Category: Class 12 Biology Objective Questions

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Human Health and Disease – Active and Passive Immunity”.

1. Who is the Father of Passive immunity?
a) Von Behring
b) Carolus Linnaeus
c) Edward Jenner
d) Louis Pasteur
Answer: a
Clarification: Von Behring is known as the Father of Passive Immunity. Carolus Linnaeus, Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur are the fathers of Taxonomy, Immunology and Bacteriology respectively.

2. Active immunity is due to _________
a) Killer T-cells
b) Memory cells
c) Helper T-cells
d) Suppressor T-cells
Answer: b
Clarification: Active immunity is due to the memory cells. These are sensitised T-cells which retain the memory of antigen-specificity for future, sometimes life-long.

3. Active immunity is acquired immunity produced in an individual due to inoculation of antiserum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Active immunity is an immune response generated in an individual due to the previous contraction of disease or vaccination.

4. Exogenous supply of antibodies provides which of the following types of immunities?
a) Artificial Active Immunity
b) Natural Active Immunity
c) Active immunity
d) Passive Immunity
Answer: d
Clarification: Exogenous supply of antibodies provide passive immunity to the organism. Exogenous supply of antibodies means when ready-made antibodies are directly being given to protect the body against foreign agent is called passive immunity.

5. Which of the following is the most purified form of the vaccine?
a) 1st generation
b) 2nd generation
c) 3rd generation
d) 4th generation
Answer: c
Clarification: 3rd generation vaccines are the most purified forms of vaccines as they have been genetically engineered to produce one or two specific proteins. These vaccines are pure synthetic antigenic polypeptides as their genes are directly extracted from the pathogens.

6. Passive immunity is fast but lasts for a short duration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Passive immunity is fast but lasts for a shorter duration. Active immunity is slow but the response is long-lived.

7. Which of the following is not a killed form of first-generation vaccines?
a) DPT
b) Influenza vaccine
c) TAB vaccine
d) Salk Vaccine
Answer: b
Clarification: DPT, TAB vaccine, Salk vaccine are all types of killed forms of the first-generation vaccine. Influenza vaccines are attenuated.

8. How are modified genes introduced into the host cells for preparing third-generation vaccines?
a) Introduced by DNA injection
b) Introduced by cooling and then icing the cells
c) Introduced by first giving a heat shock and then cooling the cells
d) Introduced by making new pathways for pathogens
Answer: a
Clarification: The modified genes are introduced by DNA injection. The host cells read the DNA and synthesise the pathogen’s protein. As these new proteins produced are recognised as foreign, the immune system is alerted and a range of immune responses are triggered.

9. When preformed antibodies are directly injected into the body, they provide which kind of immunity?
a) Natural Active immunity
b) Artificial Active Immunity
c) Natural Passive immunity
d) Artificial passive immunity
Answer: d
Clarification: When preformed are directly injected into the body, they provide us with Artificial Passive Immunity. For example, Anti-Venom serum is immediately given after a snake bite, Anti-rabies serum is immediately given after a dog bite.

10. Which of the following attacks of diseases is not going to provide any immunity to the person?
a) Common cold
b) Small Pox
c) Measles
d) Mumps
Answer: a
Clarification: A person who has recovered from smallpox, measles or mumps develop natural active immunity against those pathogens and will not suffer from these diseases again as these diseases are itself memory cells generating diseases.

11. IgA and IgG antibodies provide which of the following kinds of immunity to the infant or foetus?
a) Natural Active Immunity
b) Natural Passive Immunity
c) Artificial Active Immunity
d) Artificial Passive Immunity
Answer: b
Clarification: IgA and IgG antibodies provide natural passive immunity to the infant or the foetus. The colostrum secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation has an abundant amount of IgA antibodies to protect the infant. The foetus also receives some IgG antibodies from their mother through the placenta during pregnancy.

Biology Quiz for Schools on “Human Health and Disease – Drugs and Alcohol Abuse-7”.

