250+ TOP MCQs on Molecular Orbital Theory and Answers

Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Molecular Orbital Theory”.

1. Combination of two atomic orbitals results in the formation of two molecular orbitals namely _________
a) one bonding and one non-bonding orbital
b) two bonding orbitals
c) two non-bonding orbitals
d) two bonding and non-bonding orbitals

Answer: a
Clarification: F. Hund and R.F. Mullikan proposed Molecular orbital theory in the year 1932. According to this theory, the combination of two atomic orbitals results in the formation of two molecular orbitals namely one bonding and one non-bonding orbital.

2. Stability increases, as the energy ___________
a) increases
b) doesn’t change
c) decreases
d) increases and then decreases

Answer: c
Clarification: As the stability increases, the energy of that substance decreases. The higher the energy, the less stable the molecule. So stability is inversely proportional to the energy. This can be seen in any part of the universe.

3. (psi)MO = (psi)A + (psi)B.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The linear combinations like additions and subtractions of wave functions of individual atomic orbitals indicate the formation of molecules mathematically, as given i.e. (psi)MO = (psi)A + (psi)B. Where (psi) represents the wavefunctions of atomic orbitals.

4. Which of the following is a condition for the combination of atomic orbitals?
a) Combining atomic orbitals need not have equal energy
b) Combining atomic orbitals must have symmetry as per molecular axis
c) Combining atomic orbitals must overlap to a minimum extent
d) For combining atomic orbitals, X-axis should be taken as a molecular axis

Answer: b
Clarification: Combining atomic orbitals must have symmetry as per molecular axis is true. The corrected statements are combining atomic orbitals must have equal energy, must overlap to the maximum extent and Z-axis should be taken as the molecular axis.

5. Sigma molecular orbitals are not symmetrical around the bonding axis.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: According to the nomenclature, sigma molecular orbitals are symmetrical around the bonding axis and the pi molecular orbitals are not symmetrical around the bonding axis. So the given statement is false.

6. Which of the bonding orbital has greater energy comparatively?
a) Both Bonding molecular orbital and Anti-bonding molecular orbital have the same energy
b) The energy of Bonding molecular orbital and Anti-bonding molecular orbital depends on the situation
c) Bonding molecular orbital
d) Anti-bonding molecular orbital

Answer: d
Clarification: An electron that enters bonding orbitals stabilizes the molecule as it’ in between two nuclei. Whereas when an electron is entered into the anti-bonding orbital, it needs to pull an electron away from the nucleus.

7. Take NA as the number of Anti-bonding molecular orbitals and NB as the number of Bonding molecular orbitals. The molecule is stable when NA ____________ NB.
a) is greater than
b) is equal to
c) is less than
d) is greater than or equal to

Answer: c
Clarification: When a molecule consists both bonding molecular orbitals and anti-bonding molecular orbitals, the higher the number of bonding orbitals, the more the bonding influence and the more stable the molecule will be and vice-versa.

8. What’s the bond order of Oxygen?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

Answer: b
Clarification: The formula of bond order is given by 12(NB – NA) When NB is bonding orbitals and NA is the number of anti-bonding orbitals. In Oxygen, bond order = 1/2(10-6) = 2. When it’s zero the molecule cannot be formed.

9. What do you think is the relationship between bond order and bond length?
a) Directly proportional
b) Indirectly proportional
c) No relation
d) Cannot predict

Answer: b
Clarification: The bond length has defined the distance between two atoms in a molecule. The bond order depends on the bond length between two atoms in a molecule. As the bond length increases the bond decreases and vice-versa.

10. Which of the following molecule is not true about paramagnetic molecules?
a) Attracted by the magnetic field
b) A molecular orbital is singly occupied
c) An example is oxygen molecule
d) Repelled by the magnetic field

Answer: d
Clarification: Paramagnetic molecules are attracted by the magnetic field and orbitals are singly occupied. O2 is an example. Whereas diamagnetic molecules are repelled by the magnetic field, so the option is wrong.

250+ TOP MCQs on States of Matter – Kinetic Energy and Molecular Speeds and Answers

Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “States of Matter – Kinetic Energy and Molecular Speeds”.

