300+ REAL TIME Drug & Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Objective Questions & Answers 2023

250+ TOP MCQs on Genetic Recombination – Transformation and Answers

Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people on “Genetic Recombination – Transformation”.

1. Who discovered transformation?
a) Albert Einstein
b) Robert Hook
c) Fred Griffith
d) Kary Mullis

Answer: c
Clarification: Fred Griffith discovered Transformation in the year 1928. This is a way in which DNA can be moved between different bacteria. It is the uptake of the naked DNA molecule from a medium. There will be a donor bacterium and a recipient bacterium.

2. For the process of transformation to take place a bacterial cell must be in a state of ____________
a) Stability
b) Competence
c) Localization
d) Horizontal

Answer: b
Clarification: Transformation is the direct uptake of the genetic material from the surrounding of a cell. For the transformation to take place a cell has to be competent. Transformation is the one if the three processes of horizontal gene transfer. In its exogenous gene can pass from one bacterium to other.

3. Transformation with micro injection is which kind of transformation?
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Electroporation
d) Natural

Answer: a
Clarification: The transformation carried out using a micro injection falls under the physical transformation category. The physical or mechanical ways are electroporation, microinjection, particle bombardment, sonoporation, laser-induced, bead transfection. The biological method is using various viral vectors for the transfer of DNA.

4. When does S. pneumoniae becomes competent for transformation?
a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) Exponential phase
d) Stationery phase

Answer: c
Clarification: For transformation to occur every cell has to be competent. Competency is dependent on several conditions. Bacteria need to be on certain stage of growth such as S pneumoniae will be competent only on the exponential phase. When the population will be reaching 107 to 108 cells per ml.

5. We require cell-free DNA for transformation to take place.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Transformation is the process whereby cell-free or naked DNA containing a limited amount of genetic information is transferred from one bacterial cell to another. If there is Cell it may be difficult for the transformation process to be carried out swiftly. Thus, we required a cell-free DNA solution.

6. Which of the following things was identified as the transforming principle?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrates

Answer: a
Clarification: Griffith showed in his experiment that DNA was the transforming principle that transformed the living rough bacteria into pathogenic smooth ones. He used two types of bacteria one with rough membrane and other with a smooth membrane.

7. What should be the minimum weight of DNA that is required for a successful transformation?
a) 1000 Daltons
b) 100,000 Daltons
c) 300,000 daltons
d) 8 million daltons

Answer: c
Clarification: Molecular weights of DNA in the range of 300,000 to 8 million daltons have been shown to result in successful transformation. Various vectors have been manufacture including HAC, BAC, YAC which can transfer bigger pieces of genomes.

8. Which enzyme cleaves the DNA?
a) Endonucleases
b) Polymerases
c) Ligases
d) Lyases

Answer: a
Clarification: After a competent cell binds to a double stranded moderately large DNA, the donor fragments starts competing with each other. The DNA is then cleaved by endonucleases to form small double stranded fragments of about 5 to 15 kilo base.

9. In which of the following organism transformation occurs by the help of membrane vesicles?
a) S. pneumoniae
b) H. influenzae
c) E. colli
d) M. tuberculosis

Answer: b
Clarification: Haemophilus don’t produce a competence factor thus it donot become competent. It take up DNA from closely related species. Ds DNA, complexed with other proteins is then taken in membrane vesicles.

10. Artificial transformation in the laboratory is carried out by which of the chemical?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Magnesium chloride
c) Calcium chloride
d) Potassium chloride

Answer: c
Clarification: In laboratory artificial transformation is done by treatment of the cells using calcium chloride. This technique also makes the membranes more permeable to the uptake DNA. We can use this technique with species which are naturally competent.

11. It is tough to transform with plasmid DNA.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Transformation of bacteria using plasmid DNA is easier. Since plasmid DNA don’t get easily degraded as linear fragments and can easily replicate in the host. This method is more commonly used for the introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cells.

12. Which of the following path of transformation leads to the lysis of the parent cell?
a) Lysogenic
b) Lytic
c) Lysogenic and lytic pathway
d) Inductive

Answer: b
Clarification: After the phage infection, the phage DNA will multiply inside the host cell. The replicating DNA will produce all the kinds of proteins which a phage needs and then phage heads, tails and DNA assembles into progeny phage. After that the lysis of the parent cell occurs.

