250+ TOP MCQs on Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption – 1”.

1. Which form of drug formulation has disintegration time?
a) Injections
b) Syrups
c) Capsules and Tablets
d) Only tablets
Answer: c
Clarification: Disintegration time is of importance in the case of solid dosage forms like tablets and capsules. Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles.

2. Which tablets have longer Disintegration time?
a) Single coated tablets
b) Uncoated tablets
c) Sugar-coated tablets
d) Capsules
Answer: c
Clarification: Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles. Enteric coated tablets are coated to protect the drug from the acidic environment of the stomach. Sugar coated ones have long DT.

3. Disintegration time is directly proportional to the amount of binder present in the tablet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Disintegration of a tablet is directly proportional to the amount of binder present and the compression force i.e. the hardness of the tablet. A hard tablet with a large amount of binder has a long DT.

4. Which of the following is not a form of excipients?
a) Paracetamol
b) Disintegrants
c) Lubricants
d) Binders
Answer: a
Clarification: Paracetamol is a drug name. It is the active ingredient. Excipients are all the other additional materials that help in drug formulation e.g. binders, lubricants, disintegrants, buffer, etc.

5. Which of the following is not a limitation granulation?
a) Formation of crystal bridge by the presence of liquid
b) The liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis
c) Increase the cost due to more additional processing
d) The drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs
Answer: c
Clarification: limitation of wet granulation method is Formation of Crystal Bridge by the presence of liquid, the liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis, and the drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs.

6. The agglomerative phase of the communication method grinds the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. But results showed tablets produced are softer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by other methods.

7. Which of these is not a characteristic of tablet formulation by Agglomerative phase of the communication process?
a) Tablets are stronger
b) Usage of more binding agent
c) Rapid dissolution
d) Increase in internal surface area of the granules
Answer: b
Clarification: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by another method. It gave an increased internal surface area of the granules prepared by APOC method.

8. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this type of curve interpret?

a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug
b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: a
Clarification: Tight bonding due to high compression force. This increases the density if the drug molecules per area increasing the hardness, decreasing porosity and also decreases the permeability of the solvent into the drug. This results in the given graph.

9. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this type of curve interpret?

a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug
b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: d
Clarification: This type of curve is seen when both tight bondings of the drug occur along with high compression forces which causes deformation. Deformation can be crushing or fracture of the drug particles into smaller particles.

10. Capsules with bigger particles and intense packing have poor drug release and dissolution rate due to an increase in the pore size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Compression force while the making of tablet and packing density (capsule packing) can inhibit or promote dissolution. Capsules with fine particles and intense packing have poor drug release and dissolution due to a decrease in the pore size between the molecules. Thus giving them poor penetrability into the GI fluids.

11. Which one of them is not a common form of excipients of drug manufacturing?
a) Diluents
b) Binders
c) Sweeteners
d) Essential oils
Answer: d
Clarification: Excipients are added to ensure stability, shelf life, functionalibility, uniform composition, etc. Some of the common excipients are diluents, granulating agents, binders, buffers, sweeteners, lubricants, disintegrants, coatings, emulsifier, colorants, complexing agents, surfactants, etc.

12. Vehicles are the solvent system for the liquefied drug. Which one of them is not an example of a kind of vehicle?
a) Aqueous vehicle
b) Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles
c) Non-aqueous water immiscible vehicles
d) A salt solution of the drug
Answer: d
Clarification: Vehicle is the solvent system for a liquid oral drug. There are 3 types of solvent drug, aqueous vehicle consisting of water, syrup, etc. Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles consisting of propylene glycol, glycerol, sorbitol, etc. Nonaqueous water immiscible vehicles consisting of vegetable oils.

13. Which one of the following will be an example of organic diluents?
a) Starch
b) Dicalcium phosphate
c) Tetracycline
d) Tween 80
Answer: a
Clarification: Tween 80 is a solubilizer. Dicalcium phosphate and tetracycline are inorganic diluents. Starch is organic diluents. Diluents are added to tablets if the required dosage is inadequate to produce necessary bulk.

