Category: Drug & Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Objective Questions

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Histamine, Bradykinin and Their Antagonists – Pharmacotherapy of Hypertension – 1”.

1. We tell a person has a high blood pressure when the systolic pressure is ____________
a) More than 140 mm Hg
b) More than 90 mm Hg
c) More than 110 mm Hg
d) More than 200 mm Hg
Answer: a
Clarification: A person is told to have a higher blood pressure when the systolic blood pressure is higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is higher than 90 mmHg. Blood pressure is the force of blood exerted on arteries as it flows through them. A normal healthier person has BP systolic less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than 80 mmHg.

2. We tell a person has a high blood pressure when the diastolic pressure is ____________
a) More than 140 mm Hg
b) More than 90 mm Hg
c) More than 110 mm Hg
d) More than 200 mm Hg
Answer: b
Clarification: A person is told to have a higher blood pressure when the diastolic blood pressure is higher than 90 mmHg and the systolic blood pressure is higher than 140 mmHg. Diastolic is the measure of the force of the blood on the artery walls when the ventricles squeeze the blood so that it can go to our different body parts.

3. Which combination of systolic and diastolic pressure tells a person has stage 1 hypertension?
a) Less than 120 mm Hg Systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
b) 120-139 mm Hg Systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic
c) 140-159 mm Hg Systolic and 90-99 mm Hg diastolic
d) More than 160 mm Hg Systolic and more than 100 mm Hg diastolic
Answer: c
Clarification: A person is told to have a higher blood pressure when the systolic blood pressure is higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is higher than 90 mmHg. Blood pressure is the force of blood exerted on arteries as it flows through them. A normal healthier person has BP systolic less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than 80 mmHg. A person has stage 1 hypertension when he/ she has Blood pressure 140-159 mm Hg Systolic and 90-99 mm Hg diastolic and stage 2 hypertension when more than 160 mm Hg Systolic and more than 100 mm Hg diastolic.

4. Which combination of systolic and diastolic pressure tells a person has stage 2 hypertension?
a) Less than 120 mm Hg Systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
b) 120-139 mm Hg Systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic
c) 140-159 mm Hg Systolic and 90-99 mm Hg diastolic
d) More than 160 mm Hg Systolic and more than 100 mm Hg diastolic
Answer: d
Clarification: A person has stage 1 hypertension when he/ she has Blood pressure 140-159 mm Hg Systolic and 90-99 mm Hg diastolic and stage 2 hypertension when more than 160 mm Hg Systolic and more than 100 mm Hg diastolic. A normal healthier person has BP systolic less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than 80 mmHg.

5. On which of the factor the blood pressure depends upon?
a) Nervous system
b) Kidney function
c) Fluid volume
d) Hormonal change
Answer: c
Clarification: Blood pressure depends upon cardiac output, contractility, fluid volume, peripheral vascular resistance. Blood pressure is affected by the nervous system, kidney functions, hormonal changes, capillary fluid shift. A person is told to have a higher blood pressure when the systolic blood pressure is higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is higher than 90 mmHg.

6. On which of the factor the blood pressure is affected by?
a) Nervous system
b) Cardiac output
c) Contractility
d) Peripheral vascular resistance
Answer: a
Clarification: Nervous system doesn’t directly affect the blood pressure of our body. Cardiac output, contractility, peripheral vascular resistance plays a huge role in determining the blood pressure of a person. Blood pressure depends upon cardiac output, contractility, fluid volume, peripheral vascular resistance. Blood pressure is affected by the nervous system, kidney functions, hormonal changes, capillary fluid shift.

7. Which of the following is not a treatment for Hypertension?
a) 1^st line treatment
b) 2^nd line treatment
c) 3^rd line treatment
d) Intake of lots of protein rich food
Answer: d
Clarification: The steps of treating HTN are lifestyle modification, first-line treatment, second-line treatment, third line treatment. Usually, by routine doctor’s visit, one high BP reading does not mean you have HTN thus it is always recommended to take repeated BP reading will be done at different positions, complete physical, medical and family history will be performed, risk factors are identified.