13. In which phase of growth does the recipient cell take up the donor DNA?
a) Lag phase
b) Early logarithmic phase
c) Late logarithmic phase
d) Stationary phase

Answer: c
Clarification: Conditions suitable for uptake of donor DNA into recipient cells occur only during the late logarithmic phase of growth. In the logarithmic phase, the bacteria keep on dividing.

14. The DNA uptake process does not require any energy.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: The uptake process has been found to be an energy-requiring mechanism because it can be inhibited by agents that interfere with energy metabolism. We have to provide the processes with energy, it may be electrical, light, and mechanical.

15. Which of the following enzymes acts on the DNA after its entry into the cell?
a) Ligases
b) Endonucleases
c) Deoxy ribonucleases
d) Exonucleases

Answer: c
Clarification: After DNA entry into a cell, one strand is immediately degraded by deoxy ribonucleases, while the other strand undergoes base pairing with a homologous portion of the recipient cell chromosome.

250+ TOP MCQs on Drugs Absorption – Factors Affecting Rate of Drug Dissolution and Answers

Tough Drug Biotechnology Questions and Answers on “Drugs Absorption – Factors Affecting Rate of Drug Dissolution”.

1. Absorption of drugs can be categorized into 2 classes, physicochemical properties of drugs and Dosage form of the drug, on the basis of drug dissolution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Factors that are of in vivo importance, those which can affect the drug dissolution and absorption into the cell membrane can be divided into 2 classes. One is the physicochemical properties of the drug and the dosage form factors.

2. Which option will be the best example of the physicochemical properties of drugs?
a) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism, complexation, wettability, pH, Pressure of disintegration
b) Pressure of disintegration, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism, complexation, wettability, pH
c) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form
d) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism, complexation, wettability
Answer: d
Clarification: The various Physicochemical properties of the drug that affect drug dissolution and its rate are Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism, complexation, wettability, etc. Dosage form factors include formulation factors and excipients in the formulation.

3. For oral formulation, what should be the minimum aqueous solubility to avoid bioavailability problems?
a) 0.9%
b) 1%
c) 2%
d) 0.11%
Answer: b
Clarification: Experiments have shown that a drug should have a minimum aqueous solubility of 1% to avoid bioavailability problems. Lesser than that it becomes a very serious issue for the drug to dissolve and give the proper effect.

4. The total solid surface area of any particle is known as ___________
a) Absolute surface area
b) Effective surface area
c) Total surface area
d) Surface area
Answer: a
Clarification: Particle size and surface area of a solid drug are inversely related to each other. Absolute surface area is the total area of the solid surface of any particle and an effective surface area is the area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution medium. Smaller the drug particle greater the surface area.

5. Particle size and surface area of a drug are directly related to each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Particle size and surface area of a solid drug are inversely related to each other. Smaller the drug particle greater the surface area. Larger the area is higher the dissolution rate.

6. Absolute surface area is proportional to the dissolution rate of a drug.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Absolute surface area is not proportional to the Dissolution rate. Effective surface area is proportional to the dissolution rate. Absolute surface area is the total area of the solid surface of any particle and an effective surface area is the area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution medium. Effective surface area is the area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution medium.

7. In the case of hydrophobic drugs, micronization results in a decrease in effective surface area and thus fall is dissolution rate. Which of the below sentences cannot be a reason for the given statement?
a) The hydrophobic surface of the drugs adsorbs onto their surface which inhibits their wettability
b) The particles reaggregate to form larger particles due to their high surface free energy
c) Extreme reduction in the particle size imparts surface charges that may prevent wetting
d) Extreme reduction in the size brings the hydrophobic amino acids to the surface
Answer: d
Clarification: In the case of hydrophobic drugs, micronization results in a decrease in effective surface area and thus fall is dissolution rate. Three reasons are, Hydrophobic surface of the drugs adsorbs onto their surface which inhibits their wettability, the particles reaggregate to form larger particles due to their high surface free energy, extreme reduction in the particle size impart surface charges that may prevent wetting.

