Category: Computer Fundamentals Objective Questions

Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions on “The Binary Number System”.

1. Which of the following is not a positional number system?
a) Roman Number System
b) Octal Number System
c) Binary Number System
d) Hexadecimal Number System

Answer: a
Clarification: The Roman number system isn’t a positional number system since it uses symbols to represent numbers.
The octal number system uses digits from 0-7, the binary number system uses digits from 0-1 whereas, the hexadecimal number system uses digits from 0-15.

2. The value of radix in binary number system is _____________
a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 1

Answer: a
Clarification: In a binary number system, the value of base or radix is 2. The binary system uses only two digits for the representation of numbers, therefore its base id has chosen to be 2.

3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 10 is __________
a) 0010
b) 10
c) 1010
d) 010
Answer: c

4. A computer language that is written in binary codes only is _____
a) machine language
b) C
c) C#
d) pascal

Answer: a
Clarification: Machine Language is written in binary codes only. It can be easily understood by the computer and is very difficult for us to understand. A machine language, unlike other languages, requires no translators or interpreters.

5. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is ______
a) 624.12
b) 145.12
c) 154.12
d) 145.21
Answer: b

6. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110 is _______________
a) 0111
b) E
c) 15
d) 14

Answer: b
Clarification: In hexadecimal number system, 1110 = 15, which is represented by the alphabet E.
Some representations are:
A 10
B 11
C 12
D 13
E 14
F 15.

7. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0 or 1.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: A bit stands for a binary digit. A binary digit can have only two digits i.e. 0 or 1. A binary number consisting of n-bits is called an n-bit number.

8. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its decimal equivalent.
a) 21
b) 12
c) 22
d) 31

Answer: a
Clarification: To convert a binary number to its decimal equivalent follow these steps :
2⁴ * 1 + 2³ * 0 + 2² *1 + 2¹ * 0 + 2⁰ * 1 = 21.
Therefore, the answer is 21.

9. Which of the following is not a binary number?
a) 1111
b) 101
c) 11E
d) 000

Answer: c
Clarification: A binary number can have only two possible digits, 0 and 1. In the third option, there is an alphabet E present which makes it an invalid binary number. Alphabets are only allowed in the hexadecimal number system.

10. Which of the following is the correct representation of a binary number?
a) (124)₂
b) 1110
c) (110)²
d) (000)₂

Answer: d
Clarification: The binary numbers should comprise only two digits 0 and 1.
Also, for the base, the value should be 2 and it should be written as a subscript enclosing the entire number. Here, the fourth option gives the correct representation.

Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions on “Logic Gates”.

1. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more input signals to produce standard output _______
a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
c) Logic Signals
d) Logic Gates

Answer: d
Clarification: The logic gates operate on one or more input signals to produce a standard output.
Logic gates give the output in the form of 0 and 1.
The Boolean algebra can be applied to the logic gates.

2. Logic Gates are the building blocks of all circuits in a computer.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The statement is true.
Logic gates are idealized to implement a boolean function in all circuits of a computer.
The signals are directed as per the outputs of the logic gates in the form of 0 and 1.

3. A __________ gate gives the output as 1 only if all the inputs signals are 1.
a) AND
b) OR
c) EXOR
d) NOR

Answer: a
Clarification: The AND gate gives a 1 only if all the input signals are 1.
The Boolean expression for evaluating an AND signal is: Y=A.B.

4. The boolean expression of an OR gate is _______
a) A.B
b) A’B+AB’
c) A+B
d) A’B’

Answer: c
Clarification: An OR gate gives the result as 1 if any one of the inputs is one.
Its expression is A+B.
An OR gate gives a 0 only if both the inputs are 0.

5. The gate which is used to reverse the output obtained is _____
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT

Answer: d
Clarification: NOT gate is used to reverse the output from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
The Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y=A’.
Therefore, it gives the complement of the result obtained.

6. Which of the following gate will give a 0 when both of its inputs are 1?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) EXOR

Answer: c
Clarification: The NAND gate gives 0 as the output when both of its inputs are 1 or any one of the input is 1.
It returns a 1 only if both the inputs are 0.