8. Which are the drugs for 1^st line treatment of hypertension?
a) Diuretic
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
c) Increase drug dose
d) Need further studies
Answer: a
Clarification: 1^st line treatment should continue with lifestyle modification, initial drug selection should be diuretic, beta-blocker. If inadequate, continue to second-line treatment which includes adding drugs such as Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, Calcium Channel Blocker. If inadequate, continue to third line treatment increase drug dose or Substitute another drug or add a second drug from another class. If inadequate may need to do further studies serious organ damage may be present.

9. Which are the drugs for 2^nd line treatment of hypertension?
a) Diuretic
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
c) Increase drug dose
d) Need further studies
Answer: b
Clarification: Second-line treatment which includes adding drugs such as Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, Calcium Channel Blocker, Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB), α- blocker, α- and β-blocker. And line should be given when 1^st line treatment with lifestyle modification, initial drug selection should be diuretic, beta-blocker is in adequate. If 2^nd line treatment is inadequate, continue to third line treatment increase drug dose or Substitute another drug or add a second drug from another class. If inadequate may need to do further studies serious organ damage may be present.

10. Which are the drugs for 3^rd line treatment of hypertension?
a) Diuretic
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
c) Increase drug dose
d) Need further studies
Answer: c
Clarification: Third line treatment is increasing drug dose or substitute another drug or add a second drug from another class. 1^st line treatment should continue with lifestyle modification, initial drug selection should be diuretic, beta-blocker. If inadequate, continue to second-line treatment which includes adding drugs such as Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, Calcium Channel Blocker, Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB), α- blocker, α- and β-blocker.

Drug Biotechnology Assessment Questions and Answers on “Biopharmaceuticals – Parenteral Controlled Release Systems”.

1. Which of the following should not be a property of implants?
a) Environmental stable
b) Biostable
c) Non-toxic
d) Nonremovable

Answer: d
Clarification: The implants should be environment-friendly and should not breakdown under the influence of heat, light, air or moisture. It should be biostable, biocompatible, non-toxic and non-carcinogenic. It should be removable when required. It should be able to release medication at a constant predetermined rate.

2. Which is the disadvantage for implants?
a) More effective
b) More prolonged action
c) Significantly small dose
d) Need of microsurgery

Answer: d
Clarification: The advantages of implants are these are more effective, have prolonged action, and a small dose is sufficient for the patient. The major disadvantage of such systems is that microsurgery is required for the implantation device. Although some implants can be implanted by specially designed implant syringe.

3. Subcutaneous tissue is an ideal location for implants?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Due to a very easy access for the implants the subcutaneous tissue became an ideal location for implanting. Moreover it has poor perfusion, slow drug absorption and less reactivity to many of the foreign materials. The system is generally prepared as implantable flexible or rigid rods or spherical tablets. Polymers used for making such implants are polymethacrylates, elastomers, etc.

4. Which of the following drugs are used in implants?
a) Pantoprazole
b) Mannitol
c) Amlodipine
d) Morphine antagonist

Answer: d
Clarification: Drugs which are generally used for such implants are steroids like contraceptives, morphine antagonists like naltrexone for opioid-dependent addicts. Polymers used for making such implants are polymethacrylates, elastomers, etc. The system is generally prepared as implantable flexible or rigid rods or spherical tablets.

5. Which of the following is a false statement for vapour pressure pump?
a) The device consists of two chambers
b) A chamber contains the drug solution
c) Drug solution chamber is separated by rigid walls
d) Vapour chamber contains vaporizable fluids

Answer: c
Clarification: The disc-shaped device consists of two chambers. The infuscate chamber consists if the drug solution which will be separated by a freely movable flexible bellow from the vapor chamber containing vaporizable fluids. The volatile liquid vaporizes at body temperature after implantation thus creating vapour pressure which compresses and expels the drug through a series of flow regulators.