8. How the absolute surface area of hydrophobic drugs can be converted to their effective surface area?
a) Use of surfactant
b) Use of Hydrophobic diluents
c) Use of surfactant and hydrophilic diluents
d) No need of doing micronization
Answer: c
Clarification: Use of surfactant as a wetting agent decreases the interfacial tension and displaces the adsorbed air with the solvent and using hydrophilic diluents coat the surface and render them hydrophilic.

9. Which one of these is not an example of hydrophilic diluents?
a) PVC
b) Dextrose
c) PVP
d) PEG
Answer: a
Clarification: PVC is polyvinyl chloride not used as a drug formulation. Hydrophilic diluents such as PEG < PVP, dextrose coat the surface of a hydrophobic molecule to give hydrophilic surface.

10. The solvate can exist in different crystalline forms called as _________
a) Solvates
b) Pseudopolymorphs
c) Pseudopolymorphism
d) Hydrate
Answer: b
Clarification: Stoichiometric type of adducts of the solid where the solvent molecules are incorporated into the crystal lattice of any solid are known as solvates. The solvates that can exist in different crystalline forms are known as pseudopolymorphs. The phenomenon is known as pseudopolymorphism.

11. Which form of a drug has greater solubility?
a) Anhydrous
b) Hydrate
c) Crystallised
d) Monohydrate
Answer: a
Clarification: Anhydrous form of a drug has a greater aqueous solubility than the hydrates. This is because the hydrates are already in interaction with the water and therefore have less energy for crystal breakup.

12. Which one will be the easiest approach to enhance the solubility and dissolution of any drug?
a) Micronize the drug
b) Convert drug into their anhydrous form
c) Convert drug into their hydrous form
d) Convert drug into their salt form
Answer: d
Clarification: Most drugs are weak acids or weak base3s. Thus, one of the easiest approaches to enhance the solubility and dissolution of any drug is to convert them into their salt forms.

13. What is pH?
a) –ve log of H+ concentration
b) +ve log of H+ concentration
c) Log of H+ concentration
d) H+ concentration
Answer: a
Clarification: pH is a scale used to measure how much acidic or basic a solution is. PH is logarithmic and negative of the 10-base logarithm of the molar concentration of the hydrogen ions present.

14. Which one of these is not an advantage of buffered aspirin tablets?
a) Enhanced bioavailability
b) Reduced gastric irritation
c) Increased stability
d) Increased ulcerogenic tendency
Answer: d
Clarification: Including enhanced bioavailability, buffered aspirin tablets have more two advantages that are, reduction of the gastric irritation and ulcerogenic tendency of the drug. And second is the stability is increased by in-situ salt formation.

15. Larger the size of the counterion, greater the solubility.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The size of the counterion influences the solubility of the salt forms. Smaller the size of the counterion greater the solubility of the salt. If the counter ion has a larger size or poor ionic strength, the solubility decreases to a large extent.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Drugs Biotransformation – Phase 2 Reactions and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Drugs Biotransformation – Phase 2 Reactions”.

1. Which enzyme is important in the Phase II reactions?
a) Esterase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) Aldo-keto-reductases
Answer: c
Clarification: Phase II reactions involve the transfer of a suitable moiety such as glucuronic acid sulfate, glycine, etc. to the phase I reaction. This transfer is mediated by the presence of the enzyme Transferase.

2. The phase II reactions are detoxification pathways.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In the phase, II reactions tissue reactive and carcinogenic metabolites are rendered harmless by conjugation with glutathione. The Phase II reactions terminate the pharmacologic activity of xenobiotics.

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moieties that are transferred to the substrate in phase II reactions?
a) Simple endogenous molecules are transferred
b) Large molecular sized groups are attached
c) Strong polar groups are attached
d) Strong nonpolar groups are attached
Answer: d
Clarification: The moieties transferred to the substrates in a phase II reactions possess characteristics that are, simple endogenous molecules, large groups, and strong polar or ionic groups are attached to make the substrate water soluble.

4. Which of the following statement is false?
a) D-glucuronic acid is easily available
b) Several functional groups can be easily linked with the D-glucuronic acid
c) Conjugation with D-glucuronic acid occurs to a high degree
d) Whole animal kingdom have the common ability to produce D-glucuronic acid
Answer: d
Clarification: The statement d is false since all the mammals have the ability to produce glucuronides. D-glucuronic acid is readily available and can be easily conjugated with other functional groups.