1. Calculate the root mean square speed of hydrogen in m/s at 27°C?
a) 2835.43 m/s
b) 2635.43 m/s
c) 2735.43 m/s
d) 2731.43 m/s
Answer: c
Clarification: The formula of root mean square speed is given by urms = (sqrt{3RT/M}). We have R = 8.314 kgm2/s2, M = 10-3 kg/mol and T = 300 k. So by substituting the formula we get, urms = (sqrt{3×8.314×300/10^{-3}}) = 2735.43 m/s.

2. What is the ratio of urms to ump in oxygen gas at 298k?
a) 1.124
b) 1.224
c) 1.228
d) 1.128
Answer: b
Clarification: The ratio of root mean square speed, represented as urms to the most probable speed, represented as ump is always the same for identical conditions and same gas. It is (sqrt{3RT/M}) divided by (sqrt{8RT/πM}) = 1.224.

3. The speed of three particles is recorded as 3 m/s, 4 m/s, and 5 m/s. What is a root mean square speed of these particles?
a) 4.082 m/s
b) 2.07 m/s
c) 3.87 m/s
d) 3.082 m/s
Answer: a
Clarification: The root means square speed of particles is nothing but the square root over the sum of squares of the particle’s speeds by a total number of particles. So by substituting, √32 + 42 + 52/3 = 4.082 m/s.

4. What is the ratio of root mean square speed of 16 grams of Oxygen to 4 grams of hydrogen?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: a
Clarification: The formula of root mean square speed of particles is given as (sqrt{3RT/M}). We know that the velocity of gas molecules is inversely proportional to the root over the mass of the gas here the mass of oxygen to the mass of hydrogen ratio is the answer. So (sqrt{16/4}) = 2.

5. Which of the following is greater for identical conditions and the same gas?
a) most probable speed
b) average speed
c) root mean square speed
d) most probable and average speed have the same value
Answer: c
Clarification: According to the formula, the root mean square speed is greater than the average speed and the average speed is greater than the most probable speed at given identical conditions and for the same gas.

6. The root mean square speed of a gas at a certain condition is 1.128 times greater than the most probable speed.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Clarification: The ratio of root mean square speed to the mean probable speed is 1.224. So the above statement is considered to be wrong. The ratio between the main probable speed and the average speed and root mean square speed is 1: 1.128: 1.224.

7. What is the most probable speed of oxygen gas with the mass of 32 grams at 27-degree centigrade?
a) 33.74 m/s
b) 44.78 m/s
c) 57.94 m/s
d) 549.14 m/s
Answer: b
Clarification: The formula for the most probable speed of a gas is given as (sqrt{8RT/πM}). Here R is a universal gas constant which is always equal to 8.314 kgm2s-2, T=300 Kelvin and M = 0.032 kg So by substituting, we get an answer as 44.78 m/s.

8. Which among the following options do you think has the highest average speed?
a) chlorine
b) hydrogen
c) neon
d) oxygen
Answer: b
Clarification: The formula of average speed is given by (sqrt{2RT/M}), where R is universal gas constant, T is a temperature in Kelvin and M is the mass in kilograms. From the formula, we understand that the average speed is inversely proportional to the root over the mass. As hydrogen has the least mass among the options it has the highest average speed.

9. What is the ratio of the velocities of 2 moles of hydrogen to five moles of helium?
a) (sqrt{14})
b) (sqrt{10})
c) (sqrt{20})
d) (sqrt{50})
Answer: b
Clarification: The formula of average speed is given by (sqrt{2RT/M}). We know that the velocity of gas molecules is inversely proportional to the root over the mass of the gas. So here the ratio of velocities is (sqrt{5×4/2×1}) = (sqrt{10}).

10. What is the mean velocity of one Mole neon gas at a temperature of 400 Kelvin?
a) 11.533 m/s
b) 357.578 m/s
c) 367.79 m/s
d) 34 m/s
Answer: a
Clarification: The formula for mean velocity of a gas is given by the expression (sqrt{2RT/M}). for one mole of neon gas M is taken as 0.02 kg, temperature as 400 k, R as 8.314 kgm2s-2, so by substituting we get an answer as 11.533 m/s.