6. After implantation of a vapour pressure pump, the body has to get heated by exercising so that the volatile liquid vaporizes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: After implantation, the volatile liquid vaporizes at the body temperature and creates a vapor pressure that compresses and expels the drug through a series of flow regulators at a constant rate. Insulin and morphine have been successfully delivered by such implants. The disc-shaped device consists of two chambers. The infuscate chamber consists if the drug solution which will be separated by a freely movable flexible bellow from the vapor chamber containing vaporizable fluids.

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of battery powered pumps?
a) Free flowing powders
b) The system is programmed to release drugs at a controlled rate
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Administration of emulsions

Answer: b
Clarification: Battery powered pumps are such that they are programmed to release drugs of a certain amount when the range of those components is differing from the normal value. Their design is such that the drug moves towards the exit and there is no backflow of the liquid. They are of two types these are peristaltic pump and solenoid driven reciprocating pump.

8. The drug loading in resealed erythrocytes can be done by 1st immersing the cells in a buffered hypertonic solution.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: No the cells have to be immersed in a hypotonic solution. The cells must be immersed in a buffered hypotonic solution of drug which causes these cells to rupture and release hemoglobin and trap the medication. The restoration can be done by the restoration of the isotonicity and incubating them at 37°C, the cells reseal and are ready to use.

9. How are MLV liposomes made?
a) 2-10 bilayers of lipid
b) Series of concentric bilayers of lipid
c) The single bilayer of lipid
d) 100 bilayer of lipid

Answer: b
Clarification: MLV are also known as multilamellar vesicles. These liposomes are made of series of concentric bilayers of lipids enclosing a small internal volume. 2-10 bilayers are lipid is used to make OLV. A single bilayer of lipid is used to make ULV.

10. How are OLV liposomes made?
a) 2-10 bilayers of lipid
b) Series of concentric bilayers of lipid
c) A single bilayer of lipid
d) 100 bilayer of lipid

Answer: a
Clarification: OLV is also known as oligolamellar vesicles. These are made up of 2-10 bilayers of lipid surrounding a large internal volume which will be consisting of the drug. MLV is made up of a series of concentric bilayers of lipids. ULV is made of a single layer of lipids. There can be varying sizes from 20-40 nm to 1000 nm.

Drug Biotechnology Assessment Questions,

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Drugs Distribution – Volume”.

1. In equation X=Vd C, what does Vd denotes?
a) Density
b) Volume of blood
c) Volume of body
d) The volume of the body fluid in which the drug is getting dissolved
Answer: d
Clarification: Concentration of drug in plasma C is directly proportional to the amount of drug in body X. The proportionality constant Vd has the unit of volume and is also called the apparent volume of distribution. It is the volume of the body fluid into which a drug is dissolved.

2. The amount of drug in the body is directly proportional to the concentration of the drug in plasma.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Concentration of drug in plasma C is directly proportional to the amount of drug in body X. The proportionality constant Vd has the unit of volume and is also called the apparent volume of distribution. It is the volume of the body fluid into which a drug is dissolved.

3. The body water has 3 distinct compartments. Which one of these is not one of the compartments?
a) Vascular fluid
b) Intracellular fluid
c) Extracellular fluid
d) Between the tissue layers
Answer: d
Clarification: The body water has 3 distinct compartments. The name of the compartments is vascular fluid/ blood, extracellular fluid (excluding plasma), intracellular fluid (excluding blood cells).

4. How can you determine the extracellular fluid volume?
a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) D20
d) Tritiated water
Answer: b
Clarification: ECF volume can be determined by substances which can easily penetrate the capillary membrane and distribute to the whole ECF but will not cross the membrane for e.g. Na+, Cl^–, Br^–, SCN^–, SO₄^2-.

5. How a patient’s plasma volume can be determined?
a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) D20
d) Tritiated water
Answer: a
Clarification: The plasma volume can be determined by the use of high molecular weight dyes or substances which can easily get bind to plasma albumin. E.g. dyes like Evans blue, indocyanine green, I-131 albumin.

6. The total body water volume can be determined by using high molecular weight dyes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The plasma volume can be determined by the use of high molecular weight dyes or substances which can easily get bind to plasma albumin. Total body water can be determined by heavy water or tritiated water and lipid soluble substances like antipyrine.

