as well as to energy requirements in absence of carbohydrates in the diet.

2. Trachea serves as a common passage for food and air.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Pharynx serves as a common passage for food and air. Oral cavity leads to short pharynx followed by esophagus which is the food pipe. Trachea is the wind pipe.

3. In the diagram given below B represents:

a) Parotid gland
b) Liver
c) Pancreas
d) Caecum
Answer: b
Clarification: A: Parotid gland: Main salivary gland
B: Liver: Largest gland of the body
C: Pancreas: Mixed gland of the body
D: Caecum: Small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms.
E: Vermiform appendix: vestigial organ of the body.

4. The process of conversion of complex food substances into simple absorbable forms _________
a) Digestion
b) Excretion
c) Respiration
d) Circulation
Answer: a
Clarification: Digestion is the process of conversion of food substrates into digestible form. Excretion is the process of release of undigested and required wastes of the body. Respiration is the process of exchange of O₂ from atmosphere with CO₂ produced by the cells. Circulation is the process of transport of connective tissues blood in the body and the elements it carries.

5. Statement A: The opening of wind pipe is called gastro-esophageal sphincter.
Statement B: Its covering prevents the entry of food.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: d
Clarification: Trachea is the wind pipe. It has a cartilaginous flap called epiglottis. It prevents the entry of food into the glottis during swallowing.

6. Statement A: Water is important for repair of tissues.
Statement B: It also prevents dehydration of the body.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: c
Clarification: Food is important for the repair of tissues as well as their growth. Water is essential for metabolic processes. It also prevents dehydration of the body. Body is made up of 70% water.

7. Humans have acrodont form of dentition.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Humans have thecodont type of dentition. In this type, each tooth is embedded in the socket of jaw bone. Acrodont type of dentition is found in fish and amphibians. In this form of dentition teeth are attached to the top surface of the jaw bone.

8. Statement A: The alimentary canal begins with an anterior opening-the anus.
Statement B: The alimentary canal ends with a posterior opening-the mouth.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Both the statements are false
c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false
d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false
Answer: b
Clarification: The alimentary canal is the part of digestive system in the movement of food takes places. It begins with an anterior opening–the mouth. It ends with the posterior opening–the anus.

9. Which portion of stomach opens into small intestine?
a) Cardiac portion
b) Fundic portion
c) Pyloric portion
d) Body portion
Answer: c
Clarification: Stomach is J shaped bag like structure which temporarily stores food. It is divided into Fundus, Cardiac, Body and Pyloric regions. The pyloric region opens into the small intestine via Pyloric sphincter.

10. The hard chewing surface of the teeth is ________
a) enamel
b) tongue
c) frenulum
d) papillae
Answer: a
Clarification: The hard chewing surface of the teeth is called enamel. Tongue is the freely movable muscular organ attached to the floor of oral cavity. Frenulum is the organ via with tongue is attached in the oral cavity. Papillae are small projections on the upper surface of tongue.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Body Fluids – Blood-1”.

1. What type of tissue is blood?
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense connective tissue
c) Mucoid connective tissue
d) Specialized connective tissue
Answer: d
Clarification: Blood is specialized fluid connective tissue. It consists of plasma, a fluid matrix and the formed elements, which are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

2. What percentage of blood is plasma?
a) 90%
b) 60%
c) 55%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. The rest 45% consists of the formed elements-the RBCs, the WBCs and the blood platelets. Plasma is straw colored and a viscous fluid.

3. What percentage of plasma is proteins?
a) 22-25%
b) 50-55%
c) 6-8%
d) 15-18%
Answer: c
Clarification: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. Plasma is straw colored and a viscous fluid. 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92 per cent of plasma is made up of water.

4. Which of these is not a major protein of plasma?
a) Keratin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Globulins
d) Albumins
Answer: a
Clarification: 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92 per cent of plasma is made up of water. The major proteins present in plasma are fibrinogen, globulins and albumins. Keratin is not a major protein of plasma.

