Category: Class 12 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “The Female External Genitalia”.

1. Among the following, which one is not included in the female external genitalia?
a) Clitoris
b) Mons pubis
c) Vagina
d) Hymen
Answer: c
Clarification: The female external genitalia include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris. The vagina is a fibro-muscular tube measuring 7.5-10cm in length, extending from the cervix of the uterus to the vestibule on the outer side.

2. Cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair – _______
a) Labia majora
b) Labia minora
c) Vulva
d) Mons pubis
Answer: d
Clarification: Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair. The female external genitalia include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora.

3. Finger-like structure above the urethral opening is called ______
a) vulva
b) clitoris
c) vagina
d) labia minora
Answer: b
Clarification: The clitoris is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening. It is erectile and highly sensitive and is equivalent to the male penis.

4. Human female urethra and the genital duct have the same opening.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Urinary Meatus, the opening of the urethra in the vestibule, is situated below the clitoris and above the vaginal opening. Thus, in a human female the urethra and the genital duct have separate openings.

5. _______ glands are present on either side of the vaginal orifice.
a) Bartholin’s
b) Pineal
c) Ceruminous
d) Mammary
Answer: a
Clarification: The Bartholin’s glands or Vestibular glands are two bean shaped glands, one on either side of the vaginal orifice. These glands secrete a clear, viscous fluid under sexual excitement.

6. In olden days, _____ used to serve as an indicator of virginity.
a) hymen
b) vagina
c) vulva
d) clitoris
Answer: a
Clarification: The hymen, the thin membranous diaphragm at the vaginal orifice, is often torn during the first coitus (intercourse). Hymen maybe torn in other ways too, like sports, a disease, sudden jolt, etc. In some females, the hymen persists even after intercourse. Hence, presence or absence of hymen is an unreliable indicator.

7. Sweat and sebaceous glands are present in the ______
a) Labia majora
b) Labia minora
c) Vaginal orifice
d) Mons pubis
Answer: a
Clarification: The labia majora (Large Lips) are fleshy folds of skin containing sweat and sebaceous glands, which extend down from the mons pubis and surround the vaginal opening.

8. _________ are folds of mucous membrane.
a) Labia majora
b) Labia minora
c) Vaginal orifice
d) Mons pubis
Answer: b
Clarification: The labia minora (Small Lips) are paired folds of mucous membrane under the labia majora and are devoid of hair and sweat glands but are rich in sebaceous glands.

9. ________ equivalent to male scrotum.
a) Vaginal orifice
b) Hymen
c) Vagina
d) Labia majora
Answer: d
Clarification: The labia majora and labia minora are equivalent to the male scrotum and comprise of the vulva. The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called hymen.

10. _________ provides passage for menstrual flow.
a) Vagina
b) Vulva
c) Clitoris
d) Mons pubis
Answer: a
Clarification: The vagina provides a passage for the menstrual flow, receives the male’s penis during copulation and serves as the lower birth canal at the time of delivery.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Reproductive Health – Barrier Methods of Birth Control”.

1. What methods are used to prevent the meeting of a sperm and an egg by the use of a barrier?
a) Natural methods
b) Barrier methods
c) Oral methods
d) Intrauterine methods
Answer: b
Clarification: The barrier methods create a barrier between the female and male fluids. This acts as a physical barrier that prevents fertilization.

2. Barrier methods exist only for males.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Barrier methods are developed for use by both males and females. These create a physical barrier to prevent fertilization and thus avoid pregnancy.

3. What are condoms made of?
a) Thin rubber or latex sheath
b) Thick rubber or latex sheath
c) Paper
d) Plastic
Answer: a
Clarification: Condoms are examples of barrier methods. Both males and females use them. These are made of think rubber or latex sheath that prevents contact of semen and vaginal fluid.

4. What part of male genitalia is covered by a condom?
a) Penis
b) Scrotum
c) Testis
d) Fallopian tube
Answer: a
Clarification: Condom is an external barrier. It prevents the mixing of seminal and vaginal fluids during intercourse. In males, it is a rubber sheath that covers the penis and thus holds semen at the end of coitus.

5. What part of female genitalia is covered by a condom?
a) Mons pubis
b) Cervix
c) Labia minora
d) Clitoris
Answer: b
Clarification: The condoms work for both males and females. These act as a physical barrier between sperms and eggs. In females, they cover the vagina and cervix, thus holding the ejaculated semen of the males.

