Category: Drug & Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Objective Questions

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Opioid Analgesics”.

1. What are opioid analgesics?
a) Render a specific portion of the body insensitive to pain
b) Render the full body of the patient insensitive to pain
c) Render insensitive to pain by binding to opioid receptors
d) Render a specific CNS of the body insensitive to pain
Answer: c
Clarification: Analgesics, or pain killers, that bind to opioid receptors which are found principally in the CNS and Gastrointestinal tract. Most of the time increase the pain threshold level thus decreasing the patient’s perception of the occurring pain.

2. Which of the following are natural opiates?
a) Codeine
b) Oxycodone
c) Fentanyl
d) Endomorphins
Answer: a
Clarification: Natural opiates are alkaloid contained in the resin of the opium poppy including morphine and codeine. Semi-synthetic opiates are created from natural opiates such as hydromorphone, oxycodone, and diacetylmorphine. Fully synthetic opioids are such as fentanyl, methadone, etc.

3. Which of the following are semi-synthetic opiates?
a) Codeine
b) Oxycodone
c) Fentanyl
d) Endomorphins
Answer: b
Clarification: Semi-synthetic opiates are created from natural opiates such as hydromorphone, oxycodone, and diacetylmorphine. These are mad by simple modification of the existing natural chemical structure of the compound making it more potent, less toxic etc. Natural opiates are alkaloid contained in the resin of the opium poppy including morphine and codeine. Fully synthetic opioids are such as fentanyl, methadone, etc.

4. Which of the following are fully synthetic opioids?
a) Codeine
b) Oxycodone
c) Fentanyl
d) Endomorphins
Answer: c
Clarification: Fully synthetic opioids are such as fentanyl, methadone, etc. These are fully made in the laboratories by the researchers. Most of them are made by mimicking the existing structures. Natural opiates are alkaloid contained in the resin of the opium poppy including morphine and codeine. Semi-synthetic opiates are created from natural opiates such as hydromorphone, oxycodone, and diacetylmorphine.

5. Which of the following are endogenous opioid peptides?
a) Codeine
b) Oxycodone
c) Fentanyl
d) Endomorphins
Answer: d
Clarification: Endogenous opioid peptides are produced naturally in the body, such as endorphins, Endomorphins, etc. Heroin and morphine exert their effects by mimicking naturally occurring substances, called endogenous opioid peptides or endorphins. Natural opiates are alkaloid contained in the resin of the opium poppy including morphine and codeine. Semi-synthetic opiates are created from natural opiates such as hydromorphone, oxycodone, and diacetylmorphine. Fully synthetic opioids are such as fentanyl, methadone, etc.

6. How does the general opioids function?
a) Render a specific portion of the body insensitive to pain
b) Render the full body of the patient insensitive to pain
c) Render insensitive to pain by decreasing the pain threshold
d) Render a specific CNS of the body insensitive to pain
Answer: c
Clarification: In general, opioids act upon mu-, delta-, and kappa-receptors on the brain and spinal cord neurons producing analgesia via decreased neuronal transmitter release. Opioid most of the times appear to work by elevating the pain threshold, thus decreases the brain’s awareness of pain in the patient’s body. Mu-binds morphine strongest. K-safest analgesic due to less dangerous side effects.

7. Which of the following side effects of morphine is the most dangerous?
a) Excitation
b) Nausea
c) Constipation
d) Tolerance and dependence
Answer: d
Clarification: Dangerous side effects are those of tolerance and dependence, allied with the effects morphine can have on breathing. The most common cause of death from morphine overdose is suffocation. These side effects in one drug are particularly dangerous and lead to severe withdrawal symptoms when the drug is no longer taken.

8. What is opiophobia?
a) Fear of opioid plant
b) Fear of drugs
c) Fear of prescribing opioid drugs
d) Fear of anesthesia
Answer: c
Clarification: The fear of prescribing opioid pain medications is known as “opiophobia”. Although physical dependence and tolerance may develop, this should not prevent physicians from prescribing medicine to needy patients. No patient should ever wish for death because of a physician’s reluctance to use adequate amounts of effective opioids. Physical dependence is not equivalent to addiction.