5. Which coenzyme is synthesized in the 1st step of the formation of Glucuronide?
a) Uridine triphosphate
b) Uridine-5’-diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid
c) UDP-glucose
d) Glucuronide
Answer: b
Clarification: Glucuronide formation takes place in 2 steps. The 1st step activated coenzyme uridine-5’-diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid is formed from UDP-glucose. The coenzyme acts as a donor of glucuronic acid.

6. Which enzyme is of the utmost importance for the 2nd step in the formation of Glucuronide?
a) Esterase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Answer: d
Clarification: The moieties transferred to the substrates in a phase II reactions possess characteristics that are, simple endogenous molecules, large groups, and strong nonpolar or ionic groups are attached to make the substrate water soluble.

7. Which one of the following is an example of Carboxyl compounds?
a) Meprobamate
b) Sulfadimethoxine
c) Sulphonamides
d) Salicylic acids
Answer: d
Clarification: These compounds form ester glucuronides. For example aryl acids, arylalkyl acids, salicylic acids, fenoprofen. Amides, Sulfonamides, Meprobamate, Sulfadimethoxine are amines or amides which form N-glucuronides.

8. In the sulfation process, what is the name of the coenzyme formed in the 1st step?
a) 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
b) Adenosine triphosphate
c) Adenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
d) Uridine-5’-diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid
Answer: a
Clarification: In the 1st step of sulphation, synthesis of an active coenzyme takes place. The coenzyme name is 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate. This coenzyme acts as a donor of sulfate to the substrate.

9. Which enzyme’s presence is of utmost importance for the 2nd step of sulphation?
a) Sulfotransferase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Answer: a
Clarification: Sulfotransferase catalyses the transfer of sulphate group from 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate to the substrate. It also helps in the liberation of 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphate.

10. Which of the following is not an example of a drug undergoing acetylation reaction?
a) Hydrazine
b) Salicylic acids
c) Sulphonamides
d) Histamines
Answer: b
Clarification: Acetylation is an important metabolic pathway for drugs containing primary amino groups. Drugs which undergo acetylation reaction are histamine, sulphanilamide, and hydralazine. Acetylation may sometime lead to the production of toxic compounds.

250+ TOP MCQs on Mechanism of Action of Local Anesthetic and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Problems on “Mechanism of Action of Local Anesthetic”.

1. What is the function of local anesthetics?
a) Suppress the activity of the brain
b) Render a specific portion insensitive to pain
c) Suppress the function of a whole organ
d) Make the patient’s full body insensitive to pain
Answer: b
Clarification: Local anesthetics are also called regional anesthetics. Used to render a specific portion of the body insensitive to pain. They interfere with nerve impulse transmission to specific areas of the body. These anesthetics do not cause loss of consciousness.

2. Which of the following is the parenteral application of local anesthetics?
a) When applied to the mucous membrane
b) When applied to the skin
c) When injected to CNS through spinal injection techniques
d) Using ophthalmic drops
Answer: c
Clarification: Parenteral applications are injected to the CNS through various spinal injection techniques. Topical application is applied directly to the skin or mucous membranes. These can be done through creams, solutions, ointments, gels, ophthalmic drops, lozenges, suppositories, etc.

3. Which of the following are natural local anesthetics?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Clove oil
Answer: a
Clarification: Natural anesthetic is cocaine. Due to its uses in drug abuse, this is not used anymore in practices. Synthetic nitrogenous local anesthetics are procaine, benzocaine, lignocaine, cinchocaine, bucricaine. Synthetic non-nitrogenous will be benzyl alcohol and propanediol. Clove oil, phenol, chlorpromazine can also be used as a local anesthetic.

4. Which of the following is synthetic nitrogenous local anesthetic?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Clove oil
Answer: b
Clarification: Natural anesthetic is cocaine. Synthetic nitrogenous local anesthetics are derivatives of PABA e.g. procaine, benzocaine, a derivative of acetanilide e.g. lignocaine, a derivative of quinoline e.g. cinchocaine, bucricaine. Synthetic non-nitrogenous will be benzyl alcohol and propanediol. Clove oil, phenol, chlorpromazine can also be used as a local anesthetic.