1. Which of the following is the most commonly consumed and abused intoxicant?
a) Alcohol
b) Amphetamine
c) Morphine
d) Tobacco
Answer: a
Clarification: Alcohol or ethyl alcohol is the most commonly consumed and abused intoxicant. It is obtained through fermentation of various food articles and some fungi. Addiction to alcohol is called alcoholism or alcohol dependence.

2. Which of the following is generally not the reason of developing drinking habit?
a) Relief from pain
b) Unhappy family life
c) Success
d) Pleasure or excitement
Answer: c
Clarification: The reasons for developing a drinking habit generally are for a feeling of independence, overcoming frustration due to failure or loss, unhappy family life, curiosity, group pressure, pleasure or excitement, relief from pain, etc.

3. In our liver, alcohol is converted into acetaldehyde with the help of __________
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Alcohol dehydrogenase
c) Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
d) Lactic acid dehydrogenase
Answer: b
Clarification: Major metabolism of alcohol takes place in the liver. So alcohol is converted into acetaldehyde with the help of alcohol dehydrogenase. Acetaldehyde is oxidised in cytosol by acetaldehyde by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.

4. Alcohol mostly acts as a stimulant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Alcohol is not a stimulant. Rather it dulls senses and acts as a depressant of almost all body functions. However, it also removes inhibitions and learned behaviour. As a result, after drinking alcohol, people generally have a tendency to show uncivilised behaviour.

5. Which of the following is not an ill effect of drinking alcohol?
a) Gastric disorders
b) Neuritis
c) Free state of mind
d) Sexual dysfunctioning
Answer: c
Clarification: The ill effects of drinking alcohol on our health are various gastric disorders, arterial dilation, reduced resistance to diseases, neuritis, osteonecrosis, sexual dysfunctioning, etc.

6. Which of the following is a serious complication from alcohol consumption that is ultimately fatal?
a) Hepatitis
b) Cholestasis
c) Fatty liver syndrome
d) Liver Cirrhosis
Answer: d
Clarification: A part of alcohol is changed to acetaldehyde which stimulates the formation of fats which gets deposited over the walls of arteries and in the cells of the liver. With the accumulation of fat, the liver cells fail to produce proteins and enzymes. There is a little regulation of fat, protein and carbohydrate metabolism. The disorder is called fatty live syndrome. Liver later turns into a fibrous organ. This process is called Liver cirrhosis.

7. Which of the following is not a social effect of drinking alcohol?
a) Absenteeism
b) Amnesia
c) Antisocial behaviour
d) Neglect of family
Answer: b
Clarification: The social effects of drinking alcohol include Antisocial behaviour, Absenteeism which leads to loss of interest in work, an alcoholic becomes self-centred and starts to neglect his own family. Also, continued use of alcohol leads to decreased mental functions which his called amnesia.

8. Which of the following is not a common measure for de-addiction from alcohol?
a) Psychotherapy
b) Thiamine rich diet
c) Giving other drugs
d) Disulfiram
Answer: c
Clarification: For de-addiction, psychotherapy or counselling is very important. The patient should be provided with thiamine rich diet and brain depressants like benzodiazepines. Patients are also given disulfiram or carbimide.

9. Tobacco is obtained from ___________
a) Opium poppy
b) Nicotiana tabacum
c) Erythroxylum coca
d) Atropa belladonna
Answer: b
Clarification: Tobacco is dried and cured leaves of young branches of Nicotiana tabacum. The leaves are large, broad, ovate to lanceolate in outline. They are picked up, dried and cured to yield tobacco.

10. Which of the following is not a common method of tobacco consumption?
a) Smoking
b) Chewing
c) Snuffing
d) Injecting
Answer: d
Clarification: Tobacco is consumed through smoking, chewing and snuffing. Chewing is done with betel leaves, as paan masala or gutka. Snuff is fine tobacco powder which is inhaled for direct dissolution in the mucous membrane of the nasal tract. Smoking is the most common form of tobacco use.

