Category: Class 12 Biology Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Inheritance Principles – Multiple Allelism and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Inheritance Principles – Multiple Allelism”.

1. A case was registered against the progeny being exchanged at the hospital. The doctors used blood groups to solve the case. The blood group genotype of parents was IAi and IAIB. What was the blood group of the child who was wrongly placed as their child?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d
Clarification: The progeny of these parents can have IAIA, IAIB, IAi, and IBi. Thus, the progeny can have either A, B, or AB blood groups. The progeny with O blood group will be the only case that can be solved simply based on blood groups.

2. The combinations of alleles of ABO system give rise to six phenotypes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The ABO system has three alleles IA, IB, and i. The number of phenotypes produced by these alleles is only three.

3. The combinations of alleles of ABO system give rise to six genotypes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: ABO blood system is comprised of alleles IA, IB, and i. These alleles can pair up to produce up 6 combinations. This accounts for the 6 genotypes observed.

4. What mode of inheritance involves more than two forms of gene giving rise to a repertoire of phenotypes?
a) Complete dominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Codominance
d) Multiple allelism
Answer: d
Clarification: In multiple allelism, more than one allele can be present at a locus. This results in the production of many different phenotypes.

5. To discover multiple allelism, it is essential to study _______
a) cells from an individual
b) organs from an individual
c) tissues from an individual
d) population
Answer: d
Clarification: An individual can have a maximum of two alleles. Hence to study multiple allelism, it is essential to sample a large chunk of the population.

6. The mode of inheritance depends on _______
a) gene
b) genotype
c) phenotype
d) organism
Answer: c
Clarification: The mode of inheritance depends on the phenotype. A single gene can give rise to different phenotypes, with each phenotype showing a different mode of inheritance.

7. Which of the following is the only possible blood group of progeny obtained from parents that have IAIA and IBIB as their genotypes?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d
Clarification: The only possible allele that can be produced by IAIA parent is IA. Similarly, the only possible allele that can be produced by IBIB parent is IB. The progeny produced will have the alleles IA and IB. Thus, their blood group will be AB.

8. What will be the blood group of a person who has ii as the genotype?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d
Clarification: The present of ii as the genotype results in no sugar antigen being expressed by the RBC. Thus, the blood group of the progeny is O.

9. If the blood group of an offspring is O, which of the following is not the correct parental genotypes?
a) IAIA, IAIB
b) IAi, IAi
c) IAi, IBi
d) ii, ii
Answer: a
Clarification: The blood group O is encoded by ii. Thus, of the given options, only IAIA, IAIB parental pair cannot produce ii infants.

10. What is the blood group of the progeny if one parent donates IA allele while the other donates i?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: a
Clarification: The progeny has one copy of IA and one copy of i. IA is dominant over i. Thus, only IA will be expressed. This will result in A blood group.

250+ TOP MCQs on Structure of a Polynucleotide Chain and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Structure of a Polynucleotide Chain”.

1. Thymine is present in the place of Uracil in DNA.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The nitrogenous base present in the DNA are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine. In RNA, there will be an Uracil in the place of Thymine. There will be a double hydrogen bond between Adenine and Uracil, whereas, in DNA it will be present between Adenine and Thymine.

2. Through which among the following linkages are the two nucleotides connected through the 3’-5’ end?
a) Phosphodiether linkage
b) Phosphodisulphide linkage
c) Phosphodinitrate linkage
d) Phosphodiester linkage
Answer: d
Clarification: When two nucleotides come close to each other, they form a linkage. This linkage is seen from the 3’-5’ end. This type of a linkage is called as the phosphodiester linkage. A phosphodiester linkage between 2 nucleotides forms a dinucleotide.

3. What is chemical name for thymine known as?
a) 5-methoxy uracil
b) 3-methoxy uracil
c) 5-methyl uracil
d) 3-methy uracil
Answer: c
Clarification: In RNA structure, Uracil is present in the case of Thymine. Thymine is a nitrogenous base which is achieved, when the Uracil is being methylated at the 5th carbon. Hence the name 5-methyl uracil.