6. Which barrier method is made of latex sheath and holds the semen after coitus?
a) Spermicidal jelly
b) Spermicidal cream
c) Spermicidal foam
d) Condom
Answer: d
Clarification: Condoms are one of the least invasive barrier methods. They are designed for both male and female use. They are made of rubber or a latex sheath and hold semen containing sperms after ejaculation.

7. Condoms should be worn after ejaculation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The purpose of condoms is to generate a physical barrier between the male and female fluids. This will prevent the sperm from meeting the egg. Thus, condoms have to be worn before coitus in order to prevent the ejaculated semen from coming in contact with the vaginal fluids.

8. Which is a popular brand of condoms designed for males?
a) Nirodh
b) Virodh
c) Vinod
d) Saheli
Answer: a
Clarification: Nirodh is a well-known brand name of condoms for males in India. This was popularized across India by many organizations to encourage the use of contraceptives.

9. Apart from preventing conception, condoms are also known to prevent transmission of ______
a) STDs
b) STMs
c) ATMs
d) ATDs
Answer: a
Clarification: Condoms prevent the mixing of female and male fluids during intercourse. Thus any pathogens are also prevented from being transferred. The Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are thus prevented by condoms.

10. STD stands for ______
a) Selfish Trump Democrat
b) Selfborn Tumor of Disneyland
c) Sexually Transmitted Diseases
d) Sexually Tested Diseases
Answer: c
Clarification: STDs are sexually transmitted diseases. These diseases transfer via sexual contact. The use of contraceptives like condoms can prevent this transmission.

11. What is AIDS an acronym for?
a) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
b) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c) Acquired Immunity During Sex
d) Acquired Immune Deficiency Stabilized
Answer: b
Clarification: AIDS stands for Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. It is a syndrome comprised of many diseases that target the immune system by rendering it deficient for any attack. Thus, the body of the patient is prone to many opportunistic infections.

12. Which of the following is not a property of condoms?
a) Disposable
b) Self-insertable
c) Surgical insertion
d) Provides privacy
Answer: c
Clarification: Both males and females can use condoms. Being external barriers and non-invasive, they can be self-inserted and thus provide privacy to the user. Additionally, being made of rubber or latex, they can be disposed of easily.

13. Which of the following barrier device is not made of rubber?
a) Cervical caps
b) Vaults
c) Diaphragms
d) CuT
Answer: d
Clarification: Cervical caps, vaults, and diaphragms are female contraceptive devices made of rubber. These are barrier contraceptives. CuT is an Intra-Uterine Device made of copper.

14. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are used to cover _______
a) Penis
b) Cervix
c) Breasts
d) Scrotum
Answer: b
Clarification: Diaphragms, vaults, and cervical caps are barrier methods for females. They cover the cervix during coitus, thus preventing fertilization and pregnancy.

15. Which of the following barrier method is not reusable?
a) Cervical caps
b) Vaults
c) Diaphragms
d) Condoms
Answer: d
Clarification: Cervical caps, vaults, and diaphragms cover the female cervix. These are made of rubber and inserted inside. These are reusable. Condoms, on the other hand, are designed for one-time use and hence disposable.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Inheritance Principles – Incomplete Dominance”.

1. Which of the following shows incomplete dominance?
a) Flower color in garden peas
b) Flower color in snapdragon
c) Blood grouping in humans
d) Pod color in garden peas
Answer: b
Clarification: The garden peas exhibit Mendelian inheritance. Human blood grouping shows codominance. Snapdragon flower color shows incomplete dominance.

2. Incomplete dominance violated Mendel’s law of dominance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The law of dominance still holds. Incomplete dominance also involves a pair of factors that encode for a specific phenotype. However, the dominance of one over the other is incomplete, giving rise to a blending of phenotypes in heterozygotes.

3. If a cross between true-breeding red-flowered and true-breeding white-flowered plants give rise to pink-flowered progeny, what is the mode of inheritance?
a) Complete dominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Codominance
d) Multiple allelism
Answer: b
Clarification: Incomplete dominance involves the blending of characters in the progeny that are heterozygotes. Here red and white-flowered plants produce pink-flowered progeny. Hence this is an instance of incomplete dominance.