11. Which is the habit-forming ingredient of tobacco?
a) Nicotine
b) Tar
c) Catechol
d) Phenol
Answer: a
Clarification: Habit-forming active ingredient of tobacco is nicotine. It is synthesised in the roots but accumulates in the leaves. Nicotine content of tobacco leaf is 0.5-8%. A cigarette contains 6-11 mg of nicotine, out of which 1-3 mg is inhaled.

12. The following diagram represents the structure of ___________

a) Nicotine
b) Morphine
c) Cannabinoid
d) Catechol
Answer: a
Clarification: The given diagram represents the structure of Nicotine. Nicotine is a colourless or yellowish oily liquid alkaloid. Nicotine is the habit-forming constituent of tobacco. It is also used as an insecticide because in higher concentration it causes paralysis of skeletal muscles.

13. Passive smokers inhale only 10% of the smoke.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Active smoker is the person engaged in smoking. A non-smoker who inhales involuntarily the air polluted by smoke from an active smoker is called as a passive smoker. An active smoker only inhales 10% of the smoke. The rest is inhaled by passive smokers involuntarily.

14. World No Tobacco Day is celebrated on __________
a) 1^st December
b) 31^st May
c) 17^th august
d) 20^th February
Answer: b
Clarification: World No Tobacco Day is celebrated on 31^st May. Tobacco and its smoke contain a large number of ciliotoxins, irritants, carcinogens and tumour stimulants. Smoking and other forms of tobacco addictions reduce life span and bring about early death.

15. Which of the following is not a harmful effect of consuming tobacco?
a) Bronchitis
b) Stains and smell
c) Pleasure
d) Emphysema
Answer: c
Clarification: The harmful effects of consuming tobacco are stains, smell, emphysema, bronchitis, premature wrinkling, Gastro-intestinal disorders, coronary heart diseases, sexual dysfunction, cancer, arteriosclerosis, etc.

To practice Biology Quiz for Schools,

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Plant Tissue Culture”.

1. What is plant tissue culture?
a) The technique of in vitro maintaining and growing cells
b) The technique of in vivo growing cells
c) The technique of growing plants in gardens
d) The technique of cutting plants
Answer: a
Clarification: Plant tissue culture is the technique of in vitro maintain and growing cells, tissues, organs, etc.; and their differentiation on artificial medium under aseptic conditions inside suitable containers.

2. Tissue culture technique was first practised by _____________
a) White
b) Haberlandt
c) Halperin
d) Skoog
Answer: b
Clarification: Tissue culture technique was first practised by Haberlandt and Hanning in 1902. Harrison developed this technique. The first successful attempt was made by White in case of Tomato root.

3. Which of the following scientist was not responsible for developing somatic hybrids?
a) Steward
b) Halperin
c) Wetherell
d) Skoog
Answer: d
Clarification: Formation of embryoids or somatic embryos was discovered by Steward, Halperin and Wetherell by using young anthers of Datura. Skoog and Miller found that growth and morphogenesis were controlled by hormones such as auxin and cytokinin.

4. What is an explant?
a) A part of plant grown under soil
b) Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube
c) A specific part of a plant grown in a test tube
d) Leaves grew under test tube
Answer: b
Clarification: It was learnt by scientists, during the 1950s, that whole plants could be regenerated from explants, i.e., any part of the plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in a special nutrient medium.

5. The capacity to generate a whole new plant from any cell is known as micropropagation.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: The capacity to generate a whole new plant from any cell is known as totipotency. The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called micropropagation.

6. Essential requirement of an artificial medium in which explant is being regenerated is __________
a) the medium should have a sulphur source
b) the medium should have very low carbon concentration
c) the medium must provide a carbon source
d) the medium must provide a nitrogen donor
Answer: c
Clarification: Essential requirement of an artificial medium in which explant is being regenerated is that the medium must provide a carbon source such as sucrose and also inorganic salts, vitamins, amino acids and growth regulators like auxins, cytokinins, etc.