5. Which of the following is synthetic non-nitrogenous anesthetic?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Clove oil
Answer: c
Clarification: Natural anesthetic is cocaine. Synthetic nitrogenous local anesthetics are procaine, benzocaine, lignocaine, cinchocaine, bucricaine. Synthetic non-nitrogenous will be benzyl alcohol and propanediol. Clove oil, phenol, chlorpromazine can also be used as a local anesthetic.

6. Apart from natural, synthetic, synthetic non-nitrogenous, which of the following is also a local anesthetic?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Clove oil
Answer: d
Clarification: Natural anesthetic is cocaine. Due to its uses in drug abuse, this is not used anymore in practices. Synthetic nitrogenous local anesthetics are procaine, benzocaine, lignocaine, cinchocaine, bucricaine. Synthetic non-nitrogenous will be benzyl alcohol and propanediol. Clove oil, phenol, chlorpromazine can also be used as a local anesthetic. Clove oil is being used in dentistry purposes.

7. Which of the following is the pharmacological action of local anesthetics?
a) Reversible block of conduction in nerve
b) Class II antidysrhythmic like action
c) Contraction of smooth muscle
d) Excitation of neuro-muscular transmission in skeletal muscle
Answer: a
Clarification: Pharmacological action by local anesthetics are a reversible block of conduction in nerve, direct relaxation of smooth muscle & inhibition of neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscle producing vasodilatation. Local anesthetics gives Class I antidysrhythmic like action on the heart.

8. What does membrane expansion theory states?
a) The mechanism is not similar to the general anesthetics
b) Does not rely upon the lipophilic moiety of drugs
c) The molecules of the agent get incorporated into the lipid membrane
d) Causes nerve polarization
Answer: c
Clarification: The membrane expansion theory depends upon the lipophilic moiety of local anesthetics agents. The molecules of the agent get incorporated into the lipid cell membrane which results in the swelling of the membrane. This provides physical obstruction of the sodium channels thus prevents nerve depolarization.

9. What does the specific receptor theory state?
a) Local anesthetics bind to various receptors
b) Produces chemical changes to the receptors
c) Tries to open all the closed sodium gates
d) Binding produces conformational changes
Answer: d
Clarification: Local anesthetics bind to specific receptors within the sodium channel producing physical obstruction to the entry of sodium ions. The act of binding produces conformational changes within the channel. It binds to a closed gate and maintains it in the closed position.

10. Which of the following factor do not affect the absorption of local anesthetics?
a) Vasodilating ability of drug
b) Volume and concentration
c) Vascularity of the tissue
d) Presence of vasodilator
Answer: d
Clarification: Many factors influence the entry of local anesthetic into the circulation some of these are vasodilating ability of the drug, volume, and concentration of the drug, vascularity of the tissues, the route of administration of the drug, the presence of vasoconstrictor.

11. Which is the first local anesthetic?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Clove oil
Answer: a
Clarification: The first and most potent local anesthetic agent is cocaine though it is rarely used now used because of the problems of misuse. It is unique in it is the ability to produce intense vasoconstriction. The half-life of cocaine is 30 minutes. Dosage of cocaine when used as topical administration 4 – 10% solution of cocaine.

12. Which of the following is being used in dentistry when patients have an allergy from procaine?
a) Cocaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Benzyl alcohol
d) Procaine
Answer: d
Clarification: Procaine is used in dentistry when the patients have proven allergy to the amide group. Used intra-arterially, to treat the arteriospasm which might occur during intravenous sedation. It has excellent vasodilatory properties. The first and most potent local anesthetic agent is cocaine used topically.

13. Which of the following is amide type drug?
a) Lignocaine
b) Cocaine
c) Procaine
d) Benzocaine
Answer: a
Clarification: Benzocaine, procaine, and cocaine are ester type drugs. Procaine is used in dentistry when the patients have proven allergy to the amide group. Lignocaine is an amide-type drug. It is highly lipophilic and rapidly absorbed.