9. Which of the following is the short-term effect of heroin?
a) Euphoria
b) Infection of the heart lining
c) Addiction
d) Decreased function of the liver
Answer: a
Clarification: Short term effects of heroin are in the central nervous system it will create euphoria, alternately alert and drowsy state. The mouth become dry, warm flushing skin and the muscle becomes weak, slowed breathing. The long-term effect of heroin is such as addiction, tolerance, dependence, the addicted person will have collapsed veins, infection of heart lining and valves, the liver will have decreased function.

10. Which of the following is the long term effect of heroine?
a) Dryness of mouth
b) Collapsed veins
c) Muscle weakness
d) Euphoria
Answer: b
Clarification: The long term effect of heroin is such as addiction, tolerance, dependence, the addicted person will have collapsed veins, infection of the heart lining and valves, the liver will have decreased function. Short term effects of heroine are in the central nervous system it will create euphoria, alternately alert and drowsy state. The mouth become dry, warm flushing skin and the muscle becomes weak, slowed breathing.

11. What is the antagonist for heroin?
a) Naloxone
b) Oxycodone
c) Fentanyl
d) Endomorphins
Answer: a
Clarification: A heroin overdose is usually treated with an opioid antagonist, such as naloxone (Narcan) which has a high affinity for opioid receptors but does not activate them. Many death are caused due to the overdoses caused by interaction with depressant drugs like alcohol.

12. Which of the following Fentanyl analogues is ultra-short acting analgesic?
a) Alfentanyl
b) Sufentanil
c) Remifentanil
d) Carfentanil
Answer: a
Clarification: Alfentanil (Alfenta) is an ultra-short acting (5-10 minutes) analgesic. Sufentanil 5 to 10 times more potent than fentanyl. Remifentanil currently the shortest acting opioid. Carfentanil has analgesic potency 10,000 times that of morphine.

13. Which of the following fentanyl analogue is used in heart surgery?
a) Alfentanyl
b) Sufentanil
c) Remifentanil
d) Carfentanil
Answer: b
Clarification: Sufentanil, a potent analgesic, 5 to 10 times more potent than fentanyl for use in heart surgery. Alfentanil, ultra-short acting analgesic. Remifentanil, the shortest acting opioid, has the benefit of rapid offset, even after prolonged infusions. Carfentanil has analgesic potency 10,000 times that of morphine and is used in veterinary practice.

14. Which of the following is the shortest acting fentanyl analogue?
a) Alfentanyl
b) Sufentanil
c) Remifentanil
d) Carfentanil
Answer: c
Clarification: Remifentanil, currently the shortest acting opioid, has the benefit of rapid offset, even after prolonged infusions. Alfentanil, ultra-short acting i.e. 5-10 minutes analgesic. Sufentanil, a potent analgesic 5 to 10 times more potent than fentanyl for use in heart surgery. Carfentanil is used in veterinary practice.

15. Which of the following fentanyl analogue is being used in veterinary practice?
a) Alfentanyl
b) Sufentanil
c) Remifentanil
d) Carfentanil
Answer: d
Clarification: Alfentanil, ultra-short acting analgesic. Sufentanil, a potent analgesic (5 to 10 times more potent than fentanyl) for use in heart surgery. Remifentanil has the benefit of rapid offset, even after prolonged infusions. Carfentanil has analgesic potency 10,000 times that of morphine and is used in veterinary practice to immobilize certain large animals such as elephants.

Drug Biotechnology Question Bank on “Controlled Release Medication – Prescription Writing – 2”.

1. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken in the morning?
a) Mane
b) Midi
c) Nocte
d) Eve
Answer: a
Clarification: Various drug has various different timing of administration such as early morning in empty stomach, after dinner, after lunch, etc. Thus when a dosage has to be taken in early morning doctors write mane indication morning on the prescription. Midi means take on the midday. Nocte means take at night.

2. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken in the midday?
a) Mane
b) Midi
c) Nocte
d) Eve
Answer: b
Clarification: Thus when a drug has to be taken on the midday the doctor will write midi indicating you should take the drug in the midday. Mane means take in the morning. Nocte means take at night.

3. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken in the night time?
a) Mane
b) Midi
c) Nocte
d) Eve
Answer: c
Clarification: Various drug has various different timing of administration such as early morning in empty stomach, after dinner, after lunch, etc. Thus when a doctor writes nocte on a prescription that clearly tells that we should take the medicine at night. Mane means the medicine has to be taken in the morning. Midi means the drug has to be taken in the midday.

4. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken before food?
a) a.c.
b) p.c.
c) p.r.n.
d) p.r.
Answer: a
Clarification: When a doctor writes a.c. on prescription for a drug that means you should take it before food. P.c. means after food. P.r.n. means the drug can be taken as required. P.r means the dosage has to be given rectally.

5. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken after food?
a) a.c.
b) p.c.
c) p.r.n.
d) p.r.
Answer: b
Clarification: P.c. means after food. That means the patient should take in the full stomach. When a doctor writes a.c. on prescription for a drug that means you should take it before food. P.r.n. means the drug can be taken as required. P.r means the dosage has to be given rectally.

6. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken as required?
a) a.c.
b) p.c.
c) p.r.n.
d) p.r.
Answer: c
Clarification: P.r.n. means the drug can be taken as required. That means whenever the patient feels like he has to take the medicine he will take. Such as paracetamol given only when the patient feels feverish. When a doctor writes a.c. on prescription for a drug that means you should take it before food. P.c. means after food. P.r means the dosage has to be given rectally.

7. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken through a subcutaneous route?
a) p.o.
b) s.c.
c) p.r.
d) i.m.
Answer: b
Clarification: Whenever a drug has to be injected subcutaneously the doctor will write s.c. whenever the drug has to be taken orally the doctor will write p.o. for intramuscular the doctor will write i.m. for intravenous the doctor will write i.v. for rectal administration, the doctor will write p.r.

8. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken through the oral route?
a) p.o.
b) s.c.
c) p.r.
d) i.m.
Answer: a
Clarification: Whenever a drug has to be injected subcutaneously the doctor will write s.c. whenever the drug has to be taken orally the doctor will write p.o., drugs such as paracetamol, pantoprazole, etc. will be given orally. These drugs will have extra coating so that they do get dissolved by the acidic environment. For intramuscular the doctor will write i.m. for intravenous the doctor will write i.v. for rectal administration, the doctor will write p.r.

9. What do you write on the prescription when the dosage has to be taken through rectal route?
a) p.o.
b) s.c.
c) p.r.
d) i.m.
Answer: c
Clarification: Whenever a drug has to be injected subcutaneously the doctor will write s.c. Many drugs when has to be given to kids will be given rectally. Since for kids injection or orally can be difficult rectally is a better way.

10. A doctor should specify why any drug was started, stopped or the dose changed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A doctor should list all medicines including dose, route, and frequency clearly on a prescription. 50% of misunderstanding happens with drug consumption due to miscommunications between the doctor and the patient. The doctor should also specify any changes to medicines and why they were started, stopped or the dose changed.

11. The 3^rd part of a prescription is prefaced by which of the following?
a) Mitte
b) Sig
c) Rx
d) Eve
Answer: a
Clarification: Third part of the prescription specifies the quantity to be dispensed. Traditionally prefaced by Mitte or M: For amoxicillin may specify one week’s supply M: 1 week supply. The largest quantity dispensed is 3 months’ supply except, for oral contraceptive which is 6 months’ supply.

12. The 2^nd part of a prescription is prefaced by which of the following?
a) Mitte
b) Sig
c) Rx
d) Eve
Answer: b
Clarification: Second part of prescription are the instructions that go on the label. Traditionally begins with Sig. This is short for Signa which means a mark or write. For amoxicillin this may be written as Sig: i t.i.d. p.o.

13. The 1^st part of a prescription is prefaced by which of the following?
a) Mitte
b) Sig
c) Rx
d) Eve
Answer: c
Clarification: Rx or Recipe (translates as Taking thou). If a prescription is for amoxicillin this part of the prescription may read as Rx Amoxicillin caps 250 mg or Rx Amoxicillin syrup 125mg/5ml. The first part of the prescription lists the name of the medicine, formulation and the strength of the medicine.

To practice Drug Biotechnology Question Bank,

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption – 1”.

1. Which form of drug formulation has disintegration time?
a) Injections
b) Syrups
c) Capsules and Tablets
d) Only tablets
Answer: c
Clarification: Disintegration time is of importance in the case of solid dosage forms like tablets and capsules. Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles.