14. What is the function of a granulating agent in drug formulation?
a) Promote cohesive compacts
b) Added if the required dosage is inadequate so that necessary bulk can be produced
c) Tablets can disintegrate easily
d) Used as solubilizer
Answer: a
Clarification: Binders and granulating agents are used to hold powders together to form compact tablets. They help in the formation of granules and promote cohesive compacts for compressible materials. It ensures that the tablet remains intact after compression.

15. What is the full form of PVP and what is its function in drug formation?
a) Polyvinyl propylene, diluent
b) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, solubilizing agent
c) Polyvinyl propylene, buffering agent
d) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, Binding agent
Answer: d
Clarification: Binding agents are used to holding the powders together to form bigger granules. This helps to ensure the tablet remains intact. PVP is polyvinyl pyrrolidine used as a binding agent in pharmaceutical industries.

250+ TOP MCQs on Prodrugs – Types and Answers Quiz

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Prodrugs – Types”.

1. What is a prodrug?
a) An excipient which helps in creating the environment for the drug-dissolving
b) Chemically drug precursor
c) Excipient of drug formulation
d) A drug which is used by professionals

Answer: b
Clarification: A prodrug is a chemically manufactured inert drug precursor which in biotransformation will give the pharmacologically active drug compound. Prodrugs are inactive when given as a dosage, but upon biotransformation gives active metabolites.

2. A drug which gets bio-transformed rapidly is known as a hard drug.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: A soft drug is a biologically active compound which gets bio-transformed rapidly in vivo and starts the pharmacological activity. A hard drug is one which is resistant to biotransformation and therefore has a long half-life.

3. Which of the following is the correct characteristic of bio precursors/ metabolic precursors?
a) The inert carrier is attached through a chemical bond
b) There is no inert carrier
c) There is a change in pH while the formulation
d) The active drug is converted to its inert form chemically

Answer: d
Clarification: Bioprecursors/ metabolic precursors are obtained after chemical modification of the active drug. They are made to form inert molecules and thus they do not need a carrier. This moiety has the same lipophilicity as the parent drug.

4. “Cascade lantentiation” concept takes into account which kind of prodrugs?
a) Mixed type prodrugs
b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Carrier linked prodrugs

Answer: b
Clarification: In cases, when the drug has to be formulated in different other ways such as ophthalmic, parenteral, oral liquid, etc. The prodrugs are further derivative to a form where only enzymatic conversion to the prodrug has to be done before the later can be cleaved to give the active product.

5. Prodrugs with two active compounds are known as ___________
a) Mixed type prodrugs
b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Mutual prodrug

Answer: d
Clarification: Pro-drugs comprising of 2 pharmacologically active agents coupled together to form a single product. It is made such that on acts as a carrier or other. Bioprecursors/ metabolic precursors are obtained after chemical modification of the active drug. The prodrugs are further derivative to a form where only enzymatic conversion to the prodrug has to be done before the later can be cleaved to give the active product are pro-prodrugs.

6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ideal prodrug?
a) Should rapidly transform, chemically and enzymatically forming the active product
b) Should have intrinsic pharmacological activity
c) The vapour pressure should be less and evaporate easily
d) Apart from an active product, other metabolic fragments should be nontoxic

Answer: c
Clarification: If the vapour pressure of any drug is more if will get converted into gaseous form and thus through exhalation it will be expelled out of the body. The characteristics of an ideal prodrug are, it should rapidly transform, chemically and enzymatically forming the active product, should have intrinsic pharmacological activity, the vapour pressure should be more and evaporate easily, and apart from an active product other metabolic fragments should be non-toxic.

7. Which is the earliest discovered prodrug?
a) Prontosil
b) Sulphanilamide
c) Aspirin
d) Salicylic acid

Answer: a
Clarification: Prontosil is the prodrug for the antibacterial agent sulfanamide in the body. It was the earliest prodrug discovered accidentally. Aspirin is the prodrug of salicylic acid used to reduce gastric irritation.

8. Which of the following is an example of a mutual prodrug?
a) Prontosil is the prodrug for sulfanamide
b) Aspirin is the prodrug of salicylic acid
c) Benorylate prodrug for NSAIDs and paracetamol
d) Diesters pro-prodrug for pilocarpic acid

Answer: c
Clarification: Mutual prodrug is pro-drugs comprising of 2 pharmacologically active agents coupled together to form a single product. Thus, benorylate prodrug for NSAIDs and paracetamol is an example of mutual prodrug.