4. Rahul observed a plant in his garden. He hypothesized that the stem height exhibited incomplete dominance. To check for his, he created true-breeding lines of tall and short plants. He then crossed these and sampled 1000 progeny. Which of the following cases, matches his hypothesis?
a) 500 tall plants, 250 intermediate plants, and 250 small plants
b) 250 tall plants, 500 intermediate plants, and 250 small plants
c) 250 tall plants, 250 intermediate plants, and 500 small plants
d) 125 tall plants, 750 intermediate plants, and 125 small plants
Answer: b
Clarification: The phenotypic ratio of the progeny that exhibits incomplete dominance is 1:2:1. Therefore, of 1000 plants sampled from the progeny, 250 should be tall, 250 should be small, and 500 intermediate plants if incomplete dominance holds.

5. The genotypic ratio observed in incomplete dominance is different from the genotypic ratio observed in complete dominance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Complete dominance refers to the Mendelian pattern of inheritance. Both incomplete and complete dominance produce offsprings that have the same genotypic ratios. The two processes differ in the phenotypic ratios.

6. In the case of incomplete dominance, which zygosity expresses the blending of characters?
a) Homozygosity
b) Heterozygosity
c) Hemizgosity
d) Nullizygosity
Answer: b
Clarification: The blending of characters is the characteristic feature of incomplete dominance. This requires the presence of two factors in the organism. Hence it occurs only in the heterozygous state.

7. What holds the information for a particular trait?
a) Gene
b) Genome
c) Exon
d) Intron
Answer: a
Clarification: The factors hypothesized by Mendel encode for traits that are expressed. These are now called genes. Genes are fragments of DNA that code for a functional protein. In eukaryotes, genes are composed of two elements namely, exons and introns. Exons code for an mRNA transcript, while the introns are non-coding elements and are removed out by a spliceosomal complex.

8. Which of the following fill not be the nature of enzyme encoded by a recessive gene?
a) Less efficient enzyme
b) No function observed for the enzyme
c) Abnormal function of the enzyme
d) More efficient enzyme
Answer: d
Clarification: Recessive alleles lose the capability to encode because of the presence of a better functioning allele. Hence a more efficient enzyme is highly unlikely to be encoded by a recessive gene.

9. The flower color in Snapdragon exhibits _______
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) codominance
d) multiple allelism
Answer: b
Clarification: The Snapdragon produces pink flowers after the mating of red-flowered and white-flowered plants. Thus, there is a blending of characters. This is called incomplete dominance.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Inheritance and Variation Principles – Chromosomal Disorders”.

1. Which of the following is the carrier of genetic information?
a) Proteins
b) Amino acids
c) Carbohydrates
d) DNA
Answer: d
Clarification: DNA is the carrier of genetic information. Genes located on the DNA present in the chromosome controls each and every feature of an organism.

2. On which of the following chromosomal disorders are based on?
a) Mutant allele and their defective products
b) Imbalance in chromosome number and chromosome arrangement
c) Mutant allele and chromosome arrangement
d) Mutant allele and imbalance in chromosome number
Answer: b
Clarification: The chromosomal disorders are the disorders that are based on the imbalance in chromosome number and chromosomal arrangement. The disorders which are due to the mutant allele and their defective products are known as Mendelian disorders.

3. In which year, Down’s syndrome was described?
a) 1866
b) 1986
c) 1898
d) 1968
Answer: a
Clarification: In 1866, Down’s syndrome was first described by Langdon Down. This disorder is a result of the trisomy of chromosome number 21. Short stature, small round head, etc. are some of the effects of this disorder.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome?
a) Very tall
b) Small round head
c) Furrowed tongue
d) Partially open mouth
Answer: a
Clarification: Tallness is not a characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome. Some characteristic features include- Short stature, small round head, partially open mouth, furrowed tongue, etc.

5. Only mental development is retarded in the case of Down’s syndrome.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is not true that only mental health is retarded in the case of Down’s syndrome. Physical and psychomotor skills are also not developed. They have underdeveloped gonads and genitals. Their joints are also loose.

6. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of Down’s syndrome?
a) Congenital heart disease
b) Short stature
c) Broad palm with palm crease
d) Underdeveloped gonads
Answer: c
Clarification: Congenital heart disease, short stature, and underdeveloped gonads are some features of Down’s syndrome which also occur in other people. But, broad palm with a palm crease is the characteristic feature of someone with Down’s syndrome.

7. Which of the following is not a feature of the tongue of the person suffering from Down’s syndrome?
a) Furrowed tongue
b) Big tongue
c) Wrinkled tongue
d) Straight tongue
Answer: d
Clarification: The tongue of the person suffering from Down’s syndrome is not straight. It is wrinkled and is comparatively bigger than a normal human tongue. The tongue is also furrowed. These features help in the diagnosis of Down’s syndrome.

8. What is the genotype of the person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome?
a) 44+ XXX
b) 42+ XXX
c) 44+ XXY
d) 42+ XXY
Answer: c
Clarification: The genotype of the person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome is 44+ XXY. This deviation from a normal person’s genotype is due to the additional copy of the X-chromosome.

9. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Klinefelter’s syndrome?
a) The fusion of an abnormal egg with normal sperm
b) The fusion of a normal egg with an abnormal sperm
c) The fusion of a normal egg with a normal sperm
d) An additional copy of X-chromosome
Answer: c
Clarification: The fusion of a normal egg with a normal sperm leads to the formation of a healthy baby. Klinefelter’s syndrome appears due to the union of an abnormal egg (two X-chromosomes + autosomes) with a normal sperm (Y-chromosome+ autosomes) or a normal egg (X-chromosome + autosomes) with abnormal sperm (XY chromosomes+ autosomes).

10. There are no loops on the finger-tips of the people suffering from Down’s syndrome.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is not true that there are no loops on the finger-tips of the people suffering from Down’s syndrome. Instead, their finger-tips have many loops as compared to the finger-tips of normal human beings.

11. Which of the following is not the character of a person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome?
a) Short stature
b) Breast development
c) Small testes
d) Female type pubic hair pattern
Answer: a
Clarification: Short stature is not a character of the person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome. The person’s height who is suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome is taller than the average human height. Other characteristic features include breast development (gynecomastia), small testes (testicular atrophy), and female type pubic hair pattern.

12. Which of the following is not the character of the person suffering from Turner’s syndrome?
a) Short stature
b) Poor breast development
c) Well developed ovaries
d) No menstruation
Answer: c
Clarification: Females suffering from Turner’s syndrome do not have well-developed ovaries. Instead, they have rudimentary ovaries. Other characteristic features of this disease are short stature, poor breast development, and no menstruation.

13. Which of the following is a representation of a recessive trait?
a) Achondroplasia
b) Blue eyes
c) Huntington disease
d) Brown eyes
Answer: b
Clarification: Blue eyes are the representation of a recessive trait. Some other recessive traits include albinism, alkaptonuria, and cystic fibrosis. Some dominant traits are achondroplasia, brown eyes, brachydactyly, Huntington disease, etc.

14. Which of the following is the representation of a dominant trait?
a) Widow’s peak
b) Tongue non-roller’s
c) Fused ear lobes
d) Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: a
Clarification: Widow’s peak is an example of a dominant trait. Other dominant traits include tongue rollers, morphan syndrome, free ear lobes, etc. Some recessive traits are tongue non-roller’s, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, fused ear lobes, Tay- Sachs disease, etc.

15. What is the inheritance of characters by plasmagenes known as?
a) Extrafield inheritance
b) Maternal inheritance
c) Extrachromosomal inheritance
d) Maternal inheritance
Answer: c
Clarification: The inheritance of characters by plasmagenes is known as extrachromosomal inheritance or extranuclear inheritance. Plasmagenes are some self-replicating genes which are present in the cytoplasm, mitochondrial DNA and chloroplast DNA.

16. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to organelle inheritance?
a) Iojap inheritance in maize
b) Inheritance of poky
c) Plastid inheritance in Mirabilis jalapa
d) Coiling of shells
Answer: d
Clarification: The coiling of shells is not an example of organelle inheritance. It is evidence of maternal inheritance. Examples of organelle inheritance include plastid inheritance in Mirabilis jalapa, iojap inheritance in maize, and inheritance of poky.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Hardy-Weinberg Principle-1”.