7. What are somaclones?
a) Plants chemically identical to the original plant
b) Plants morphologically identical to the original plant
c) Plants anatomically identical to the original plant
d) Plants genetically identical to the original plant
Answer: d
Clarification: Plants produced through tissue culture will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown, i.e., they are somaclones. Many important food plants like tomato, banana and apple, etc., have been produced on a commercial scale using this method.

8. Which of the following plant part is free from the attack of the virus?
a) Stem
b) Root
c) Meristem
d) Leaves
Answer: c
Clarification: When the plants are infected with a virus, the meristem (apical and axillary) is free of the virus because the cell division of meristem is faster than the rate of virus replication and multiplication.

9. Which of the following plant’s meristem has not been successfully cultured?
a) Banana
b) Apple
c) Sugarcane
d) Potato
Answer: b
Clarification: Culturing of meristems is an important method of the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants. Hence, one can remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to obtain virus-free plants. Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristems of banana, sugarcane and potato.

10. What is protoplast?
a) Cell wall + Plasma membrane
b) Plant cell – cell wall
c) Cytoplasm + cell wall
d) Plasma membrane – cytoplasm
Answer: b
Clarification: Protoplast is a plant cell without a cell wall. Scientists have been able to isolate single cells from plants and after digesting their cell walls have been able to isolate naked protoplasts (surrounded by plasma membranes).

11. Pomato is a somatic hybrid.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Protoplast of tomato is fused with a protoplast of potato, and then is grown to form new hybrid plants which have combined properties of tomato and potato. This results in the formation of Pomato which is a somatic hybrid of tomato and potato.

12. What are somatic hybrids?
a) Hybrid protoplasts
b) Protoplasts
c) Fused plasmids
d) Fused Chloroplast
Answer: a
Clarification: Isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants-each having a desirable character-can be fused to get hybrid protoplasts, which can be further grown to form a new plant. These hybrids are called somatic hybrids while the process is called somatic hybridisation.

13. Which of the following is not related to embryo culture?
a) Growth of embryos on culture medium
b) Developing seedlings
c) Multiplication of rare plants
d) Making virus-free plants
Answer: d
Clarification: Embryo culture is the technique of taking out young/fragile/dormant embryos from developing seeds and their growth on a culture medium to form seedlings and then young plants. This technique is useful in the multiplication of some rare plants, e.g., Makapuno Nut.

14. Which of the following is not an application of tissue culture?
a) Rapid Clonal Propagation
b) Somaclonal Variations
c) Embryo rescue
d) Transgenic plants
Answer: c
Clarification: The applications of tissue culture include Rapid clonal propagation, Somaclonal variations, Transgenic plants, Induction and selection of mutations, resistance to weedicides and tolerance to stress like pollutants, toxins, salts, drought, floods etc.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Microbes as Biofertilizers”.

1. With our present-day lifestyles, what is a major cause of concern?
a) Inflation
b) Poverty
c) Illiteracy
d) Environmental Pollution
Answer: d
Clarification: With our present-day lifestyles, environmental pollution is a major cause of concern. The use of chemical fertilisers to meet the ever-increasing demand for agricultural produce has contributed significantly to this pollution.

2. Why is there a need to switch to organic farming?
a) Increasing poverty
b) Increasing road accidents
c) Increasing environmental pollution
d) Increasing population
Answer: c
Clarification: There are a lot of problems associated with the overuse of chemical fertilisers like environmental pollution, soil pollution, thermal pollution, etc. Therefore, there is a large pressure to switch to organic farming which includes the use of bioresources like bio-fertilisers which can be recycled.

3. Which of the following is not a type of manure?
a) Farmyard manure
b) Compost manure
c) Platinum manure
d) Green manure
Answer: c
Clarification: Manure is a semi-decayed organic matter which is added to the soil to maintain its fertility, crumb structure, aeration and hydration capacities. There are three types of manure commonly found in the farms-farmyard manure, compost manure and green manure.