250+ TOP MCQs on Applications of Equilibrium Constants and Answers

Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Applications of Equilibrium Constants”.

1. If KC > 10x, the products predominate over reactants. Then what is the value of x?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: b
Clarification: If KC > 10x, the products are predominant, over the reactants in a chemical reaction because if KC is very large the reaction proceeds nearly to completion an example for this is at 300K, H2(g) + Cl2(g) (rightleftharpoons) 2HCl(g), KC = 4 x 1031.

2. What will happen if KC > 10-3 in a chemical reaction?
a) products are predominant
b) reactants are predominant
c) equilibrium
d) dynamic equilibrium
Answer: d
Clarification: If KC > 10-3, the reactants are predominant over the products in a chemical reaction and the products are predominant, over the reactants in a chemical reaction, if KC > 103, where KC is the equilibrium constant.

3. Reaction quotient is depicted by this symbol __________
a) K
b) QC
c) R
d) q
Answer: b
Clarification: For any reversible reaction at any stage other than equilibrium, the ratio of the molar concentrations of the products to that of the reactants, where is concentration term is raised to the power equal to the stoichiometric efficient to the substance concerned is called the reaction quotient, QC.

4. For a reaction aA + bB → cC + dD, which is not in equilibrium the QC is given as __________
a) [A]a[B]b/[C]c[D]d
b) [C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b
c) [A][B]/[C][D]
d) [C][D]/[A][B]
Answer: b
Clarification: A very basic reaction like aA + bB → cC + dD, where the capital letters represent the compounds or molecules and the small letters are the coefficients of them the reaction quotient QC, is given by [C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b.

5. What will happen If QC > KC?
a) QC decreases till equilibrium
b) QC increases till equilibrium
c) QC remains constant
d) cannot say
Answer: a
Clarification: If QC > KC, the value of QC will tend to decrease to reach the value of equilibrium constant (that is towards equilibrium) and the reaction will continue in the opposite direction, where QC is reaction quotient and KC is the equilibrium constant.

6. At equilibrium, KC is _______________
a) greater than reaction quotient
b) equal to the reaction quotient
c) less than the reaction question
d) independent of reaction question
Answer: b
Clarification: At equilibrium, the equilibrium constant and the reaction quotient is equal. The equilibrium constant is depicted by the symbol KC and the reaction quotient is represented by the symbol QC.

7. What do you think will happen if reaction quotient is smaller than the equilibrium constant?
a) equilibrium constant will change
b) reaction quotient remains constant
c) reaction quotient increases continuously
d) reaction quotient increases till KC
Answer: d
Clarification: If the reaction quotient is less than the equilibrium constant KC, the reaction quotient will tend to increase and the reaction will proceed in the forward direction, till it reaches the value of the equilibrium constant.

8. If [H2]t=0.10 M, [I2]t = 0.20 M and [HI]t = 0.40 M, in the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) (rightleftharpoons) 2HI(g), what is the value of QC?
a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: a
Clarification: We know that reaction quotient Qc = [HI]t2 / [H2]t[I2]t and given that [H2]t=0.10 M, [I2]t = 0.20 M and [HI]t = 0.40 M, So by substituting, we get Qc = (0.40 M x 0.40 M)/(0.20 M x 0.10 M) = 8.0, 8 is the answer.

9. What do you understand from the reaction if reaction quotient is 2 and the equilibrium constant is 3?
a) the equilibrium constant increases
b) the equilibrium constant decreases
c) the equilibrium constant remains the same
d) reaction quotient increases
Answer: d
Clarification: In a reaction, if reaction quotient is less than the equilibrium constant, the reaction quotient will tend to increase and the reaction will proceed in the forward direction till it reaches equilibrium.

10. Equilibrium constant depends on the temperature.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, the equilibrium constant depends on the temperature and its unique for a chemical reaction at a given temperature. So the above-given statement about the equilibrium constant is considered to be true.

250+ TOP MCQs on Dihydrogen as a Fuel and Answers

Chemistry Written Test Questions and Answers for Class 11 on “Dihydrogen as a Fuel”.