14. Which of the following is topical with high concentration?
a) Lignocaine
b) Cocaine
c) Procaine
d) Benzocaine
Answer: d
Clarification: Used mainly as topical, due to its poor water solubility, and because of its low toxicity, it can be used in concentration up to 20%. Hydrolysed rapidly by plasma esterase to p-aminobenzoic acid accounting for its low toxicity. Lignocaine is an amide-type drug. It is highly lipophilic and rapidly absorbed.

15. Cocaine, when used for local anesthetics, has a half-life of 30 minutes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The first and most potent local anesthetic agent, rarely used because of the problems of misuse. It is unique in it is the ability to produce intense vasoconstriction. Cocaine, when used topically for local anesthetic, has a half-life of 30 minutes.

Drug Biotechnology Problems,

250+ TOP MCQs on Controlled Release Medication – Indian Drug Regulations and Answers

Drug Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on “Controlled Release Medication – Indian Drug Regulations”.

1. Which of the following is a law passed by the Indian Government in 1919?
a) The poisons Act
b) The Poisonous Act
c) The Non-poisonous Act
d) The Non-poisons Act
Answer: a
Clarification: To control the production of cheaper and inferior drugs by some of the Indian Companies to compete with the imported drugs due to the increasing demand of cheap medicine the Government of India passed the Poisons Drug Act in 1919 and Dangerous Drugs Act in 1930.

2. Which of the following is a law passed by the Indian Government in 1930?
a) The Dangerous Drugs Act
b) The Danger in the drug Act
c) The Non-dangerous drug act
d) The Non-Danger in drug Act
Answer: a
Clarification: To control the production of cheaper and inferior drugs by some of the Indian Companies to compete with the imported drugs due to the increasing demand of cheap medicine the Government of India passed the Dangerous Drugs Act in 1930.

3. Which committee in India has the responsibility of looking after the drug and inquiry about its manufacture procedure?
a) Drug Enquiring committee
b) Drug Enquiry committee
c) Enquiring the Drug Manufacturing committee
d) Drug Enquiry of the produced Drug committee
Answer: b
Clarification: The Indian government appointed a Drug Enquiry Committee in 1931. The committee’s recommendations are a creation of a drug control machinery at the center will all its branches in all the provinces. The establishment of well-equipped Central Drugs Laboratory with competent staff.

4. Which one of the following law was passed in 1931 by the Indian Government?
a) The poisons Act
b) Drug Enquiring committee
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: b
Clarification: Drug enquiring committee was established in 1931. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945, it regulates the manufacturing, export, distribution, sale and clinical research of drugs and cosmetics in India. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act was passed in 1985.

5. Which one of the following law was passed in 1985 by the Indian Government?
a) The poisons Act
b) Drug Enquiring committee
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: d
Clarification: Drug enquiring committee was established in 1931. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945, it regulates the manufacturing, export and clinical research of drugs and cosmetics in India. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act was passed in 1985 by repealing the Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 and Opium Act, 1887.

6. Which one of the following law was passed in 1945 by the Indian Government?
a) The poisons Act
b) Drug Enquiring committee
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: c
Clarification: Drug enquiring committee was established in 1931. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945, it regulates the manufacturing, export and clinical research of drugs and cosmetics in India. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act were passed in 1985.

7. Which one of the following law was passed in 1948 by the Indian Government?
a) The poisons Act
b) Pharmacy Act
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: b
Clarification: The pharmacy Act was passed in 1948 by the Indian Government. Medicinal and Toil preparation act was passed in 1955. Drug enquiring committee was established in 1931. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act was passed in 1985.

8. Which one of the following law was passed in 1954 by the Indian Government?
a) The poisons Act
b) Drug and Magic Remedies Act
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: b
Clarification: Drug and Magic Remedies Act was passed in 1954. It prohibits the advertising for remedies which has magic properties, qualities. For example, any drug which advertises intake of which will lead to having a male baby rather than female will be deemed under this act. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act was passed in 1985.

9. Which one of the following law was passed in 1955 by the Indian Government?
a) Medicinal and Toilet Preparations Act
b) Drug Enquiring committee
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: a
Clarification: Medicinal and Toil preparation act was passed in 1955. Drug enquiring committee was established in 1931. The drugs and cosmetics rules were passed in 1945. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act were passed in 1985.