7. How will you determine the intracellular fluid volume?
a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) Difference between total body water and ECF volume
d) Tritiated water
Answer: c
Clarification: The intracellular fluid volume can be determined by finding out the difference between the TBW and the ECF volume. The intracellular fluid volume is approximately 27 litres.

8. What will be the apparent volume of distribution of warfarin?
a) The apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution
b) The apparent volume of distribution is more than the true volume of distribution
c) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the true volume of distribution
d) Warfarin is not a medicine
Answer: a
Clarification: Drugs which bind to plasma protein or other blood components such as that of warfarin, their apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution. The volume of distribution of these drugs lies between blood volume and total body water volume.

9. What will bet the apparent volume of distribution of drugs which binds selectively to extravascular tissues?
a) The apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution
b) The apparent volume of distribution is more than the true volume of distribution
c) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the true volume of distribution
d) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the volume of extravascular tissues
Answer: b
Clarification: Drugs which binds selectively to extravascular tissues have an apparent volume of distribution is more than the true volume of distribution. The volume of distribution of these drugs is always greater than 42 litres or total body water volume. For example, chloroquine has volume distribution of approximately 15,000 litres.

10. Factors altering the binding of the drug to the blood increases the volume of distribution of the drug and the factors that influence drug binding to the extravascular component decreases the volume of distribution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Factors altering the binding of the drug to the blood increases the volume of distribution of the drug and the factors that influence drug binding to the extravascular component decreases the volume of distribution. Other factors that influence the volume of distribution are changes in tissue perfusion, permeability, changes in physicochemical characteristics of the drug.

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Pharmacokinetic Models”.

1. Which of the following is not a mechanism for pharmacokinetic analysis?
a) Compartment analysis
b) Non compartment analysis
c) Physiologic modeling
d) Human model
Answer: d
Clarification: There are three different approaches to the pharmacokinetic analysis of experimental data. These are compartment modeling, Noncompartment modeling, physiological modeling. There no such thing called a human model.

2. In which of the following models the body is considered to be composed of several compartments?
a) Compartment model
b) Noncompartment model
c) Physiologic model
d) Human model
Answer: a
Clarification: In the compartmental model, the body is considered to be composed of several compartments. Tissues which are approximately similar in drug distribution characteristics form a single compartment. These compartments are imaginary and not physiologic or anatomic region.

3. In which of the model peripheral compartments are connected to a central compartment?
a) Compartment model
b) Caternary model
c) Physiologic model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: d
Clarification: Mammillary model is the most common compartment model used in pharmacokinetics. This method has one or more peripheral compartments connected to the central compartment. The central compartment comprises of plasma and highly perfused tissue such as lungs, livers, kidneys, etc.

4. Which organs will make up the peripheral compartment?
a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Kidneys
d) Pancreas
Answer: d
Clarification: The central compartment consists of highly perfused tissues such as that of lungs, kidneys, liver, etc. The peripheral compartment or tissue compartment consists of organs which are of low vascularity and poor perfusion.

5. What type of drug administration will have the shown compartment model?

a) Intravenous administration
b) Oral administration
c) Rectal administration
d) Sublingual administration
Answer: a
Clarification: There is no arrow entering the 1^st compartment itself, this means whatever the administration is it directly goes into the blood. In intravenous administration, the blood is considered to be the 1^st compartment. Since one single compartment is shown it will be intravenous administration. K10 is the first order elimination rate constant.

6. What type of drug administration will have the shown compartment model?

a) Intravenous administration
b) Oral administration
c) Rectal administration
d) Sublingual administration
Answer: a
Clarification: There is no arrow entering the 1^st compartment itself, this means whatever the administration is it directly goes into the blood. In intravenous administration, the blood is considered to be the 1^st compartment, this blood will be moving to organs like lungs, kidneys, liver, etc. Since one single compartment is shown it will be intravenous administration. Ko1 is the rate constant, i.e. the first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate constant. The 2nd compartment is for the organs with poor perfusion.