7. When logic gates are connected to form a gating/logic network it is called as a ______________ logic circuit.
a) combinational
b) sequential
c) systematic
d) hardwired

Answer: a
Clarification: It is referred to as a combinational circuit as it comprises a number of gates.
It is connected to evaluate a result of a Boolean expression.

8. The universal gate that can be used to implement any Boolean expression is __________
a) NAND
b) EXOR
c) OR
d) AND

Answer: a
Clarification: NAND gate can be used to implement any Boolean expression.
It is a universal gate. A universal gate can be used to implement any other Boolean function without using any other logic gate.

9. The gate which is called an inverter is called _________
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT

Answer: d
Clarification: Inverter is used to reverse the output. A NOT gate is used to invert or change the output from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.

10. The expression of an EXOR gate is ____________
a) A’B+AB’
b) AB+A’B’
c) A+A.B
d) A’+B’

Answer: a
Clarification: The expression for an EXOR gate is A’B+AB’.
An EXOR gate is nothing but an exclusive OR gate.

Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions on “System Softwares”.

1. The physical devices of a computer :
a) Software
b) Package
c) Hardware
d) System Software

Answer: c
Clarification: Hardware refers to the physical devices of a computer system. Software refers to a collection of programs. A program is a sequence of instructions.

2. Software Package is a group of programs that solve multiple problems.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: The statement is false. The software package is a group of programs that solve a specific problem or perform a specific type of job.

3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing components like increasing the main memory, or hard disk capacities, or adding speakers, or modems, etc.
a) Grades
b) Prosody
c) Synthesis
d) Upgrades

Answer: d
Clarification: Upgrades is the right term to be used. Upgrades are installed to renew or implement a new feature. Except for upgrades, hardware is normally one-time expense.

4. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User

Answer: b
Clarification: Software is basically classified into two: System and application. System Software is designed to control the operations and extend the processing capability of a computer system.

5. Which of the following is not an example of system software?
a) Language Translator
b) Utility Software
c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors

Answer: d
Clarification: A system software is responsible for controlling the operations of a computer system. Word Processor is an application software since it is specific to its purpose.

6. A person who designs the programs in a software package is called :
a) User
b) Software Manager
c) System Developer
d) System Programmer

Answer: d
Clarification: The programs included in a system software package are called system programs. The programmers who design them and prepare them are called system programmers.

7. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task.
a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User

Answer: a
Clarification: An application software is specific to solving a specific problem. System software is designed for controlling the operations of a computer system.

8. Assembler is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C

Answer: a
Clarification: Assembler is used in case of low level languages. It is generally used to make the binary code into an understandable format. Interpreter is used with the high level languages similarly.

9. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction

Answer: b
Clarification: Option Process is correct. A program is a set of instructions. A program in execution is called a process.

10. Which of the following is not a process state?
a) Terminated
b) Running
c) Blocked
d) Execution

Answer: c
Clarification: There is no blocked state in a process model. The different states are ready, running, executing, waiting and terminated.

Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions on “Documentation”.

1. STD stands for ____________
a) Software Test Documents
b) System Test Documents
c) Software Traced Documents
d) System Traced Documents

Answer: a
Clarification: STD which stands for Software test documents is a part of Software Process Documentation. Several other terms used in documentation are SDP, SRS, etc.

2. The SRS describes what the system should do with words and figures.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The statement is true. SRS stands for Software Requirements Specifications. It describes what the system should do in theoretical terms.

3. _______ is part of user documentation.
a) Class diagram
b) Use case
c) Code comment
d) Installation guide

Answer: d
Clarification: Installation guide is a part of user documentation. It also comprises of user manual, installation guide, Wiki and the online documentation and help.

4. The process of maintaining a record of project development and maintenance.
a) Process documentation
b) Product documentation
c) User documentation
d) System documentation

Answer: a
Clarification: It is called as process documentation only. It contains the plans, schedules, etc. It also contains the gantt chart.

5. This describes the objectives of a product and set out the constraints.
a) SDP
b) SRS
c) SDD
d) STD

Answer: a
Clarification: Software development plan describes the objectives of the project and sets the constraints. It comprises risk analysis, work breakdown, monitoring and reporting mechanisms, etc.