4. Who considered DNA as a “Nuclein”?
a) James Watson
b) Friedrich Meischer
c) Francis Crick
d) Rosalind Franklin
Answer: b
Clarification: Friedrich Meischer had originally called the DNA to be as the “Nuclein”. He observed DNA to be as an acidic substance found in the nucleus. Since technology hadn’t been developed much in the 1860s, he wasn’t able to fully study about the structure of the DNA and isolate such a long polymer. Later in the 1950s, Rosalind Franklin did an X-Ray diffraction study on the DNA using the X-Ray crystallography method. James Watson and Francis Crick on observing the X-Ray pattern of the DNA molecule, gave the molecular structure of the DNA.

5. Which among the following is the exact ratio of guanine to cytosine in a DNA double helical structure?
a) 3:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:3
d) 1:1
Answer: d
Clarification: The ratio of the purines (adenine and guanine) to the pyrimidine (thymine and cytosine) should always be equal to 1:1. This is in accordance to the Chargaff’s rule. The ratio of 1:1 is also based on the base pair rule.

6. Which of the following enzymes are used to transcript a portion of the DNA into mRNA?
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Protein polymerase
d) Hydrolase
Answer: a
Clarification: In the central dogma of DNA there are two main processes, they are transcription and translation. During the process of transcription, a portion of the DNA is copied into a new mRNA strand. This is done with the help of the RNA polymerase. In translation, the copied mRNA strand is used to produce proteins.

7. Which is the correct complementary strand for AGAATTCGC?
a) CTCCGGATA
b) GAGGCCTAT
c) TCTTAAGCG
d) GTGGCCATA
Answer: c
Clarification: Adenine and Thymine form a double hydrogen bond. Likewise, Guanine and Cytosine form a triple hydrogen bond. So, the correct complementary strand for AGAATTCGC is TCTTAAGCG.

8. Which of the following occurs in the process of central dogma reverse?
a) Conversion of a strand of mRNA to DNA
b) Changes in the chromosomal karyotype
c) Gene replication process
d) Protein production process
Answer: a
Clarification: Central dogma is the process of conversion of DNA->mRNA->protein. On the contrary, central dogma reverse is the conversion of RNA->DNA. The formed DNA in the process of central dogma reverse or reverse transcription, can undergo the processes of transcription and translation after that.

9. What is name of this nitrogenous base?

a) Uracil
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine
Answer: b
Clarification: Thymine and Uracil are similar in their structures. The key difference between them is the presence of a methyl group attached to the 5th carbon atom. Cytosine will have only one amino group in it whereas, guanine will have an attached imidazole group to it.

10. Which of the following ensures the stability of the helical structure of a DNA?
a) Presence of repetitive structures of a DNA code
b) Stacking of one base pair over the other
c) Presence of aneuploidy
d) Occurrence of chromosomal rearrangements
Answer: b
Clarification: When one base pair is stacked over the other in a helical fashion, the DNA will be stable. A right-handed curving fashion is seen in the DNA. When repeating structures are present, the DNA will not be stable. Aneuploidy is in relevance to the abnormality in the number of chromosomes. When chromosomal rearrangements occur, deletion, duplication, translocations and inversions may occur. There will not be any stability.

11. Which of the following is not a part of the nucleotide?
a) Phosphate group
b) Nitrogenous base
c) Pentose sugar
d) Guanosine
Answer: d
Clarification: Guanosine is the structural component of RNA. Guanosine is a purine adenosine. It has some neuroprotective properties. The other three are the backbone of the nucleotide in the DNA.

12. What will the polarity of this strand be?

a) Parallel, 3’->5’
b) Antiparallel, 3’->5’
c) Parallel, 5’->3’
d) Antiparallel, 5’->3’
Answer: b
Clarification: The two strands of DNA run antiparallel to each other for the effective bonding. The two chains will be having an anti-parallel polarity. If the polarity of one chain is from 3’->5’, then the polarity of other chain will be 5’->3’ and vice versa.

13. What will be the next step in the process of transcription?
DNA -> RNA ->?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) Protein
Answer: d
Clarification: The codons present in the mRNA will code for the respective AA or protein depending on the bases that are present on the strand. mRNA, tRNA and rRNA are the types of RNA. They won’t be formed in the translation process of the central dogma.