4. Which of the following is not used as a bio-fertiliser?
a) Bacteria
b) Algae
c) Cyanobacteria
d) Fungi
Answer: b
Clarification: Bio fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of bio-fertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.

5. Rhizobium is a free-living bacterium that fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The nodules on the root of some leguminous plants are in the symbiotic association with Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant as nutrient.

6. Which of the following is not a free-living Nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
a) Azotobacter
b) Clostridium
c) Klebsiella
d) Xanthomonas
Answer: d
Clarification: Some of the free-living Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are-Azotobacter, Clostridium, Klebsiella and Beijerinckia. Rhizobium, Xanthomonas and Frankia are some of the symbiotic Nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

7. Which of the following is an aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium?
a) Azotobacter
b) Clostridium
c) Rhodospirillum
d) Rhodopseudomonas
Answer: a
Clarification: Some of the aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria are Azotobacter and Beijerinckia. Some of the anaerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria are Clostridium, Rhodospirillum and Rhodopseudomonas. Soil is enriched through exudation and formation of nitrates after their death and decay.

8. Which of the following bacteria cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen?
a) Nostoc
b) Anabaena
c) Oscillatoria
d) Lactobacillus
Answer: d
Clarification: Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environments many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen like Nostoc, Anabaena and Oscillatoria.

9. Presence of which of the following elements is required for nitrogen fixation?
a) Phosphorus
b) Carbon
c) Silver
d) Oxygen
Answer: a
Clarification: Presence of Phosphorous is essential for nitrogen fixation. Plants having symbiotic bacteria have higher protein content. No external nitrogen fertilizer is required.

10. Which of the following statements is not related to mycorrhiza?
a) Many members of genus Glomus forms mycorrhiza
b) Fungal symbiont absorbs nitrogen
c) Plants show resistance to root-borne pathogens
d) There is an overall increase in plant growth and development
Answer: b
Clarification: Fungi are known to form symbiotic associations with plants known as mycorrhiza. Many members of genus Glomus form mycorrhiza. The fungal symbiont absorbs phosphorous from the soil and passes it on to the plant. Plants having such associations show resistance to root-borne pathogens and an overall increase in plant growth and development.

11. What is the full form of VAM?
a) Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza
b) Venom Azolla mycorrhiza
c) Venom-arbuscular mycorrhiza
d) Vesicular-azollae mycorrhiza
Answer: a
Clarification: VAM stands for Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza. It is a type of endomycorrhiza where fungus sends its hyphal tips into cells as vesicles and arbuscules (branched masses).

12. In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important bio-fertiliser.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important bio-fertiliser by increasing soil fertility and adding organic matter to the soil. They can also be associated with the roots of higher plants to increase their potential.

13. Which of the following is not a smoother crop?
a) Soybean
b) Alfalfa
c) Rye
d) Wheat
Answer: d
Clarification: Smoother crops do not allow the growth of weeds. For example, Sunflower, Soybean, Alfalfa, Barley, Rye, Sorghum, Sweet Clover. Rotation with smoother crops gives protection from the weeds.

14. Which of the following is a transgenic crop?
a) Transgenic tobacco
b) Transgenic pomato
c) Transgenic banana
d) Transgenic apple
Answer: a
Clarification: Transgenic crops have genes of smoother crops, pest and herbicide resistance. E.g., Transgenic tomato (against Hornworm larvae) and Transgenic tobacco (against herbicides).

15. What are bio-insecticides?
a) Insects
b) Living organisms that kill specific insects
c) Insects that kill other big insects
d) Fungi
Answer: b
Clarification: Bio-insecticides are living organisms or their products which can kill or repel specific insects. For example, Lady Bird, Bacillus thuringienesis, etc.

Biology Multiple Choice Questions on “Biotechnology Applications – Transgenic Animals – 1”.

1. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as ______
a) transgenic animals
b) animals
c) infected animals
d) Bt animals
Answer: a
Clarification: Transgenic animals are the ones whose DNA has been manipulated in such a way that they can possess and express an extra foreign gene. This gene gives an extra character to that animal. This gene when expressed may form useful products or may lead to death.