2. Which tablets have longer Disintegration time?
a) Single coated tablets
b) Uncoated tablets
c) Sugar-coated tablets
d) Capsules
Answer: c
Clarification: Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles. Enteric coated tablets are coated to protect the drug from the acidic environment of the stomach. Sugar coated ones have long DT.

3. Disintegration time is directly proportional to the amount of binder present in the tablet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Disintegration of a tablet is directly proportional to the amount of binder present and the compression force i.e. the hardness of the tablet. A hard tablet with a large amount of binder has a long DT.

4. Which of the following is not a form of excipients?
a) Paracetamol
b) Disintegrants
c) Lubricants
d) Binders
Answer: a
Clarification: Paracetamol is a drug name. It is the active ingredient. Excipients are all the other additional materials that help in drug formulation e.g. binders, lubricants, disintegrants, buffer, etc.

5. Which of the following is not a limitation granulation?
a) Formation of crystal bridge by the presence of liquid
b) The liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis
c) Increase the cost due to more additional processing
d) The drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs
Answer: c
Clarification: limitation of wet granulation method is Formation of Crystal Bridge by the presence of liquid, the liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis, and the drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs.

6. The agglomerative phase of the communication method grinds the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. But results showed tablets produced are softer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by other methods.

7. Which of these is not a characteristic of tablet formulation by Agglomerative phase of the communication process?
a) Tablets are stronger
b) Usage of more binding agent
c) Rapid dissolution
d) Increase in internal surface area of the granules
Answer: b
Clarification: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by another method. It gave an increased internal surface area of the granules prepared by APOC method.

8. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this type of curve interpret?

a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug
b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: a
Clarification: Tight bonding due to high compression force. This increases the density if the drug molecules per area increasing the hardness, decreasing porosity and also decreases the permeability of the solvent into the drug. This results in the given graph.

9. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this type of curve interpret?

a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug
b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: d
Clarification: This type of curve is seen when both tight bondings of the drug occur along with high compression forces which causes deformation. Deformation can be crushing or fracture of the drug particles into smaller particles.

10. Capsules with bigger particles and intense packing have poor drug release and dissolution rate due to an increase in the pore size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Compression force while the making of tablet and packing density (capsule packing) can inhibit or promote dissolution. Capsules with fine particles and intense packing have poor drug release and dissolution due to a decrease in the pore size between the molecules. Thus giving them poor penetrability into the GI fluids.

11. Which one of them is not a common form of excipients of drug manufacturing?
a) Diluents
b) Binders
c) Sweeteners
d) Essential oils
Answer: d
Clarification: Excipients are added to ensure stability, shelf life, functionalibility, uniform composition, etc. Some of the common excipients are diluents, granulating agents, binders, buffers, sweeteners, lubricants, disintegrants, coatings, emulsifier, colorants, complexing agents, surfactants, etc.

12. Vehicles are the solvent system for the liquefied drug. Which one of them is not an example of a kind of vehicle?
a) Aqueous vehicle
b) Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles
c) Non-aqueous water immiscible vehicles
d) A salt solution of the drug
Answer: d
Clarification: Vehicle is the solvent system for a liquid oral drug. There are 3 types of solvent drug, aqueous vehicle consisting of water, syrup, etc. Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles consisting of propylene glycol, glycerol, sorbitol, etc. Nonaqueous water immiscible vehicles consisting of vegetable oils.

13. Which one of the following will be an example of organic diluents?
a) Starch
b) Dicalcium phosphate
c) Tetracycline
d) Tween 80
Answer: a
Clarification: Tween 80 is a solubilizer. Dicalcium phosphate and tetracycline are inorganic diluents. Starch is organic diluents. Diluents are added to tablets if the required dosage is inadequate to produce necessary bulk.

14. What is the function of a granulating agent in drug formulation?
a) Promote cohesive compacts
b) Added if the required dosage is inadequate so that necessary bulk can be produced
c) Tablets can disintegrate easily
d) Used as solubilizer
Answer: a
Clarification: Binders and granulating agents are used to hold powders together to form compact tablets. They help in the formation of granules and promote cohesive compacts for compressible materials. It ensures that the tablet remains intact after compression.