5. What is serum comprised of?
a) Blood without plasma
b) Plasma without clotting factors
c) Plasma without minerals
d) Plasma without proteins
Answer: b
Clarification: Serum is composed of plasma which is devoid of clotting factors. Normally, plasma contains 6-8% of proteins and 90-92% of water. It also contains minerals, biomolecules and clotting factors.

6. What percentage of blood contains the formed elements?
a) 90%
b) 55%
c) 45%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Clarification: 45% of blood contains the formed elements while 55% of the blood is plasma. The formed elements are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

7. Where are erythrocytes formed in adults?
a) Red bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Muscles
Answer: a
Clarification: Erythrocytes are also known as red blood cells or RBCs. In adults, erythrocytes are formed in the red bone marrow. They are formed from hematopoietic stem cells via a process known as erythropoiesis.

8. How much hemoglobin is normally present in 100ml of blood?
a) 6-8g
b) 2-3g
c) 20-25g
d) 12-16g
Answer: d
Clarification: Hemoglobin is a complex iron containing protein present in erythrocytes or red blood cells. It is red in color and hence, gives erythrocytes its red color. 12-16g of hemoglobin is present in 100ml of blood.

9. What is the average number of leukocytes per cubic mm of blood?
a) 10,000-20,000
b) 5-5.5 million
c) 6000-8000
d) 300-1000
Answer: c
Clarification: The formed elements of blood are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets. the average number of leukocytes per cubic mm of blood is 6000-8000.

10. Eosinophils are a type of agranulocyte. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Leukocytes or white blood cells are of two types- granulocytes and agranulocytes. Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils are the granulocytes while monocytes and lymphocytes are agranulocytes.

11. Which of these are the most abundant in blood?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils
Answer: d
Clarification: Out of all the different types of leukocytes present in blood, neutrophils are the most abundant in blood. They constitute 60-65% of the total number of white blood cells. They are phagocytic cells.

12. Which of these cells are phagocytic?
a) Eosinophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Monocytes
d) Basophils
Answer: c
Clarification: Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic white blood cells or leukocytes. These cells engulf and destroy foreign particles and various pathogenic organisms by the process of phagocytosis.

13. Which of these chemicals is not secreted by basophils?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Ghrelin
d) Heparin
Answer: c
Clarification: Basophils are a type of white blood cell or leukocyte. They constitute 0.5-1% of the total number of white blood cells. They participate in inflammatory reactions and secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.

14. Which of these cells are associated with allergic reactions?
a) Eosinophils
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Lymphocytes
Answer: a
Clarification: Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions. They constitute 2-3% of the total number of white blood cells. They resist infections. They also have anti-parasitic and bactericidal activity.

15. Which of these cells are thrombocytes formed from?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Megakaryocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) B lymphocytes
Answer: b
Clarification: Thrombocytes or blood platelets are formed from megakaryocytes, which are special cells present in the bone marrow. Thrombocytes are cell fragments which are involved in the clotting of blood.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Disorders in Excretory System”.

1. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until which of the following?
a) A voluntary signal from the CNS
b) An involuntary signal from the CNS
c) A voluntary signal from the ANS
d) An involuntary signal from the ANS
Answer: a
Clarification: Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until a voluntary signal comes from the Central nervous system. The receptors present on the urinary bladder receive these signals.

2. Which of the following initiates the voluntary signal given by CNS?
a) Loosening of stretch receptors in the urinary bladder
b) Stretching of the urinary bladder
c) Movement of the urinary bladder
d) Movement of urethra
Answer: b
Clarification: The signal given by CNS is initiated by the stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with the urine. In response, the stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the CNS.

3. Which of the following sphincters cause the release of the urine?
a) Cardiac sphincter
b) Pyloric sphincter
c) Urethral sphincter
d) Oesophageal sphincter
Answer: c
Clarification: Urethral sphincter causes the release of urine to the outside of the body. This process starts when the central nervous system passes on the motor messages to the smooth muscles of the bladder. This signal initiates their contraction. Simultaneously, relaxation of the urethral sphincter takes place which causes the release of the urine.