9. The principle of prodrug design is known as chemical formulation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: In the creation of prodrug, insufficiencies of a drug are corrected through chemical conversion or multiple chemical changes. Due to these chemical conversions which are done to make the drug to become an acceptable form prodrug designing is also known as chemical formulation.

250+ TOP MCQs on Drug Addiction and Abuse – NSAIDs and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Drug Addiction and Abuse – NSAIDs – 1”.

1. Which hormone is a major contributor to the symptoms of inflammation?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

2. Which of the following promotes edema?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Prostaglandins
Answer: d
Clarification: Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin. Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation.

3. Which hormone is a major contributor for pain during inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation it is the main cause behind pain. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins increase the vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

4. Which hormone is a major contributor to chemotaxis while inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Prostaglandins
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Prostaglandins released during inflammation reaction promote edema, causes chemotaxis, leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin. Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and increase mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation.

5. Which hormone is a major contributor for increasing vascular permeability during inflammation?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: a
Clarification: The hormone that acts as a major contributor for increasing vascular permeability during inflammation is histamine. In most cases, it is observed that histamine tends to increase vascular permeability by (NO)-dependent vascular dilation and also with increased blood flow.

6. Which hormone is a major contributor to vasodilation during inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation, it helps to increase the vasodilation during inflammation reaction. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and increase mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

7. Why the redness can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: a
Clarification: The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. And the pain is due to the local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. These are the four signs of inflammation which can be seen in a human body.

8. Why the Heat can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: a
Clarification: Redness, swelling, heating, paining these signs are common during any inflammation reaction. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. And the pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure.

9. Why the swelling can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. And the pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. Redness, swelling, heating, paining these signs are common during any inflammation reaction.

10. Why the pain can be felt during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins
c) Release of enzymes and increased of tissue pressure
d) Influx of phagocytic cells
Answer: c
Clarification: The pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. Bradykinin is the most important pain mediator in an inflammation reaction. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. These are the four signs of inflammation which can be seen in a human body.

11. Which of the following drug is an indole derivative?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: d
Clarification: Anti-inflammatory drugs are of five kinds and these are salicylates, phenylpropionic acids, pyrazalone derivatives, indole derivatives and disease modifying drugs. Example of indole derivative drugs are indomethacine. ASA comes under salicylates. phenylpropionic acids e.g., ibuprofen, ketoprofen, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

12. Which of the following drug is a Phenylpropionic acid derivative?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: b
Clarification: Examples of phenylpropionic acid derivative is ibuprofen, ketoprofen. Salicylates are such as ASA, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, indole derivatives e.g., indomethacin, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

13. Which of the following is an example of salicylates?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: a
Clarification: Anti-inflammatory drugs are of five kinds and these are salicylates, phenylpropionic acids, pyrazalone derivatives, indole derivatives and disease modifying drugs. Salicylates e.g., ASA, phenylpropionic acids e.g., ibuprofen, ketoprofen, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, indole derivatives e.g., indomethacin, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

14. Inflammatory response is an abnormal defense mechanism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The inflammatory response is a normal defense mechanism. But the side effects are undesirable. Normal inflammatory response has an on/off switch. When a bee stings those inflammatory reactions are desirable since these helps us to heal faster. In chronic inflammation something has gone wrong with the off switch. Therefore we need drugs to control the inflammatory reaction.

15. Inflammatory switch does not have an off switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The inflammatory response is a normal (desirable) defense mechanism but the side effects are undesirable. Normal inflammatory response has an on/off switch. In chronic inflammation something has gone wrong with the off switch such as that in arthritis. Our immune system tends to attack our own cells. Therefore we need drugs to control the inflammatory reaction.

250+ TOP MCQs on Controlled Release Medication – Pharmacotherapy of Diabetes and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Controlled Release Medication – Pharmacotherapy of Diabetes ”.

1. Which of the following is the definition for diabetes 1?
a) The immune system destroys beta cells and no more insulin is being produced
b) The body becomes resistant to insulin
c) Insulin is produced but not efficiently used up
d) Receptors for insulin are destroyed

Answer: a
Clarification: Type 1 Diabetes is when the immune system destroys beta cells and no more insulin is being produced. It is the result of pancreas fails to produce enough insulin due to the loss of beta cells. This is also known as “insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus”. The cause of the disease is not known and may be an autoimmune disease.