6. ____________ provide the detailed, specific application being developed.
a) System models
b) Appendices
c) Index
d) Glossary

Answer: b
Clarification: Appendices provide the detailed, specific application being developed. It includes hardware and database descriptions. Hardware requirements include minimal and optimal configurations of a system.

7. Which of the following should describe the technical terms used in the document?
a) glossary
b) index
c) user requirements
d) system architecture

Answer: a
Clarification: Glossary should describe the technical terms used in the document. In this, the writer shouldn’t make assumptions about the experience and expertise of the reader.

8. The services provided for the user are described in which section?
a) System requirements
b) User requirements
c) System models
d) Appendices

Answer: b
Clarification: The services provided by the software for the user are described in this section. The non-functional requirements should also be described in this section.

9. ______________ architecture provides a high-level overview of the anticipated system architecture.
a) System
b) User
c) Test
d) Software

Answer: a
Clarification: System architecture shows the description and distribution functions across system modules. Architectural components that are reused should be highlighted.

10. The graphical models showing the relationships between the system and its environment.
a) System models
b) Software models
c) Class models
d) User models

Answer: a
Clarification: System models describe the relationships between various entities. It comprises of various models like data flow, use case, semantic data models etc.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Aptitude test on “Modulation Techniques”.

1. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________ of megahertz.
a) 100
b) 150
c) 1000
d) 10000

Answer: a
Clarification: A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of 100’s of Mhz. Baseband speed is in a few KHz. Multiplexing improves channel bandwidth utilization.

2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling and they occupy adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.

3. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
b) cosec wave
c) sine wave
d) cot wave

Answer: c
Clarification: The carrier wave is generally a sine wave. Carrier wave is used to transfer the signal from source to destination.

4. Controlling the phase is referred as __________
a) modulation
b) half modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation

Answer: d
Clarification: It is referred to as phase modulation. When there is a change in amplitude, it is referred to as amplitude modulation.

5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex

Answer: b
Clarification: The half duplex mode supports two way traffic but only in one direction at a time.

6. A multiplexing technique based on sampling.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) SDM
d) FM

Answer: b
Clarification: TDM which stands for Time division multiplexing is based on sampling which is a modulation technique.

7. An example of FDM:
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone
c) machines
d) semi-duplex

Answer: a
Clarification: Broadcast radio is an example of FDM. This allows several messages to be translated from baseband.

8. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing

Answer: a
Clarification: FDM stands for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This allows several messages to be translated from baseband, where they are all in the same frequency.

9. A modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.
a) direct
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) multiplexing

Answer: d
Clarification: Multiplexing is a modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.

10. The purpose of communication system is to transfer information from _______ to the destination.
a) user
b) source
c) system
d) station

Answer: b
Clarification: The answer is source. A communication system transfers information from source to the destination.

Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions on “Cloud Computing”.

1. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based computing service.
a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing

Answer: c
Clarification: Cloud computing is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers with on-demand, utility based computing services. Cloud users can provide more reliable, available and updated services to their clients in turn.

2. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The statement is true. There are three types of users often called as cloud stakeholders.

3. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users

Answer: b
Clarification: There are three types of stakeholders cloud providers, cloud users and the end users.

4. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these services pay-as-you-go model.
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users

Answer: d
Clarification: The cloud users use these services pay-as-you-go model. The cloud users develop their product using these services and deliver the product to the end users.

5. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Answer: c
Clarification: There is no protected cloud. There are three types of cloud-private, public and hybrid.

6. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Answer: b
Clarification: This happens in public cloud. Services are provided to the users using utility computing model.

7. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid

Answer: d
Clarification: The hybrid cloud is composed of multiple internal or external clouds. This is the scenario when an organization moves to public cloud computing domain from its internal private cloud.

8. _____________ enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer

Answer: b
Clarification: Virtualization enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another. This feature is useful for cloud as by data locality lots of optimization is possible.

9. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template

Answer: b
Clarification: Most of the cloud architectures are built on Grid architecture. Grid is a type of distributed computing architecture where organizations owning data centers collaborate with each other to have common benefits.

10. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service

Answer: a
Clarification: SAAS is Software as a service. It delivers a single application through the web browser to thousands of customers using a multitenant architecture.