7. What type of drug administration will have the shown compartment model?

a) Intravenous administration
b) Oral administration
c) Rectal administration
d) Extravascular administration
Answer: d
Clarification: There is an arrow entering the 1^st compartment, thus this one compartment model will be for extravascular administration such as oral, rectal, vaginal, etc. The 1^st compartment is shown for the blood which will be passing through the liver, lungs, kidneys, etc. Ko1 is the rate constant, i.e. the first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate constant.

8. What type of drug administration will have the shown compartment model?

a) Intravenous administration
b) Oral administration
c) Rectal administration
d) Sublingual administration
Answer: d
Clarification: There is an arrow entering the 1^st compartment. Thus this two-compartment model is for extravascular administration. The 2nd compartment is for the organs with poor perfusion. Ko1 is the rate constant, i.e. the first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate constant. K12 and K21 is the rate constant for the absorption into the organs of the 2nd compartment and elimination from the 2nd compartment organs.

9. In which model compartments are joined in series?
a) Compartment model
b) Caternary model
c) Physiologic model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: b
Clarification: In Caternary model, the compartments are joined to one another in a series like compartments. This is not observable anatomically since various organs are directly linked to the blood compartment. Mammillary model is the most common compartment model used in pharmacokinetics. This method has one or more peripheral compartments connected to the central compartment.

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the caternary compartment model?
a) It gives a visual representation of various rate processes in drug disposition
b) It shows how many rate constants are necessary
c) Compartments and parameters bear a relationship with physiologic functions
d) Useful in predicting drug
Answer: c
Clarification: In the caternary model, compartments and parameters are not in a relationship with the physiological functions of the species. This is a disadvantage of the caternary model. Caternary model gives a visual representation of various rate processes, it shows how many rate constants are necessary, etc.

11. In noncompartmental analysis, Mean residence time is equal to _____________
a) The area under the first moment curve/area under the zero moment curve
b) The area under the zero moment’s curve/area under the first moment curve
c) 1 / Area under the first-moment curve
d) 1/ Area under the zero moment curve
Answer: a
Clarification: For noncompartmental analysis, the mean residence time is equal to the area under the first moment curve (AUMC) / area under the zero moment curve (AUC). AUMC is obtained from a plot of plasma drug concentration and time versus time t.

12. Which pharmacokinetic model is drawn on the basis of anatomic and physiologic data?
a) Compartment model
b) Caternary model
c) Physiologic model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: c
Clarification: The physiologic model is drawn on the basis of anatomic and physiologic data. Thus, it represents a more realistic picture of drug disposition in various organs and tissues. The number of compartments to be added depends on the drug that how many organs the drug will get distributed to.

13. Which kind of pharmacokinetic model is shown in the picture?

a) Physiologic model
b) Compartment model
c) Noncompartment model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: a
Clarification: In this model we can see compartments depending on each organ. The physiologic model is made on the basis of known anatomic and physiologic data, it presents a more realistic idea of drug disposition in various organs. Organs which have no drug disposition are excluded and organs, where drug disposition occurs, are taken into account.

14. Which of the following will be a disadvantage for the physiologic model?
a) Prediction of drug concentration in various body regions
b) Correlation of data in several animal species
c) Obtaining experimental data for each of the organs
d) The model gives an exact description of the drug concentration-time profile for any organ
Answer: c
Clarification: The advantages of physiologic model are, concentration of the drug in various body parts can be predicted on the basis of organ or tissue volume, the model gives an exact description of the drug concentration-time profile for any organ, correlation of data in several animal species is possible and the disadvantage is that obtaining experimental data for each an every organ is difficult.

15. Which model is also known as membrane permeation rate limited?
a) Physiologic model
b) Compartment model
c) Noncompartment model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: a
Clarification: Physiologic models are made with the assumption that the drug movement within a body region is much more rapid than its rate of delivery to that region, this assumption will be applicable to highly membrane permeable drugs i.e. drugs with low molecular weight, nonionized and lipophilic drugs. For highly polar, ionized and charged drugs, the model is referred to as membrane permeation rate-limited.

Drug Biotechnology MCQs on “Histamine, Bradykinin and Their Antagonists – Pharmacotherapy of Hypertension – 2”.