1. Absorption of hydrogen on a metal surface is known as __________
a) adsorption
b) occlusion
c) absorption
d) emission
Answer: b
Clarification: Occlusion is nothing but the absorption of hydrogen at a metal surface which is a primary cause of reduction, hydrogenation, etc. As the temperature increases, occlusion decreases i.e. they are dependent on each other.

2. In a hydrogen molecule, when the spins are in the same direction. What is it known as?
a) adsorbent hydrogen
b) nascent hydrogen
c) parahydrogen
d) ortho hydrogen
Answer: d
Clarification: When in the hydrogen molecule, the nucleus spins are in the same direction, it is known as orthohydrogen. When the spins are in the opposite direction, it is known as parahydrogen. At room temperature hydrogen consists of 75% ortho and 25% para hydrogens.

3. What is freshly prepared hydrogen known as?
a) nascent hydrogen
b) atomic hydrogen
c) parahydrogen
d) absorbed hydrogen
Answer: a
Clarification: Nascent hydrogen is the hydrogen is freshly obtained from a chemical reaction and is more reactive than normal hydrogen comparatively as it is not stable. The activity of nascent hydrogen depends upon the reaction by which, it is obtained.

4. What is the problem that arises with hydrogen as a fuel?
a) storage
b) production
c) process
d) availability
Answer: a
Clarification: The production of hydrogen is very easy and its process is also simple because the availability is enormous in the atmosphere as well as in the form of water, but the problem comes in the storage because we need to store hydrogen in a high-pressure tank or in a cryogenic tank.

5. Is liquid hydrogen fuel dangerous?
a) yes
b) no
c) may be
d) may not be
Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, hydrogen fuel is dangerous as it has low ignition energy and high combustion energy. It tends to leak easily from tanks, this is a reason for many explosions at hydrogen fuel manufacturing or storing centers.

6. Can dihydrogen be used as a Fuel?
a) yes
b) no
c) may be
d) cannot say
Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, dihydrogen can be used as a fuel and the process of usage of liquid hydrogen as an alternate source of energy is given by the term hydrogen economy. In the near future, there is a possibility of using liquid hydrogen as a fuel.

7. What do you think the hydrogen economy involves?
a) transfer
b) production
c) implementation
d) process
Answer: b
Clarification: Hydrogen economy is a technology that involves production, transportation, and storage of energy in the form of liquid hydrogen as it is an alternate source of energy, there are many ways in which hydrogen can be used as fuel.

8. Hydrogen is stored in an alloy.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Clarification: The storage of hydrogen in liquid form can be done in vacuum insulated cryogenic tanks or in a metal or in an alloy like Iron Titanium alloy such as interstitial hydride. Hence, the above statement is true.

9. What can photo hydrogen obtain?
a) rotational energy
b) wind energy
c) renewable energy
d) water energy
Answer: c
Clarification: Photohydrogen as used to obtain renewable energy from sunlight. This can be possible by using microscopic organisms such as bacteria or algae. This is also a form of obtaining energy through hydrogen.

10. How can we produce a large scale of hydrogen?
a) titration
b) by electrolysis
c) hydrogenation
d) storage
Answer: c
Clarification: Large scale production of hydrogen can be done by electrolysis of water or by thermochemical reaction cycle. Hydrogen fuel has many advantages over conventional fuels that it is nonpolluting and it liberates a large amount of energy on combustion.

To practice Chemistry Written Test Questions and Answers for Class 11,

250+ TOP MCQs on Tetravalence of Carbon: Shapes of Organic Compounds and Answers

Chemistry Written Test Questions for NEET Exam on “Tetravalence of Carbon: Shapes of Organic Compounds”.

1. What is the hybridization of CH3CH2CH2CN?
a) sp, sp3
b) sp2, sp3
c) sp
d) sp, sp2
Answer: a
Clarification: The complete structure of the compound mentioned is → CH3-CH2-CH2-C≡N. When carbon forms only single bonds, then it is sp3 hybridized. When it forms triple bond with nitrogen, then it is sp hybridized. So CH3CH2CH2CN is sp and sp3 hybridized.