10. Which one of the following order was passed in 1955 by the Indian Government?
a) Drugs order
b) Drug Enquiring committee
c) The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
d) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
Answer: a
Clarification: Drugs order Act was passed in 1955 under the Essential commodities act. This order was passed to control any increase in the price of drugs since it is an important product for human beings and India having a large number of BPL population this law was passed to protect them from any hike in price.

11. If a drug is colored or coated to conceal the damage in it, under which category of drugs shall it come?
a) Misbranded drugs
b) Spurious drugs
c) Adulterated drugs
d) Impure Drugs
Answer: a
Clarification: A drug shall be deemed to be misbranded drugs if he is colored, coated, powdered, packed in such a way that its damage is being concealed. If the drug is made to appear better or greater therapeutic value than it is original if it is not labeled in the prescribed manner if anything on the label is a false claim will be deemed to be a misbranded drug.

12. If a drug has filthy or decomposed substances in its composition, which type of drug this will be?
a) Misbranded drugs
b) Spurious drugs
c) Adulterated drugs
d) Impure Drugs
Answer: c
Clarification: If a drug consists of any filthy, putrid, decomposed substances it will be deemed to be adulterated drugs. If the container is composed either whole or a part of it, by any dangerous or deleterious substance which may render the contents injurious to health. If the drugs bear any other coloring rather than which is written on the cover if it contains harmful toxic substance it will be deemed under adulterated drugs.

13. If the container of the drug has any poisonous and deleterious substances, which type of drug this will be?
a) Misbranded drugs
b) Spurious drugs
c) Adulterated drugs
d) Impure Drugs
Answer: c
Clarification: A drug shall be deemed to adulterated drugs if the container is composed either whole or a part of it, by any dangerous or deleterious substance which may render the contents injurious to health. If the drugs bear any other coloring rather than which is written on the cover if it contains harmful toxic substance it will be deemed under adulterated drugs.

14. A drug shall be _____________ if it has imported under a name which belongs to another drug.
a) Misbranded drug
b) Spurious drug
c) Adulterated drug
d) Impure drug
Answer: b
Clarification: A drug shall be deemed to the spurious drug if is imported under some different names rather than the registered one or mimicking any other different drug, an imitation of or is a substitute for another drug or resembles another drug such that it can deceive and bear upon its label the name of another drug. Such drugs are manufactured in small scale industries with very low-quality components and are sold by the name and the cost of branded drugs.

15. A drug shall be _____________ if it is an imitation or substitute of another drug.
a) Misbranded drugs
b) Spurious drugs
c) Adulterated drugs
d) Impure Drugs
Answer: b
Clarification: A drug shall be deemed to the spurious drug if it is an imitation of or is a substitute for another drug or resembles another drug such that it can deceive and bear upon its label the name of another drug. Such drugs are manufactured in small scale industries with very low-quality components and are sold by the name and the cost of branded drugs.

250+ TOP MCQs on Genetic Recombination – Conjugation and Answers

Pharmaceutical Biotechnology Quiz on “Genetic Recombination – Conjugation”.

1. By whose experiment evidence of the existence of conjugation was established?
a) Robert Hook
b) Albert Einstein
c) Thomas Bill and Jimmy Bill
d) Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum

Answer: d
Clarification: The evidence for conjugation was discovered by the experiment of Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum in the year 1946. They found out genetic material can be transferred by direct cell to cell contact.

2. By whose experiment conjugation was proved?
a) Robert Hook
b) Bernard Davis
c) Thomas Bill and Jimmy Bill
d) Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum

Answer: b
Clarification: Lederberg and Tatum did not prove the facts of conjugation. The evidence for conjugation was provided by Berners Davis. He proved the fact that physical contact of cells was necessary for gene transfer. It was in the year 1950.

3. Which one of the following is true?
a) The F plasmid encodes the factor which is transferred from one cell to another
b) The factor encoded by the F plasmid is called as Filamentous (F) factor
c) It is transferred from one cell to another by filament
d) The bacteria must belong to the same species to carry out the conjugation

Answer: a
Clarification: F plasmid encodes the factor called Fertility or F factor. It is transferred from one cell to another by the sex pilus. It is present in E. coli and for the conjugation to take place; bacteria can also belong to different species.