2. Which one of the following will be characteristics of diabetes type 2?
a) The body becomes resistant to insulin
b) Immune cells destroy beta cells
c) Immune cells destroy kidney
d) Increase of blood sugar

Answer: a
Clarification: Type 2 Diabetes is when the body becomes resistant to insulin, insulin is being produced but not being efficiently used up. It is a condition where the body fails to respond to insulin properly. This is also known as “non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus”. The most common cause will be excessive body weight.

3. What do you understand by the term ‘manifestation’ related to diabetes?
a) The immune system destroys beta cells and no more insulin is being produced
b) The body becomes resistant to insulin
c) Insulin is produced but not efficiently used up
d) Beta cell destruction

Answer: d
Clarification: Manifestation is the process of beta cell destruction which occurs very slowly. Hyperglycemia occurs when 80 – 90% of the beta cells are destroyed. This then triggers stressor event (e. g. illness).

4. What do you mean by polydipsia?
a) Thirst from dehydration
b) Osmotic diuretic like activity being a hyperglycaemic
c) Hunger
d) Weight loss

Answer: a
Clarification: Hyperglycaemia acts as an osmotic diuretic and thus increased the frequency of urination. This leads to thirst from dehydration and the patient tends to drink a lot of water. Polyuria is frequent urination. Hunger and frequent eating is polyphagia. Polydipsia is thirst from dehydration.

5. What do you mean by polyuria?
a) Thirst from dehydration
b) Osmotic diuretic like activity being a hyperglycaemic
c) Hunger
d) Weight loss

Answer: b
Clarification: Polyuria is urination several times a day. This is a common symptom for all diabetes patient. Being hyperglycemia it acts as an osmotic diuretic thus increases the renal fluid absorption and thus urination is maximum. Thirst from dehydration is polydipsia. Hunger is polyphagia.

6. What do you mean by polyphagia?
a) Thirst from dehydration
b) Osmotic diuretic like activity being a hyperglycaemic
c) Hunger
d) Weight loss

Answer: c
Clarification: Polyphagia is the name given to a diabetes patient who is suffering from hunger, and eats more often because his cells are not able to utilize glucose. The patients also suffer from chronic weight loss since the body tends to break down fat and protein to restore energy source.

7. Which of the following is not a natural phenomenon being a diabetes patient?
a) Increased urination
b) Thirst from dehydration
c) Less crave for food
d) Weight loss

Answer: c
Clarification: A person with diabetes will have hunger and will eat more since cells cannot utilize the ongoing glucose concentration of the body. When there is no glucose or the body cannot utilize the glucose the stomach signals the brain for hunger and brain tells us we are hungry as a result diabetes patient feel hungry more often.

8. What is gestational diabetes?
a) The body becomes resistant to insulin
b) Immune cells destroy beta cells
c) Occurs in a pregnant women
d) Increase of blood sugar

Answer: c
Clarification: Apart from Type 1 diabetes mellitus and type 2 Dm there is a 3rd main form of diabetes also known as gestational diabetes. It occurs in pregnant women without previous history of diabetes. High blood sugar levels will be seen in these women. It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrate, fats, and protein by promoting the absorption of carbohydrates especially glucose from the blood into the liver, skeletal muscle, and fat.

9. Which of the following is not a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
a) Casual plasma glucose (non-fasting) is 200 mg/dl
b) Fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dl or higher
c) A two-hour plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dl
d) Casual plasma glucose (non-fasting) is 100 mg/dl

Answer: d
Clarification: A patient is symptomatic plus if his/her casual plasma glucose (non-fasting) is 200 mg/dl or fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dl or higher. It can also be seen by a two-hour plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dl or greater during an oral glucose tolerance test.

