250+ TOP MCQs on Errors in Current Transformers and Answers

Electrical Measurements & Measuring Instruments Multiple Choice Questions on “Errors in Current Transformers”.

1. Errors are introduced in Current Transformers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A current transformer is used for the measurement of very high currents. The use of a C.T. leads to the introduction of two errors in power measurement.

2. Ratio error is defined as ___________
a) Ratio error = KnR
b) Ratio error = Kn – RR
c) Ratio error = Kn – R
d) Ratio error = 1R
Answer: b
Clarification: Ratio error of a C.T. is defined as the ratio of the magnitude of the difference between the nominal and actual ratio with respect to the actual ratio.
electrical-measurements-questions-answers-errors-current-transformers-q2

3. Phase angle in a C.T. is defined as ____________
a) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m cosδ}{nI_s}]) degrees
b) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_c sinδ}{nI_s}]) degrees
c) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m cosδ – I_c sinδ}{nI_s}]) degrees
d) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m sinδ – I_c cosδ}{nI_s}]) degrees
Answer: c
Clarification: During power measurement, there exists phase angle error in a C.T. The phase angle is defined as
Phase angle = (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m cosδ – I_c sinδ}{nI_s}]) degrees.
where. Im is the magnetising component of the excitation current
Ic is the core loss component of the excitation current
Is is the secondary winding current.

4. Phase angle error is given by ____________
a) (frac{180}{π} [frac{1}{nI_s}]) degrees
b) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m}{I_s}]) degrees
c) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m}{n}])degrees
d) (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m}{nI_s}]) degrees
Answer: d
Clarification: The power measurement in a C.T. leads to phase angle error. Phase angle error is given by the relation
θ = (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m}{nI_s}]) degrees
where, θ is the phase angle error
Im is the magnetising component of the excitation current
Is is the secondary winding current.

5. Ratio error is due to _________
a) iron loss
b) C.T.
c) magnetising component
d) supply voltage
Answer: a
Clarification: We know that the ratio error in a C.T. is given by the relation
Ratio error = Kn – RR = n + IeIs
where, Ie is the iron loss component of the excitation current
n is the turns ratio.

6. Phase angle error is due to _________
a) C.T.
b) magnetising component
c) iron loss
d) supply voltage
Answer: b
Clarification: We know that the phase angle error in a C.T. is given by the relation
θ = (frac{180}{π} [frac{I_m}{nI_s}]) degrees
where, θ is the phase angle error
Im is the magnetising component of the excitation current
Is is the secondary winding current
It is observed from the equation for the phase angle error that it depends on the magnetising component of the excitation current.

7. In power measurements 180° phase shift is required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: For eliminating errors in power measurement, there must be a phase difference of 180° between the primary and the secondary currents.

8. Errors in a C.T. can be minimised by _________
a) making use of laminations
b) having low reactance
c) increasing the secondary winding turns
d) decreasing the primary winding turns
Answer: b
Clarification: The excitation current Io can be minimised thus eliminating the errors in a C.T. by minimising the iron loss. The core must have a low iron loss and a minimum value of leakage reactance.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Electronic Energy Meter, Adjustments in Single Phase Energy meters and Answers

Electrical Measurements Questions and Answers for Experienced people on “Electronic Energy Meter, Adjustments in Single Phase Energy meters”.

1. An electronic energy meter makes use of ___________
a) IC
b) Transformer
c) CRO
d) Multimeter
Answer: a
Clarification: Basically, integrated circuits also known as IC’s are used for the operation of an electronic energy meter.

2. Measurement of energy involves _________
a) inductance and capacitance measurement
b) power consumption and time duration
c) resistance measurement and voltage drop
d) current consumption and voltage drop
Answer: b
Clarification: An electronic energy meter is used in two stages. Energy measurement basically involves the measurement of power and the time duration. In the first stage, it is used as a wattmeter while in the second stage it is used monitoring the power consumed in a time interval.

3. Average power is _________
a) product of voltage and current
b) product of average current and voltage
c) product of instantaneous voltage and current
d) product of absolute voltage and current
Answer: c
Clarification: The average power is computed as the product of the instantaneous voltage across the load and the instantaneous current flowing through the load. A scaling device is used to bring the supply voltage to a proper level.

4. What is the role of a multiplier?
a) it multiplies the voltage and current
b) divides the alternating voltage and current
c) supplies instantaneous voltage and current
d) multiplies alternating voltage and current
Answer: d
Clarification: A multiplier basically performs the multiplication of the alternating voltage and the current. Multiplier also provides the current in the form of instantaneous power to a voltage controlled oscillator.

5. Frequency of oscillation in an electronic energy meter depends on __________
a) output current of multiplier
b) output voltage of multiplier
c) output power of multiplier
d) input resistance of multiplier
Answer: a
Clarification: Oscillator used in an energy meter generates a square wave. The frequency of the this depends on the output current flowing through the multiplier.