15. What is the full form of PVP and what is its function in drug formation?
a) Polyvinyl propylene, diluent
b) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, solubilizing agent
c) Polyvinyl propylene, buffering agent
d) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, Binding agent
Answer: d
Clarification: Binding agents are used to holding the powders together to form bigger granules. This helps to ensure the tablet remains intact. PVP is polyvinyl pyrrolidine used as a binding agent in pharmaceutical industries.

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Drug Addiction and Abuse – NSAIDs – 1”.

1. Which hormone is a major contributor to the symptoms of inflammation?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

2. Which of the following promotes edema?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Prostaglandins
Answer: d
Clarification: Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin. Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation.

3. Which hormone is a major contributor for pain during inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation it is the main cause behind pain. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and iincrease mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins increase the vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

4. Which hormone is a major contributor to chemotaxis while inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Prostaglandins
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Prostaglandins released during inflammation reaction promote edema, causes chemotaxis, leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin. Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and increase mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation.

5. Which hormone is a major contributor for increasing vascular permeability during inflammation?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: a
Clarification: The hormone that acts as a major contributor for increasing vascular permeability during inflammation is histamine. In most cases, it is observed that histamine tends to increase vascular permeability by (NO)-dependent vascular dilation and also with increased blood flow.

6. Which hormone is a major contributor to vasodilation during inflammation reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Bradykinin
d) Leukotrienes
Answer: c
Clarification: Bradykinin major contributors to symptoms of inflammation, it helps to increase the vasodilation during inflammation reaction. Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability and increase mobilization of endogenous mediators of inflammation. Prostaglandins promote edema and leukocyte infiltration and increase vascular permeability, enhance pain producing properties of bradykinin.

7. Why the redness can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: a
Clarification: The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. And the pain is due to the local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. These are the four signs of inflammation which can be seen in a human body.

8. Why the Heat can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: a
Clarification: Redness, swelling, heating, paining these signs are common during any inflammation reaction. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. And the pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure.

9. Why the swelling can be seen during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces
c) Release of enzymes
d) Increased of tissue pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. And the pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. Redness, swelling, heating, paining these signs are common during any inflammation reaction.

10. Why the pain can be felt during inflammation?
a) Local blood vessel dilation
b) Influx of plasma proteins
c) Release of enzymes and increased of tissue pressure
d) Influx of phagocytic cells
Answer: c
Clarification: The pain is due to local release of enzymes and increased tissue pressure. Bradykinin is the most important pain mediator in an inflammation reaction. The redness and heat is due to the local blood vessel dilation. The swelling is due to the influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces. These are the four signs of inflammation which can be seen in a human body.

11. Which of the following drug is an indole derivative?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: d
Clarification: Anti-inflammatory drugs are of five kinds and these are salicylates, phenylpropionic acids, pyrazalone derivatives, indole derivatives and disease modifying drugs. Example of indole derivative drugs are indomethacine. ASA comes under salicylates. phenylpropionic acids e.g., ibuprofen, ketoprofen, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

12. Which of the following drug is a Phenylpropionic acid derivative?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: b
Clarification: Examples of phenylpropionic acid derivative is ibuprofen, ketoprofen. Salicylates are such as ASA, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, indole derivatives e.g., indomethacin, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

13. Which of the following is an example of salicylates?
a) ASA
b) Ibuprofen
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
Answer: a
Clarification: Anti-inflammatory drugs are of five kinds and these are salicylates, phenylpropionic acids, pyrazalone derivatives, indole derivatives and disease modifying drugs. Salicylates e.g., ASA, phenylpropionic acids e.g., ibuprofen, ketoprofen, pyrazalone derivatives e.g., phenylbutazone, indole derivatives e.g., indomethacin, disease modifying drugs: e.g. chloroquine.

14. Inflammatory response is an abnormal defense mechanism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The inflammatory response is a normal defense mechanism. But the side effects are undesirable. Normal inflammatory response has an on/off switch. When a bee stings those inflammatory reactions are desirable since these helps us to heal faster. In chronic inflammation something has gone wrong with the off switch. Therefore we need drugs to control the inflammatory reaction.

15. Inflammatory switch does not have an off switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The inflammatory response is a normal (desirable) defense mechanism but the side effects are undesirable. Normal inflammatory response has an on/off switch. In chronic inflammation something has gone wrong with the off switch such as that in arthritis. Our immune system tends to attack our own cells. Therefore we need drugs to control the inflammatory reaction.