2. What is the valency of carbon?
a) Pentavalent
b) Divalent
c) Trivalent
d) Tetravalent
Answer: d
Clarification: The atomic number of carbon is 6 and thus it has 4 valence electrons. So, it can either accept 4 electrons or donate 4 electrons in order to become stable. But it is difficult for carbon to neither lose 4 electrons due to its strong force of attraction with the nucleus nor gain 4 electrons since the protons in the nucleus are not sufficient to hold 8 electrons in them. Therefore, carbon forms 4 covalent bonds with other atoms, thereby, exhibiting tetravalency.

3. How many σ and π bonds are present in the following molecule?
N≡C-CH-C≡N
a) σ = 5; π = 4
b) σ = 6; π = 3
c) σ = 4; π = 2
d) σ = 3; π = 5
Answer: a
Clarification: Firstly, you have to draw the complete Lewis structure of the molecule. Make sure the valencies of all atoms are satisfied and then you have to count the total number of bonds present. In a triple bond, one of the bonds is a sigma (σ) bond and the other two are π bonds. In a double bond, one is σ bond and the other is a π bond. All the single bonds are σ bonds.

4. Arrange the following in the increasing order of electronegativity.
a) sp2 < sp < sp3
b) sp3 < sp2 < sp
c) sp < sp2 < sp3
d) sp3 < sp < sp2
Answer: b
Clarification: Greater the s-character of the hybrid orbitals, greater is the electronegativity. Sp hybrid orbitals have 50% s-character, thereby, greater electronegativity. Sp3 has only 25% s-character and sp2 hybrid orbitals have only 33% s-character, making sp the greatest electronegative orbital among them.

5. σ bonds are stronger than π bonds.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In a σ bond, linear overlapping takes place whereas in a π bond, parallel overlapping takes place. Linear overlapping results in greater extent of overlapping which makes σ bond stronger than the π bond.

250+ TOP MCQs on Environmental Chemistry – Industrial Waste and Answers

Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions on “Environmental Chemistry – Industrial Waste”.

1. Which of the following produces fly ash?
a) Steam power plant
b) Thermal power plant
c) Steel power plant
d) Nuclear power plant
Answer: b
Clarification: Thermal power plants produce fly ash. Fly ash contains particles of silica, alumina, and oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium, and toxic heavy metals like lead, cobalt, arsenic, and copper. The thermal power plants in India use bituminous coal and produce large quantities of ash.

2. Which among the following do not produce mud and tailings?
a) Steel plants
b) Aluminum manufacturing industries
c) Zinc manufacturing industries
d) Copper manufacturing industries
Answer: a
Clarification: Industries manufacturing aluminum, zinc and copper produce mud and tailings. So, that leaves the answer, i.e., steel plants. Tailings are the by-products left over from mining and extracting resources, such as extracting bitumen from oil sands or minerals such as copper or gold from ores.

3. Pick out the method employed for destroying large amounts of industrial wastes.
a) Burning them along with garbage in open bins
b) Dumping them in landfills
c) Transferring them to other industries
d) Controlled incerination
Answer: d
Clarification: Large quantities of industrial toxic wastes are usually destroyed by controlled incerination. Whereas, small quantities are burned along with the garbage in open bins. Therefore, the disposal of non-degradable industrial solid wastes, if not done by a proper and suitable method, may cause serious threat to the environment.

4. New technology has been developed to produce electricity from garbage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, new technology has been developed to produce electricity from garbage. Since, in India, power cuts and the increasing piles of rotting garbage are an everyday concern, this new development aims at getting rid of both the problems in one go. A pilot plant has been set up, where after removing ferrous metals, plastic, glass, paper, etc. from garbage, it is mixed with water. It is then cultured with bacterial species for producing methane, commonly known as biogas. The remaining product is used as manure and biogas is used to produce electricity.

5. What the name for fuel obtained from plastic waste?
a) White fuel
b) Black fuel
c) Green fuel
d) Yellow fuel
Answer: c
Clarification: Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high octane rating. It contains no lead and, therefore, is known as green fuel. Due to recent developments made in chemical and textile industries, clothes will be made from recycled plastic waste. These will be available soon in the global textile market.