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250+ TOP MCQs on A Brief Account of Evolution of Plants and Answers

Biology Online Test for MBBS Entrance Exams on “A Brief Account of Evolution of Plants”.

1. Blue-green algae originated about ______ years ago.
a) 1.5 billion
b) 2.5 billion
c) 3.5 billion
d) 4 billion
Answer: a
Clarification: Prokaryotic form of life was formed. Also, blue-green algae originated about 1.5 billion years ago. They evolved during the Archaeozoic era.

2. What occurred during the Cambrian period of plant evolution?
a) Single-celled bacteria evolved in the sea
b) Blue-green algae evolved in the sea
c) Marine multicellular algae evolved
d) Unicellular plants evolved
Answer: c
Clarification: Marine bacteria evolved. Along with this, colonial multicellular filamentous algae evolved in oceans during the Cambrian period. This occurred about seven crore years ago.

3. Marine plants were abundant during which period?
a) Cambrian
b) Ordovician
c) Silurian
d) Permian
Answer: b
Clarification: Marine plants were abundant during the Ordovician period. Plants also reached fresh water during this period. It occurred about 6 to 7 crore years ago during the Palaeozoic era.

4. Bryophytes belonged to _______ ancestral chain.
a) Diphyte
b) Tracheophyte
c) Monophyte
d) Chlorophyte
Answer: d
Clarification: Bryophytes belonged to chlorophyte ancestors. Bryophytes originated about 6.5 crore years ago. Bryophytes flourished during the tertiary period.

5. Which of the following does not belong to tracheophyte ancestors?
a) Herbaceous lycopods
b) Arborescent lycopods
c) Sphenopsids
d) Zosterophyllum
Answer: c
Clarification: Herbaceous lycopods, arborescent lycopods, and zosterophyllum belong to the ancestral line of tracheophyte. They occurred during the period of Jurassic, Permian, and Silurian respectively. Sphenopsids belonged to Psilophyton.

6. Origin of first seed plants occurred during which period?
a) Carboniferous
b) Permian
c) Silurian
d) Cambrian
Answer: a
Clarification: It was during the Carboniferous period when the first seed plants occurred. Ancestral gymnosperms, ferns, and bryophytes also originated during this period. It occurred at about 6.5 crore years ago.

7. Evolution of gymnosperms was at its peak during the Triassic period.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is a wrong statement as the evolution of gymnosperms were at its peak during the Jurassic period and not Triassic. During the Triassic period, the forests of conifers, cycads, and other gymnosperms evolved.

8. It was during the Cretaceous period when ______ appeared.
a) Gymnosperms
b) Monocots
c) Dicots
d) Angiosperms
Answer: d
Clarification: Angiosperms appeared during the Cretaceous period about 7.1 crore years ago. Dicots also began their evolution during this period. They belonged to the Mesozoic era.

9. Rise of monocots occurred during which epoch?
a) Pliocene
b) Oligocene
c) Eocene
d) Miocene
Answer: b
Clarification: Rise of monocots occurred during the epoch Oligocene. It occurred at about 1.9 crore years ago. They belonged to the Tertiary period of the Cenozoic era.

10. Increase of herbs and grasses occurred _______ years ago.
a) Two lakhs
b) Six lakhs
c) Seven lakhs
d) One crore
Answer: c
Clarification: It was 7 lakh years ago when herbs and grasses increased in population. They belonged to the epoch Pleistocene of the Quaternary period. They collectively occurred during the Cenozoic era.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Fungal Diseases in Humans and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Fungal Diseases in Humans”.

1. Which of the following genera of fungi is not responsible for causing ringworms?
a) Trichophyton
b) Microsporum
c) Epidermophyton
d) Macrosporum
Answer: d
Clarification: Ringworms or round red or silvery type of superficial fungal infections of the skin are caused by the species of Trichophyton, Microsporum and Epidermatophyton. There are dry scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp that cause intense itching.

2. Which of the following is not a symptom of ringworm?
a) The appearance of dry scaly lesions
b) Very high fever
c) Itchy scalp
d) Darkening and peeling of the skin
Answer: b
Clarification: Ringworm typically involves the appearance of dry and scaly lesions which are accompanied by intense itching. It also causes darkening, peeling and reddening of the skin.