4. What is the process of excreting urine known as?
a) Diuresis
b) Polyuria
c) Defaecation
d) Micturition
Answer: d
Clarification: The process of release of urine is called micturition and the neural mechanisms causing it is called micturition reflex. An adult human excretes about 1 to 1.5 litres of urine per day.

5. The urine formed is brownish.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The urine formed is a light yellow coloured watery fluid that is slightly acidic and has a characteristic odour. On average, 25-30 grams of urea is excreted out per day.

6. The presence of ketone bodies is an indication of which of the following diseases?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) High blood cholesterol
d) Liver Cirrhosis
Answer: a
Clarification: Analysis of urine helps in the clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorders. For example, the presence of glucose or Glycosuria and ketone bodies or Ketonuria in urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus.

7. What is uraemia?
a) Accumulation of sodium ions in the blood
b) Accumulation of potassium ions in the blood
c) Accumulation of urea in the blood
d) Accumulation of ammonia in the blood
Answer: c
Clarification: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to the accumulation of urea in blood, a condition known as uraemia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure.

8. What is haemodialysis?
a) Removal of ammonia in the blood by artificial means
b) Removal of potassium ions in the blood by artificial means
c) Removal of sodium ions in the blood by artificial means
d) Removal of urea in the blood by artificial means
Answer: d
Clarification: Urea from blood can be removed by artificial means if a person is not able to excrete out urea. It is removed by a process called haemodialysis in which blood is drained from a convenient artery into a dialysing unit called an artificial kidney.

9. The dialysing fluid has all of the following except?
a) Nitrogenous wastes
b) Proteins
c) Electrolytes
d) Glucose
Answer: a
Clarification: Nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid. The dialysing unit after the addition of an anticoagulant like heparin contains a coiled cellophane tube surrounded by a fluid which proteins, electrolytes and glucose (almost same as that of the plasma) except for the fact that it does not have nitrogenous wastes.

10. What is the significance of the porous nature of the cellophane membrane?
a) It does not allow the movement of molecules
b) It does not allow the movement of water
c) It allows the molecules based on their concentration gradient
d) It allows only water molecules
Answer: c
Clarification: The porous membrane of the cellophane tube of the dialysing unit allows the passage or movement of molecules, based on their concentration gradient. As nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid, therefore these wastes passively move out from our blood and hence filtering it.

11. Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures or kidney failures. A functioning kidney is used in the transplantation from a donor, preferably a close relative to avoid rejection by the immune system of the host.

12. What is the inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney referred to?
a) Cystitis
b) Nephritis
c) Glomerulonephritis
d) Pyelonephritis
Answer: c
Clarification: Inflammation of glomeruli is referred to as glomerulonephritis. The inflammation of urinary bladder, nephron, and pelvis of the kidney is referred to as Cystitis, Nephritis, and Pyelonephritis respectively.

13. Which of the following is the term given to the condition of RBCs in urine?
a) Haematuria
b) Pyuria
c) Haemoglobinuria
d) Proteinuria
Answer: a
Clarification: When RBCs are present in the urine then it is termed as haematuria. The presence of white blood cells, haemoglobin and proteins are termed as pyuria, haemoglobinuria, and proteinuria respectively.

14. Which of the following is not a symptom of diabetes mellitus?
a) Ketonuria
b) Glycosuria
c) Renal calculi
d) Polyphagia
Answer: c
Clarification: Diabetes mellitus is due to the deficiency of insulin due to which the glucose level increases in the blood. The symptoms include Ketonuria, glycosuria, polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.

15. Which of the following mineral is not involved in the formation of renal calculi?
a) Calcium oxalate
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Uric acid
d) Urea
Answer: d
Clarification: Kidney stones or renal calculi is due to the formation of calcium oxalate which results in 60% of the kidney stones, calcium carbonate which results in 30% of the kidney stones and uric acid which results in 10-20% of the kidney stones.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Neural Control and Coordination – Ear-1”.