4. Which of the following made it easier to conclude that physical contact of the cells was necessary for conjugation in Davis experiment?
a) Filter
b) U – tube
c) Separate medium for different strains of bacterium
d) Distant species of bacterium

Answer: a
Clarification: After 4 hours of incubation in the medium within u tube Davis found that since the bacteria were not allowed for direct contact they could not exchange genetic material. It was the fritted glass filter that allowed the passage of the media but not the bacteria.

5. Who releases the plasmid encoded proteins required for adhering.
a) Donor cell
b) Recipient cell
c) F+ cell
d) F- cell

Answer: a
Clarification: Few transfer genes are required for gene transfer in this system. It doesn’t incorporate a sex pilus for plasmid transfer. Donor and recipient cells adhere to each other using specialised plasmid encoded protein released by the donor cell.

6. Sex pilus is not required for plasmid transfer.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Self transmissible plasmids are present in gram positive bacteria. Few transfer genes are required for gene transfer in this system. It doesn’t incorporate a sex pilus for plasmid transfer.

7. Conjugation can’t take place between ___________
a) F- and F+
b) F’ and F-
c) HFR and F-
d) HFR and F+

Answer: d
Clarification: For conjugation to take place one bacterium must have the F plasmid and others should lack it. HFR has the components of F plasmid within its genome so it can’t mate with another F+.

8. Which one of the following do not have a self-transmissible plasmid?
a) E. colli
b) Streptococcus
c) Bacillus
d) Enterococcus

Answer: a
Clarification: Self transmissible plasmid are only present on gram positive bacteria such as Bacillus, Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, and Streptomyces. For these organisms the sex pilus is not required for plasmid transfer.

9. Which one of the following gets transferred during Hfr conjugation?
a) F factor
b) F- factor
c) Donor DNA
d) Donor plasmid

Answer: c
Clarification: In Hfr conjugation the donor DNA gets replicated by rolling circle method and transferred from the Hfr to the F- cell through the connected pillus. The fragmented donor DNA gets incorporated into the recipient’s chromosome.

10. In conjugation of F⁺ cell and F^– cell the recipient will be F^–.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: In F⁺ and F^– mating the F factor is replicated by rolling cycle replication and taken up by the recipient cell. Thus the recipient cell becomes F⁺ not F^–. Due to the replication and transfer of F factor both the bacteria become F⁺.

11. What is the order of the gene where columns are for different HFR and values denote time?
a) Azi, Lac, Gal, Ton
b) Lac, Gal, Azi, Ton
c) Gal, Lac, Ton, Azi
d) Tob, Azi, Lac, Gal

Answer: b
Clarification: The HFR can be produced by incorporation of the plasmid within the DNA at different positions. So here in two cases, the position is different. Considering the relative time of entry, we can see a pattern which agrees with option 2. It can be in either orientation.

12. Conjugation between F⁺ and F^– cell results in _______________
a) Two F^– cells
b) F^–cell becomes F⁺
c) F^– cell remains F^– cell with a little DNA from F⁺ cell
d) Remains the same without any change

Answer: b
Clarification: Conjugation occurs between positive and negative F cells. The donor cell will have pilus and this pilus will attach to the recipient cell thus bringing the two cell together. The F plasmid will be an episome.

13. What is the unidirectional transfer of genetic material from the donor to the recipient is termed?
a) Conjugation
b) Recombination
c) Transduction
d) Transformation

Answer: a
Clarification: Transfer of genetic material from a donor bacterium to recipient bacterium by a cell to cell contact is termed as conjugation. The donor bacterium has a DNA sequence with the Fertility factor.

14. What genetic information (DNA) does an F-plasmid contain?
a) Chromosomal DNA
b) Non-chromosomal DNA with regulatory genes
c) DNA that codes for proteins to produce pili
d) B and C

Answer: d
Clarification: F-plasmids contain genetic information that is not present in the bacterial chromosomes, although they can be integrated with the chromosomes.

15. In conjugation of HFr cell with F^– cell the recipient ______________
a) Stays F^–
b) Become F⁺
c) Become HFr
d) Become F’

Answer: a
Clarification: Since entire plasmid cannot transfer the recipient remains F^–. Hfr cell can transfer a portion of the bacterial genome. The bacterium receiving the genes do not become F⁺.