3. The most contagious disease among the following is _________
a) Ringworm
b) Taeniasis
c) Pneumonia
d) Influenza
Answer: a
Clarification: Ringworm is one of the most contagious diseases as it is caused by mould-like parasites that live on the outer layer of our skin. So it can be spread by direct skin-to-skin contact of the infected person.

4. From the following ways of transmission, how ringworm cannot be spread to different people?
a) Hugging an infected person
b) Shaking hands with an infected person
c) Seeing an infected person
d) Sharing the comb of an infected person
Answer: c
Clarification: Ringworm cannot be spread by just seeing the infected person. Direct skin-to-skin contact is necessary for the transmission of this disease. The common sources of infection are soil and towels, clothes, combs, etc. of infected persons.

5. Which of the following fungus is responsible for Athlete’s foot?
a) Trichophyton rubrum
b) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
c) Epidermophyton floccosum
d) Epidermophyton cruris
Answer: a
Clarification: Trichophyton rubrum is responsible for causing the Athlete’s foot. Trichophyton mentagrophytes cause the ringworm of body and beard. Epidermophyton floccosum and Epidermophyton cruris cause Tinea cruris or Jock Itch.

6. Which of the following conditions aggravate the fungal diseases?
a) Heat and moisture
b) Cold and dry
c) Humid and Cold
d) Scorching heat
Answer: a
Clarification: Heat and moisture conditions promote the growth of the fungi. It also makes them thrive in skin folds such as those in the groin or between the toes.

7. Which of the following fungi does not cause Tinea capitis?
a) Trichophyton tonsurans
b) Trichophyton violaceum
c) Microsporum andoninii
d) Trichophyton rubrum
Answer: d
Clarification: Trichophyton tonsurans, Trichophyton violaceum and Microsporum andoninii are responsible for causing ringworm of the scalp (Tinea capitis). Trichophyton rubrum causes Athlete’s foot or Tinea pedis.

8. Which of the following ringworm is also called Tinea barbae?
a) Ringworm of Scalp
b) Ringworm of Beard
c) Ringworm of Body
d) Ringworm of Groin
Answer: b
Clarification: Tinea barbae is also called as ringworm of beard. Ringworms of Scalp, Body and Groin are called as Tinea capitis, Tinea corporis and Tinea cruris.

9. Microsporum genera of fungi cause ringworm of skin and nails.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Microsporum genera of fungi cause ringworm of skin and hair. Trichophyton genera cause ringworm of skin, hair and nails. Epidermophyton genera cause ringworm of skin and nails.

10. Which of the following diseases does not spread by fomite transmission?
a) AIDS
b) Common cold
c) Ringworm
d) Influenza
Answer: a
Clarification: Fomite transmission refers to the transmission of infectious diseases by objects. Common cold, Ringworm and influenza are object borne diseases meaning that the transmission of these diseases takes place by the pathogens left on the objects.

250+ TOP MCQs on Human Health and Disease – Cancer Detection and Diagnosis and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Human Health and Disease – Cancer Detection and Diagnosis”.

1. What is the full form of MRI?
a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
b) Motor Radiating Images
c) Menstruation Related Images
d) Mobile Resonance Imaging
Answer: a
Clarification: MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging. It detects the pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue and is very useful in detecting the cancers of internal organs.

2. Which of the following is the most accurate and safest technique to diagnose cancer?
a) Biopsy
b) CT scan
c) MRI
d) Radiography
Answer: c
Clarification: MRI is the most accurate and safest techniques to detect cancer of the internal organs. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect the presence of any abnormality in the living tissue.

3. Cancer detection is not based on which of the following tests or studies?
a) Biopsy
b) Widal test
c) Histopathological studies
d) Bone Marrow tests
Answer: b
Clarification: Early detection of cancer is essential as it allows the disease to be treated successfully in many cases. Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukaemias.

4. Which of the following is the correct option regarding biopsy?
a) Normal tissues of the infected individuals are studied
b) Thick sections of living tissues are studied under the microscope
c) Histopathological studies are done by an ophthalmologist
d) Suspected tissues are studied under the microscope
Answer: d
Clarification: Biopsy is one of the techniques to detect cancer in suspected individuals. In a biopsy, a piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin sections and then is stained and examined under the microscope (histopathological studies) by a pathologist.