1. Choose the correct option for the marked place.

a) Decrease of calcium ion
b) Increase of potassium volume
c) Increase of fluid volume
d) Decrease of fluid volume
Answer: c
Clarification: Excess sodium intake leads to an increase in fluid volume. If there are fewer nephrons that imply decreased surface for filtration thus the renal sodium retention will be higher. The preload will be higher thus the blood pressure will be high. Thus hypertension patients are prescribed not to have much sodium intake.

2. Choose the correct option for the marked place.

a) Decrease of calcium ion
b) Increasing contractility
c) Increase of fluid volume
d) Decrease of fluid volume
Answer: b
Clarification: Stress leads to decreased filtration surface for the nephrons, over activity of the sympathetic nervous system and excess secretion of renin-angiotensin. Over activity of the sympathetic nervous system leads to an increase of the contractility of the blood vessel. Thus narrowing of the blood vessel means more fluid flowing through a narrow route and an increase of the pressure per sq. centimetre. This increases the blood pressure.

3. Which enzyme should be present for the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?

a) Renin
b) Angiotensin converting enzyme
c) Calcium ions
d) Calcium anhydrase inhibitors
Answer: a
Clarification: The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney release renin, this renin helps to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin converting enzyme helps to convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II which gets attached to the angiotensin II receptor sites present in blood vessels and capillaries of lungs. Calcium channel blockers work in the vascular smooth muscle and decrease muscle contraction.

4. Which of the flowing enzyme should be present in the marked place?

a) Renin
b) Angiotensin converting enzyme
c) Calcium ions
d) Calcium anhydrase inhibitors
Answer: b
Clarification: Renin is a very important enzyme which is used to convert the Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I. The renin is releases by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the presence of angiotensin converting enzyme. Angiotensin converting enzyme gets attached to the angiotensin II receptor sites present in blood vessels and capillaries of lungs.

5. Which should be done if the 3rd line treatment of hypertension is not enough for a patient?
a) Diuretic
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
c) Increase drug dose
d) Need further studies
Answer: d
Clarification: 1st line treatment should continue with lifestyle modification, initial drug selection should be diuretic, beta-blocker. If inadequate, continue to second-line treatment which includes adding drugs such as Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor, Calcium Channel Blocker, Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB), α- blocker, α- and β-blocker. If inadequate, continue to third line treatment increase drug dose or Substitute another drug or add a second drug from another class. If inadequate may need to do further studies serious organ damage may be present.

6. Where β1 beta receptors are found mostly in the body?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Lungs
Answer: c
Clarification: Beta blockers are Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers – they block the action of Adrenalin and Noradrenaline (SNS stimulants), which are involved in “Fight-or-flight’ response. There are two types of Beta receptors β1 – found mostly in the heart and β2 – found mostly in the lungs.

7. Which of the drug is a type of ACE inhibitor?
a) Captopril
b) Irbesartan
c) Amlodipine
d) Furosemide
Answer: a
Clarification: Diuretics example is furosemide, Hydrochlorothiazide. A beta-blockers example is Atenolol, Propranolol. ACE inhibitors are captopril, enalapril. Calcium channel blocker examples are amlodipine, Diltiazem.

8. Beta-blockers increase blood flow to the kidneys.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Action of Beta-Blockers are blocked vasoconstriction, decrease heart rate, and decrease cardiac muscle contraction. It also tends to increase blood flow to the kidneys leading to a decrease in the release of renin. Beta blockers are Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers – they block the action of Adrenalin and Noradrenaline (SNS stimulants), which are involved in “Fight-or-flight’ response.

9. There are many side effects of beta blockers including fatigue, blurred vision, impotence, bradycardia, pulmonary edema.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The side effects of Beta blockers are fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, weakness, blurred vision, stuffy nose, impotence, rash, bradycardia, pulmonary edema. Treatment of side effects is changing position slowly, sit at the edge of bed or chair for a few minutes before standing up, drink an adequate amount of fluids, contact physician in more serious case to adjust the dose or change the medication.

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