1. Which of the following is not included in natural selection?
a) Stabilizing selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Technical selection
Answer: d
Clarification: Natural selection mainly leads to three selections. They are: Stabilizing selection, directional selection, and disruptive selection. Technical selection does not belong to natural selection. This classification is based on different organism-environmental relationship.

2. Which of the following are properties of stabilizing selection?
a) Operates in a constant environment
b) Mean value changes
c) Peak gets lower and wider
d) Favors the complex phenotype
Answer: a
Clarification: Stabilizing selection operates in a constant environment. It favors the average or complex phenotype and eliminates the extreme values. The mean value never changes. Also, the peak gets higher and narrower.

3. Mortality in babies is an example of ______
a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilizing selection
d) Abortion selection
Answer: c
Clarification: Mortality in babies is an example of stabilizing selection. It is all depended on the baby’s birth weight. The optimum birth weight is 7.3 pounds which favor this selection. Newborn infants with less than 5.5 pounds and more than 10 pounds have the highest mortality rate.

4. This diagram represents which selection?

a) Stabilizing selection
b) Disruptive selection
c) Directional selection
d) Artificial selection
Answer: a
Clarification: This graph indicates stabilizing selection. As we can see, the peak gets higher and narrower. In this selection, most of the individuals acquire mean character value.

5. Directional selection is also known as ______
a) Position selection
b) Progressive selection
c) Retrogressive selection
d) Main selection
Answer: b
Clarification: Directional selection is also known as progressive selection. This selection always operates in a changing environment. After this natural selection, mean value always changed.

6. In directional selection, the peak of the graph gets higher and narrower.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is a wrong statement. In directional selection, the peak of the graph shifts in one direction. It favors one extreme value and eliminates the other extreme and average value. Whereas in stabilizing selection, the peak gets higher and narrower.

7. Which is the correct example regarding this diagram?

a) Camouflage coat color
b) Evening primrose
c) The resistance of insects to DDT
d) Peppered moths
Answer: c
Clarification: The graph given belongs to directional selection as the graph shifts to one direction. The resistance of insects to DDT is an example of directional selection. A single mutation which occurred in a specific gene helped them to breakdown the toxin. It shows that it favored one extreme value.

8. What happens during disruptive selection?
a) Three peaks are formed
b) Extreme value gets rejected
c) Average value gets selected
d) Members of both extreme are selected
Answer: d
Clarification: In disruptive selection, the members of both extreme are selected. The average gets rejected. Most of the individuals get values other than the mean character value. The naturally selected members are shown by two peaks.

9. How many peaks are there in the disruptive selection?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) No peaks
Answer: b
Clarification: In disruptive selection, most of the individuals get the periphery values at both ends of the curve given in the graph. The population gets divided into two different groups. Hence, they have two peaks which resemble a two-humped camel.

10. Marine mollusca is also known as _____
a) Limpets
b) Crabs
c) Puppets
d) Shrews
Answer: a
Clarification: Marine mollusca is also known as limpets. They are aquatic snails with a conical shaped shell with a muscular foot. They are members of the family Gastropoda. Their shell pattern shows disruptive selection.

11. How does shell pattern in limpets show disruptive selection?
a) The shell pattern is yellowish and discontinuous
b) Light-colored limpets were preyed
c) Tan colored limpets were preyed
d) Intermediate colored limpets were preyed
Answer: d
Clarification: Limpets shell has a continuous pattern with color ranging from pure white to dark tan. They either attached to white gooseneck barnacles or to tan colored rocks. The light-colored limpets camouflaged with white barnacles while tanned limpets camouflaged on tan-colored rocks. But, the limpets with intermediate shell patterns were conspicuous and were preyed by predatory shorebirds.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Helminthic Diseases in Humans-1”.

1. Female Ascaris can be differentiated from male by _________
a) presence of Cloaca
b) presence of penial setae
c) shorter size than the male and curved posterior end
d) longer than the male and straight posterior end
Answer: d
Clarification: Ascaris shows sexual dimorphism. Female Ascaris is longer than male and has a straight posterior end while the males are shorter than females and have a curved posterior tail.

2. Syncytial epidermis is the characteristic feature of which of the following organism?
a) Ascaris
b) Taenia
c) Hydra
d) Pheretima
Answer: a
Clarification: The body of Ascaris is covered with syncytial epidermis below which only longitudinal muscles are present. Ascaris also possesses a cuticle which is resistant to the digestive enzymes of the host.