5. What is the full form of CT?
a) Computed Topography
b) Computed Tomography
c) Cumulative Tissue
d) Cumulative Technique
Answer: a
Clarification: CT stands for computed tomography which uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internal organs. It is used to detect cancer.

6. Which of the following is incorrectly labelled in the following diagram?

a) Lymph Nodes
b) Spleen
c) Lymphatic vessels
d) Diagrammatic representation of lymph nodes
Answer: b
Clarification: Spleen is incorrectly labelled in the given diagram. The correct labelling of the diagram should be:

7. Which of the following techniques is commonly used to detect cancer in cervix and uterus?
a) Biopsy
b) Endoscopy
c) Radiography
d) PCR
Answer: a
Clarification: Biopsy of tissue (pap test) is generally used to detect cancer in cervix and uterus. Gastroscopy and laparoscopy (types of endoscopy) can be used to detect cancer in stomach and pelvic region respectively. Radiography is used to detect cancer in internal organs like the kidney and pancreas.

8. Techniques of molecular biology cannot be used to detect genes that cause cancer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Techniques of molecular biology can be used to detect genes in individuals with inherited susceptibility for certain cancers. After detection or identification of these genes in any individual, they may be advised to avoid exposure to particular carcinogens to which they are susceptible.

9. What is the use of monoclonal antibodies?
a) They are used to detect cancerous cells
b) They are used to increase the blood platelets count
c) They are used to treat AIDS
d) They are used to give a three-dimensional image of the internal organs of the body
Answer: a
Clarification: Monoclonal antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used for the detection of certain cancers. For example, Herceptin. They are usually prepared by hybridoma technology.

10. Which of the following is not a common approach to treat cancer?
a) Surgery
b) Radiotherapy with ionising radiations
c) Immunotherapy
d) Chemotherapy
Answer: b
Clarification: The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy (with least ionising radiations), immunotherapy and chemotherapy. Most cancers are treated by the combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.

11. Which of the following radiations are used in radiotherapy?
a) Alpha rays
b) Beta rays
c) Gamma rays
d) X-rays
Answer: c
Clarification: In radiotherapy, tumour cells are irradiated lethally by gamma rays which are the most penetrating and least ionising rays. For example, I131 is used to treat thyroid cancer. These radiations generally kill the immature, fast dividing cancerous cells.

12. When are the biological response modifiers used to treat cancer?
a) When the immune system responds to cancerous cells
b) When the immune system fails to detect the cancerous cells
c) When the immune system is hyperactive
d) When the immune system destroys the cancerous cells
Answer: a
Clarification: Tumour cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction in the immune system. Therefore, the patients are given substances called as biological response modifiers such as α-interferon when the immune system of the body fails to recognise the cancerous cells, which then activates their immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

13. Taxol is an anticancer drug obtained from Vinca rosea.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Taxol is an anticancer drug obtained from Taxus baccata. Two drugs-Vincristin and Vinblastin are obtained from Catharanthus roseus (=Vinca rosea) and are effective in controlling leukaemia.

14. What are anticarcinogens?
a) Substances used to detect cancer
b) Substances used to kill cancerous cells
c) Substances used to prevent the action of carcinogens
d) Substances used to slow down the immune system
Answer: c
Clarification: Anticarcinogens are the substances which prevent the action of carcinogens. Anticarcinogens occur in green-yellow vegetables, fruits and milk. &beta-carotene present in green-yellow vegetables is a promotor-inhibitor which weakens the action of cancer promoters.

15. Which of the following is not a symptom of cancer?
a) Unexplained loss of weight
b) A lump or hard swelling which does not heal
c) Baldness
d) Loss of blood through a natural orifice
Answer: c
Clarification: The common symptoms of cancer include unexplained loss of weight, a lump or hard area, swelling or sore that does not heal, persistent cough or hoarseness, change in colour of a wart, a change in digestive/ bowel habits, loss of blood through a natural orifice.

250+ TOP MCQs on Viral Diseases in Animals and Answers

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Viral Diseases in Animals”.