10. Which of the following is a symptom for diabetes mellitus?
a) Fever
b) Bones panning
c) Cold and cough
d) Kussmals respirations

Answer: d
Clarification: Kussmals breathing is blowing off carbon dioxide to reverse acidosis. This is done when kidneys are not removing excess acid from the body. Fever, cough, body ache are not a symptom for this disease. Fruity breath, nausea, abdominal pain, dehydration, lethargy, coma, polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

11. Which of the following is a symptom for diabetes mellitus?
a) Fever
b) Bones panning
c) Fruity breath
d) Increase breathing

Answer: c
Clarification: Fever, body pain, an increase in breathing are not a symptom of diabetes mellitus. Fruity breath, Kussmals respiration, nausea, abdominal pain, dehydration, lethargy, coma, polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

12. Clients with hypertension or HDL cholesterol < 35 mg/dL, and/or triglyceride level > 250 mg/dl may have diabetes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Clients with hypertension, HDL cholesterol < 35 mg/dL, and/or triglyceride level > 250 mg/dl have the risk factor for diabetes mellitus. History of diabetes in parents or siblings can give us diabetes mellitus. Obesity, especially of the upper body, possesses a huge risk of diabetes mellitus.

13. Women with a history of gestational diabetes or delivered a bay above 9 pounds don’t have a risk of having diabetes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Women who have a history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, or delivered a baby with birth weight > 9 pounds have the risk factor of diabetes mellitus. Physical inactivity of this generation kids also leads to diabetes mellitus in the later life. Race/ethnicity also have a chance to give us type 2 diabetes. Such as African American, Hispanic, or American Indian origin have more chance of getting diabetes mellitus.

14. Which of the following is a drug for diabetes mellitus?
a) Omeprazole
b) Sulfonylureas
c) Pantoprazole
d) Mannitol

Answer: b
Clarification: Sulfonylureas stimulates pancreatic cells to secrete more insulin and increases the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin. It is used to treat non-obese Type 2 diabetics. Example of the medicine in sulfonylureas class is Glipizide.

15. Which of the following is a drug for diabetes mellitus?
a) Omeprazole
b) Acetanilide
c) Pantoprazole
d) Meglitinide

Answer: d
Clarification: Meglitinide stimulates pancreatic cells to secrete more insulin. It should be taken just before meals, rapid onset, limited duration of action. Major adverse effects are hypoglycemia (low levels of blood sugar). Used in non-obese diabetics i.e. type 2 diabetes. Example: Repaglinide.

 

250+ TOP MCQs on Development of Hybridoma for Monoclonal Antibodies (MABs)

Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Genetic Recombination – Development of Hybridoma for Monoclonal Antibodies (MABs)”.

1. For which discovery did Georges Köhler and César Milstein share the noble prize in 1984?
a) Inventing genome sequencing
b) Discovery the structure of DNA
c) Discovery of B-cell cancer myeloma
d) Discovery of the process of producing monoclonal antibodies

Answer: d
Clarification: The B-cell cancer myeloma was known, researchers understood that these cancerous B-cells all produce a single type of antibody. This theory was used to study the structure of antibodies. Later the process of producing monoclonal antibodies invented by Georges Köhler and César Milstein shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1984 for the discovery.

2. Fight against Bioterrorism is one of the clinical applications of monoclonal antibodies.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, bioterrorism can be fought with the help of Monoclonal antibodies. These are because bioterrorism most of the time means by certain virus, bacteria will be engaged to take down a whole place. That microbe will be having a single antibody being produced in the host cell. Thus, we can harvest these and may have a monoclonal antibody in the future.

3. Biosensors & Microarrays are diagnostic applications of monoclonal antibodies.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Monoclonal antibodies are employed in the manufacturing of biosensors and microarrays. Monoclonal antibodies since they are made from only one single antigen can be used to detect the presence of that antigen in the given sample. It can detect antigens in a very small amount.

4. What is the clinical application of monoclonal antibodies?
a) Biosensors
b) Transplant rejection
c) Infectious disease
d) Purification of drugs

Answer: d
Clarification: Application of monoclonal antibody in the biosensors is a diagnostic application of maps. Using in transplant rejection and infectious disease is the therapeutic application of monoclonal antibodies. Purification of drugs and imaging the target is the clinical application of monoclonal antibody.

5. MAbs act directly when binding to cancer-specific antigens and induce an immunological response to cancer cells.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: mAbs act directly when binding to cancer-specific antigens and induce an immunological response to cancer cells. Such as inducing cancer cell apoptosis, inhibiting growth, or interfering with a key function. This is one of the reasons for the application of monoclonal antibodies in the cancer treatment field.