3. Which of the following helminth enters the body of a man through the skin of his feet if he walks barefoot in the contaminated soil?
a) Ascaris
b) Ancylostoma
c) Schistosoma
d) Wuchereria
Answer: b
Clarification: Ancylostoma is a roundworm which enters the body of a man through the skin of his foot if the person walks in soil barefoot. The roundworm causes Ancylostomiasis which is the infection of the small intestine.

4. Which of the following vectors is responsible for transmitting the parasite causing filariasis?
a) Anopheles mosquito
b) Aedes mosquito
c) Tse Tse fly
d) Culex mosquito
Answer: d
Clarification: Filariasis is a tropical, infectious helminthic disease where the parasite lives inside the lymph vessels, connective tissues or mesentery but the young ones migrate to blood vessels for being picked up by Culex mosquito to turn them into the infectious form.

5. Tapeworm infection occurs amongst vegetarians through __________
a) soil
b) contaminated water
c) improperly washed raw vegetables and fruits
d) improperly cooked measly pork
Answer: c
Clarification: Tapeworm infection amongst vegetarians occurs through the improperly washed raw vegetables and fruits. Sometimes these vegetables are infected with Taenia solium eggs. Therefore, it is very important to wash vegetables and fruits before consuming them.

6. Where does Tapeworm occur inside the human body?
a) Kidney
b) Small Intestine
c) Stomach
d) Liver
Answer: b
Clarification: Taenia solium is a ribbon-shaped, digenetic endoparasite. The adults of Taenia solium are parasites in the small intestine of human beings (Primary host) and its larva infests in the muscles of a pig (secondary host).

7. How is tapeworm attached to the intestinal wall of humans?
a) Hooks and suckers
b) Rostellum only
c) Hooks only
d) Suckers only
Answer: a
Clarification: The body of Tapeworm is divided into Scolex, Neck and Strobila. At the apex of scolex is a prominent mobile cone, the rostellum which is armed with 22 to 32 curved chitinous hooks, arranged in two rows. The scolex also bears four hemispherical, highly muscular sectorial organs, the true suckers. The suckers and hooks are the organs of attachment to the intestinal wall.

8. Which of the following is not the symptom of Taeniasis?
a) Weight loss
b) Epilepsy-like fits
c) Very high fever
d) Abdominal Pain
Answer: c
Clarification: Taeniasis is the infection of the Tapeworm Taenia solium. Its symptom includes Loss of appetite, weight loss, Abdominal pain, Indigestion, and Anorexia. In extreme cases, Epilepsy-like fits and blindness also occur.

9. The common tapeworm infecting humans is_______
a) Taenia solium
b) Taenia saginata
c) Echinococcus granulosus
d) Fasciola hepatica
Answer: b
Clarification: The common tapeworm infecting humans is Taenia saginata. It is commonly known as beef tapeworm where the intermediate host is cow, buffalo and sheep. Primary host is a man. Rostellum and Hooks are absent.

10. Which of the following test is used to diagnose Roundworm Infection?
a) Widal Test
b) Pap smear’s Test
c) Gravidex Test
d) Stool Test
Answer: d
Clarification: Stool Test can help to diagnose Roundworm Infection. The presence of eggs or a worm confirms the infection. Widal Test, Pap smear’s Test and Gravidex Test are used to detect Typhoid, Cervical Cancer and Pregnancy respectively.

11. Helminthic diseases are transmitted through all except _______
a) contaminated Food
b) dirty Hands
c) contaminated Soil
d) touching an infected person
Answer: d
Clarification: Helminthic diseases are generally spread through improper disposal of human stool containing eggs. These infected faeces contaminate soil, water, plants, food articles, etc. Dirty hands may spread the disease directly.

12. Filariasis is also known as elephantiasis because __________
a) disease Spreads through Elephants
b) excessive enlargement of teeth
c) excessive enlargement of legs
d) the patient starts looking like an elephant
Answer: c
Clarification: Filariasis is also known as Elephantiasis because of the excessive enlargement of legs. Filariasis is the infection of the lymphatic system which leads to the swelling of the infected organs like genital parts in male, limbs, mammary glands etc.