1. Which of the following is not a reason for animal disease?
a) Genetic diseases
b) Deficiency diseases
c) Environmental discomforts
d) Hygiene and cleanliness
Answer: d
Clarification: Animal disease is a state of discomfort associated with disturbed or abnormal functioning of animal body due to genetic diseases, defective nutrition or deficiency diseases, unsuitable discomforts and attack of pathogens.

2. Which of the following steps should not be done for the prevention of infectious diseases?
a) Proper disposal of dead infected animals
b) Disinfection of the animal house
c) Freedom of infected animals
d) Vaccination of animals against major diseases
Answer: c
Clarification: For preventing the spread of infectious diseases, care should be taken about the isolation of infected animals, disinfection of animal house, Vaccination of animals against all major diseases, Proper disposal of dead infected animals and all contaminated articles.

3. Which of the following virus causes Foot and Mouth disease?
a) Coxsackievirus
b) Cowpox virus
c) Retrovirus
d) Reovirus
Answer: a
Clarification: Foot and Mouth disease is caused by Coxsackievirus. It affects cattle, sheep, goats, pigs and other ruminants. Common strains found in India are A, O and C. The disease is extremely contagious.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic symptom of Foot and Mouth disease?
a) An eruption of vesicles over the lips
b) Fever
c) Increase in appetite
d) Lameness
Answer: c
Clarification: Foot and Mouth disease is characterised by the eruption of vesicles over the lips, inside buccal cavity and pharynx, over legs, feet, udder and even teats. The animal runs a fever. There is loss of appetite but dribbling of saliva is present. Lameness occurs.

5. Cowpox is caused by cowpox virus.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Cowpox is a mild self-limiting eruptive skin disease of cows caused by cowpox virus. The eruption is confined to udder and teats. Inoculum from cowpox lesions was used by Jenner in 1796 as a vaccine against smallpox.

6. Which of the following diseases can spread to humans while milking?
a) Foot and Mouth disease
b) Small Pox
c) Ranikhet
d) Cowpox
Answer: d
Clarification: Cowpox spreads to humans accidentally while milking infected animals. Lesions appear on fingers, rupture and spread to hands but heal without scarring. Local oedema with and without mild fever may also occur.

7. Which of the following is the highly contagious viral disease of cattle?
a) Foot and Mouth disease
b) Rinderpest
c) Cowpox
d) Ranikhet
Answer: b
Clarification: Rinderpest is a highly contagious disease of cattle, buffaloes, sheep, goat, etc. which is caused by Morbillivirus having ssRNA. The sick animal can be treated with an injection of sulfamethazine sodium.

8. Which of the following is not a method by which Rinderpest is spread amongst cattle?
a) Contact
b) Contaminated feed
c) Flies
d) Clean water
Answer: d
Clarification: Rinderpest spreads through contact, contaminated feed and water, workers and their clothes, equipment and flies. The virus occurs in all body fluids and secretions of infected animals even before the appearance of clinical symptoms.

9. Which of the following is not a symptom of Rinderpest?
a) Dysentery
b) Fever
c) Congestion
d) Blue urine
Answer: d
Clarification: Symptoms of Rinderpest include fever, dysentery or constipation with blood laced hard faeces, ocular and nasal discharges, anorexia, leukopenia followed by diarrhoea or loose motions with an offensive odour.

10. Prophylaxis was initiated in India in 1954 and has effectively controlled rinderpest.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Prophylaxis includes vaccination which was initiated in India in 1954 and has effectively controlled rinderpest. Disinfection of animal houses, isolation of sick animals and destruction of carcasses should be carried out.

11. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
a) Salmonellosis
b) Ranikhet disease
c) Laryngotracheitis
d) Fowl Pox
Answer: a
Clarification: Salmonellosis is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella gallinarium. Ranikhet disease, Laryngotracheitis and Fowl Pox are caused by a paramyxovirus, herpes virus and Avian pox virus respectively.

12. Which of the following is incorrect about Bird Flu?
a) Caused by H5N1
b) Bacterial disease
c) Also known as Avian influenza
d) Attacks poultry birds
Answer: b
Clarification: Bird Flu which is also known as Avian influenza is a viral infection caused by H5N1. It often attacks poultry birds and from them to humans. Disease reservoir is migratory birds. The pathogen can be airborne so poultry workers must be extra careful.