6. MAbs was modified for delivery of a toxin, radioisotope and __________
a) Enzymes
b) Hormones
c) Drugs
d) Cytokine

Answer: d
Clarification: Monoclonal antibodies are modified to deliver any toxin, radioisotope, cytokine or other active conjugates used for treatment purposes. Bispecific antibodies that can bind with their Fab regions both to the target antigen and to a conjugate or effector cell are also produced. Antibodies similar to human antibodies are produced so that they don’t suffer immune rejections.

7. Bispecific antibodies can bind with their Fab regions both to target antigen and to _____________
a) Other antibodies
b) An effector cell
c) Proteins around
d) Prostaglandins

Answer: b
Clarification: It is possible to design bispecific antibodies. Bispecific antibodies can either bind to 2 antigen or bind with antigen and with another effector cell/conjugate cell. By binding with effector cell, it increases the efficacy of the reactions to happen and thus more chances of getting positive results.

250+ TOP MCQs on Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption and Answers Pdf

Drug Biotechnology Questions and Answers for Freshers on “Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption – 2”.

1. Which one of the following sentences depicts the function of Disintegrants correctly?
a) These agents help in holding the powders together to form granules
b) These agents overcome the cohesive strength of the tablets and help in dissolution
c) These agents help in the flow of granules and reduce friction between particles
d) Added when the required dosage is inadequate
Answer: b
Clarification: Disintegrants are the agents which overcome the cohesive strength and break them when they come in contact with the water. Binders are the agents that help in holding the powders together to form granules. Lubricants help in the flow of granules and reduce friction between particles. Binders are added when required dosage is inadequate.

2. A large amount of binders tends to increase the hardness of tablets.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The proportion of binders in any tablet formulation is very critical. Increase in the amount of binders tends to increase the hardness and decrease the disintegration and dissolution rates of the tablet.

3. An example of lubricants will be __________
a) PVP
b) Carbowaxes
c) CMC
d) Tetracycline
Answer: b
Clarification: PVP is a binding agent. Carbowaxes is a soluble lubricant. CMC is an example of semisynthetic gums. And Tetracycline is diluent.

4. The deleterious effect of various coatings on drug dissolution is shown in orders below. Which one of them is the correct order?
a) Enteric coat > sugar coat > nonenteric film coat
b) Enteric coat > nonenteric film coat > sugar coat
c) Nonenteric film coat > sugar coat > enteric coat
d) Sugar coat > enteric coat > nonenteric film coat
Answer: a
Clarification: The deleterious effect of various coatings on drug dissolution rate is in the following order enteric coat > sugar coat > nonenteric film coat. The dissolution rate of some coatings changes while they age e.g. shellac coated tablets.

5. Which of the following will be an example of an organic suspending agent?
a) CMC
b) MC
c) Acacia
d) Carbowaxes
Answer: c
Clarification: CMC and MC are examples of semisynthetic gums. Acacia is an example of a vegetable drug that is organic. Carbowaxes is an example of a soluble lubricants.

6. Which one of these is not a mechanism of the working of surfactants?
a) Promote wetting by increasing the effective surface area
b) Helps in the dissolution of drug
c) Better membrane contact of the drug
d) Decrease membrane permeability
Answer: d
Clarification: Mechanism involved in the increased absorption of the drug is, promotion of wetting through the increased surface area. These also help in better membrane contact and enhanced membrane permeability.

7. PABA complex is used for the enhancement of ______________
a) Enhanced chelation
b) Enhanced dissolution
c) Enhanced membrane permeability
d) Enhanced lipophilicity
Answer: d
Clarification: Complexing agents are used to altering the physiochemical and biopharmaceutical properties of drugs. PABA complex is used to enhance lipophilicity for better membrane permeability.

8. The concentration of colorant does not affect the drug solubility.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Low concentration water soluble dye have inhibitory effect on the dissolution Rte OF SEVERAL crystalline drugs. The dye molecules get adsorbed on the crystal faces and inhibit drug dissolution.

9. Suspending agents and some sugars can be used as viscosity imparters.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Suspending agents and some of the sugars can be used to increase the viscosity of the drug. This affects the palatability and the pourability of the solution dosage form. This influence drug absorption ways.

Drug Biotechnology for Freshers,