1. Which of these is not a function of ear?
a) Transmitting sound waves
b) Transducing sound waves
c) Maintenance of balance
d) Olfaction
Answer: d
Clarification: The ears of the human body have two important functions. They help in collecting sound waves from the surrounding areas, transmitting and transducing them. They also help to maintain balance.

2. Which of these structures are not present in the outer ear?
a) Pinna
b) Meatus
c) Cochlea
d) Tympanic membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts- the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The outer ear consists of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane.

3. What is the tympanic membrane also known as?
a) Pinna
b) Cochlea
c) Eardrum
d) Meatus
Answer: c
Clarification: The tympanic membrane is also known as the eardrum. It is a part of the outer ear and is situated at the end of the external auditory meatus or auditory canal. It is made of connective tissue and skin.

4. What is the function of the pinna?
a) Collects sound waves from the air
b) Equalizes pressure
c) Acts as auditory receptors
d) Maintains balance
Answer: a
Clarification: The pinna is the portion of the ear which is visible on the body. It is a part of the outer ear along with the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum.

5. To which of these structures does the external auditory meatus extend up to?
a) Cochlea
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Malleus
d) Incus
Answer: b
Clarification: The outer ear comprises of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum. The external auditory meatus extend up to the tympanic membrane.

6. Which of these structures are present around the auditory meatus?
a) Eustachian tube
b) Pinna
c) Temporal bone
d) Tympanic membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The external auditory meatus is a part of the outer ear, present just after the pinna. It extends up to the tympanic membrane. The auditory meatus is surrounded and protected by the temporal bone.

7. Which of these structures are present on either side of the auditory meatus?
a) Pinna, eardrum
b) Cochlea, Eustachian tube
c) Pinna, malleus
d) Eardrum, malleus
Answer: a
Clarification: The outer ear comprises of the pinna, the external auditory meatus or auditory canal and the tympanic membrane or eardrum. The auditory meatus lies between the pinna and the eardrum.

8. Which of these structures contain wax-secreting glands?
a) Tectorial membrane
b) Macula
c) Cochlea
d) Auditory meatus
Answer: d
Clarification: The external auditory meatus or the auditory canal and the pinna of the outer ear contain wax-secreting glands. The secreted wax, known as cerumen, provides protection from bacteria, fungus, insects and water.

9. Which of these do not make up the tympanic membrane?
a) Skin
b) Connective tissue
c) Osteocytes
d) Mucus membrane
Answer: c
Clarification: The tympanic membrane or the eardrum is a part of the outer ear and lies at the end of the external auditory meatus or auditory canal. It is made up of connective tissue, skin and mucus membrane.

10. The auditory meatus contains fine hairs. True or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The external auditory meatus or auditory canal is a part of the outer ear and lies between the pinna and the eardrum. It contains fine hairs as well as wax-secreting glands to provide protection.

11. How many ear ossicles do we have?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: b
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts-the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The middle ear consists of three bones known as the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes.

12. Which of these is not an ear ossicle?
a) Hammer
b) Anvil
c) Meatus
d) Stirrup
Answer: c
Clarification: The middle ear consists of three bones known as the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes. The malleus, incus and stapes are also known as hammer, anvil and stirrup, respectively.

13. Which of these structures is attached to the oval window?
a) Malleus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
d) Eardrum
Answer: c
Clarification: The middle ear consists of the ear ossicles. The bones are known as malleus, incus and stapes. Stapes, being the last bone of the middle ear, is attached to the oval window of the cochlea of the inner ear.

14. Where is the oval window located?
a) Cochlea
b) Eustachian tube
c) Meatus
d) Pinna
Answer: a
Clarification: The ear is divided into three parts- the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The oval window is a portion of the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear. It is attached to the stapes of the middle ear.

15. Which structure connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx?
a) Cochlea
b) Eustachian tube
c) Meatus
d) Pinna
Answer: b
Clarification: The middle ear cavity is connected with the pharynx through the Eustachian tube. It lies in the inner ear. The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalize air pressure on either side of the ear drum.