2. Today transgenic model exist for disease like ______
a) cold
b) fatigue
c) cystic fibrosis
d) fever
Answer: b
Clarification: Today transgenic model exists for a disease like cystic fibrosis. Transgenic animals serve as a model for human diseases. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic, hereditary disease that affects the lungs and digestive system of humans.

3. Transgenic animals have ______
a) foreign protein
b) foreign gene
c) foreign lipid
d) foreign amino acid
Answer: b
Clarification: Transgenic animals are those who have a foreign gene within them. This gene mostly produces a functional product that will lead to a change in the characteristics of that animal.

4. Transgenic animals can be designed to study the change in _______
a) serum
b) urine
c) gene
d) saliva
Answer: c
Clarification: Transgenic animals can be designed to study the change in a gene. These genes can be easily regulated and their functions can be studied. This can be used to study the change in the normal physiology and the function of an animal.

5. Transgenic models exist for ________ disease.
a) cold
b) cough
c) HIV
d) cancer
Answer: d
Clarification: Transgenic animals are used for a better understanding of disease and treatments against it. They serve as a model for humans. Today transgenic models exist for diseases such as cancer.

6. By studying the effects of gene one can tell ______ role of a gene in the body.
a)chemical
b)biological
c) psychological
d) physiological
Answer: b
Clarification: The biological role of the introduced foreign gene can be predicted or observed by studying the effects of the gene in transgenic animals. The manipulated gene can introduce a new character or may lead to the loss of a character.

7. Transgenic animals are design to _______ our understanding of the role of genes disease.
a) decrease
b) increase
c) similar
d) equalize
Answer: b
Clarification: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of the role of genes in a particular disease. They are also useful in finding treatment regarding that particular disease. They serve as model organisms for studying human diseases.

8. Transgenic animals serve as ______ for human for better understanding of genes and their functions.
a) probe
b) clone
c) model
d) organism
Answer: c
Clarification: Transgenic animals serve as a model for humans for a better understanding of genes and their functions. They are useful in better understanding and finding new treatments against a particular disease.

9. Transgenic animals are used to study what is the function of ______ gene.
a) foreign
b) regular
c) same
d) old
Answer: a
Clarification: Transgenic animals are used to study what is the function of foreign genes. These changes are studied by observing or studying the changes in the organism after the introduction of a foreign gene. These changes can be useful or harmful.

10. Transgenic models exist for ________ disease.
a) cough
b) pneumonia
c) rheumatoid arthritis
d) influenza
Answer: c
Clarification: Transgenic animals serve as a model to humans for the treatment of many diseases. Today transgenic models exist for diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune disease that causes inflammation in joints.

11. 95% transgenic animals are ______
a) sheep
b) rabbits
c) pigs
d) mice
Answer: d
Clarification: Many transgenic animals have been produced to date like transgenic sheep, rabbits, fish, cows, pigs, etc. But the maximum number i.e. approximately 95% of transgenic animals are transgenic mice. They are extensively used in various biotechnology experiments.

12. Today transgenic model exist for disease like ______
a) fatigue
b) influenza
c) Alzheimer’s
d) pneumonia
Answer: c
Clarification: Today transgenic model exists for a disease like Alzheimer’s disease. It is used for a better understanding of the disease and finding new ways to treat it. It is a neurological disorder that leads to the degeneration of the brain.

Biology Aptitude Test for Class 12 on “Population Growth – 2”.

1. Under special conditions which factor is responsible for influencing population density?
a) Births
b) Immigration
c) Deaths
d) Age structure
Answer: b
Clarification: Under special conditions, immigration is responsible for fluctuating population density. It is an act of coming into a different country of which they are not natives and reside permanently. This increases the population density of an area where they are residing.

2. Under special conditions which factor is responsible for influencing population density?
a) Emigration
b) Births
c) Deaths
d) Age structure
Answer: a
Clarification: Under special conditions emigration is responsible for fluctuating population density. Emigration is an act of leaving one’s own country and settling or residing in another country (abroad) permanently.

3. If a new habitat is just being colonized, what contributes more significantly to population growth than the birth rate?
a) Death rate
b) Immigration
c) Birth rate
d) Age pyramid
Answer: c
Clarification: Immigration contributes more to the population growth than the birth rate in a new habitat which is just being colonized. Immigration is responsible for fluctuation in population density. It is an act of coming into a different country of which they are not natives and reside permanently.

4. At what year is the census carried?
a) Every 5 years
b) Every 7 years
c) Every 1 year
d) Every 10 years
Answer: d
Clarification: Census is carried out every 10 years. Population census is the process of collecting, compiling, analyzing demographic, economic and social data about the members of a given population.

5. What was the population of India as per the 2011 census?
a) 1,845,678,012
b) 1,900,000,000
c) 1,210,854,977
d) 1,534,896,000
Answer: c
Clarification: The population of India according to the 2011 census is 1,210,854,977. Population census is the process of collecting, compiling, analyzing demographic, economic and social data about the members of a given population.

6. Which is the second largest populous country in the world?
a) Bangladesh
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) China
Answer: b
Clarification: India is the second-largest populous country in the world. The population of India according to the 2011 census is 1,210,854,977. China is a top-most populous country in the world.

7. What is an increase in population due to an actual number of individuals added to the population called?
a) Age structure
b) Density
c) Diversity
d) Growth rate
Answer: d
Clarification: The growth rate is an increase in population due to an actual number of individuals added to the population. It is the percentage change of a population within a specific time period.

8. What was the population of India as per the 2001 census?
a) 7,000,000,000
b) 5,924,827,417
c) 1,028,737,436
d) 3,200,100
Answer: c
Clarification: The population of India according to the 2001 census is 1,028,737,436. Population Census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing demographic, economic and social data about the members of a given population.

9. What does the leaving of individuals from a population and moving out said?
a) Natality
b) Mortality
c) Immigration
d) Emigration
Answer: d
Clarification: An emigration is an act of leaving one’s own country and settling or residing in another country (abroad) permanently. The population density decreases when emigration is more.

10. What does coming new of individuals to a population from outside called?
a) Community
b) Density
c) Emigration
d) Immigration
Answer: c
Clarification: It is an act of coming into a different country of which they are not natives and reside permanently. It is responsible for an increase in population density.

11. What is the relative proportion of individuals of various age groups in the population called?
a) Growth rate
b) Density
c) Diversity
d) Age structure
Answer: d
Clarification: The relative proportion of individuals of various age groups in the population is called the age structure of the population. It is the distribution of a population in terms of the proportions of individuals at different life stages.

12. Which one of the following causes a population explosion?
a) The decrease in infant mortality rate and an increase in the death rate
b) The decrease in death rate, maternal and infant mortality rate
c) The decrease in infant mortality rate
d) Increase in maternal mortality rate and decrease in the death rate
Answer: c
Clarification: The decrease in death rate, maternal and infant mortality rate is the cause of population explosion. This leads to a large and sudden increase in the rate of population.

13. In which year does the first population count of India start?
a) 1885
b) 1891
c) 1900
d) 2001
Answer: b
Clarification: The first population count of India started in the year 1891. It was conducted by the British raj under the supervision of Jervoise Athelstane Baines. The last census of India was carried out in 2011 while next will be carried out in 2021.

14. What does N_t define?
a) The population diversity at time t
b) The birth rate at time t
c) The death rate at time t
d) The population density at time t
Answer: d
Clarification: N_t defines the population density at time t. The death rate, birth rate, immigration, and emigration are the factors influencing population density.

15. In the given structure what does the ‘?’ indicate?

a) Population density
b) Population diversity
c) Population census
d) Population rate
Answer: a
Clarification: The ‘?’ indicates the population density. It is designated by ‘N’. The population density tells about the number of individuals in a unit area (per square meter, per square kilometer or per hectare) at a specific time.

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