6. Analog signal is converted _________
a) into oscillations
b) into digital
c) into pulses
d) into current
Answer: b
Clarification: The analog signal obtained in an electronic energy meter is converted into digital by making use of a digital circuit. By making use of a seven-segment display, energy is mentioned in watt-hours.

7. An electronic energy meter is advantageous compared to conventional ones.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: An electronic energy meter does not have frictional losses, creeping is not needed irrespective of the nature of the load such as low load, full load power factor, etc and the accuracy in the reading is of the order of ±1%.

8. Energy meter can be directly used in measurement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Adjustments need to be made in an energy meter before it is used for the measurement of energy. This is done in order to keep the errors due to measurement within allowable limits of ±5 %.

9. Creeping in an energy meter can be found using _________
a) creep adjustment
b) preliminary light load adjustment
c) full load u.p.f adjustment
d) light load adjustment
Answer: b
Clarification: Energy meter can be tested for creeping using preliminary light load adjustment. Disc holes are so positioned that they aren’t under the poles of a series magnet.

10. Preliminary light load adjustment involves _________
a) applying rated voltage across current coil
b) making use of a light load
c) applying rated voltage across pressure coil
d) adjusting the light load
Answer: c
Clarification: Rated voltage is applied across the pressure coil. No current flows through the current coil. Till the disc stops rotating, light load device or equipment is adjusted continuously.

11. Creep adjustment involves _________
a) adjusting the creep
b) exciting the current coil
c) adjusting the turns ratio
d) exciting the pressure coil
Answer: d
Clarification: The pressure coil is excited by 110% with respect to the rated voltage. Load current is zero. The meter will not creep provided the light load is adjusted correctly.

12. Light load adjustment involves _________
a) applying rated voltage across the pressure coil
b) adjusting a light load
c) applying rated current across the transformer
d) applying rated voltage across the current coil
Answer: a
Clarification: Disc rotation is adjusted in such a way that correct speed is maintained. The pressure coil is supplied with the rated voltage and the current coil is provided with only about 5 % of the full load at u.p.f.

13. Low power factor adjustment involves _________
a) adjusting the power factor at lower loads
b) applying rated voltage to pressure coil and a p.f. of 0.5 for current coil
c) only applying rated voltage to pressure coil
d) only a p.f. of 0.5 for the current coil
Answer: b
Clarification: Rated voltage is applied to the pressure coil. The current coil is provided with a current at 0.5 p.f. lagging. Till the disc rotates at correct speed, lag device is adjusted.

14. Full load u.p.f adjustment involves _________
a) adjusting the loads at unity power factor
b) applying rated voltage to pressure coil and a p.f. of unity for current coil
c) only applying rated voltage to pressure coil
d) only a p.f. of unity for the current coil
Answer: c
Clarification: Rated voltage is applied to the pressure coil. The current coil is provided with a current at unity p.f. Errors are kept minimum and the position of the brake magnet is so adjusted that disc rotates at the correct speed.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Resolution and Sensitivity and Answers

Electrical Measurements & Measuring Instruments Multiple Choice Questions on “Resolution and Sensitivity”.

1. Resolution of a DVM is given by ____________
a) R = 110n
b) R = 1
c) R = 10n
d) R = n10

Answer: a
Clarification: The resolution of a DVM is,
R = 110n
where, n is the number of full digits
R is the resolution.

2. What is the resolution for a 3 digit display?
a) 1 %
b) 0.1 %
c) 0.001 %
d) 10 %

Answer: b
Clarification: The resolution of a DVM is,
R = 110n
Here, n is 3. Substituting n=3 in the equation for resolution we get,
R = 1103 = 10-3 = 0.001 = 0.1 %.

3. Sensitivity is largest change in input.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Sensitivity of any instrument is defined as the smallest hange in the input signal to which the output responds.

4. Sensitivity of a DVM is given by ______________
a) S = 1
b) S = (fs)min
c) S = (fs)min × R
d) S = R

Answer: c
Clarification: Sensitivity of the DVM is obtained from the relation,
S = (fs)min × R
where, S is the sensitivity
R is the resolution
(fs)min is the full scale value on minimum range.

5. What is the resolution of a 3 digit display on 1 V range?
a) 1 V
b) 0.1 V
c) 0.01 V
d) 0.001 V

Answer: d
Clarification: The resolution of a DVM is,
R = 110n
Here, n is 3. Substituting n=3 in the equation for resolution we get,
R = 1103 = 10-3 = 0.001
For 1 V range, the resolution is,
R1V = 1×0.001 = 0.001 V.

6. How is 11.87 V displayed on a 10 V range for a 4 digit display?
a) 11.870
b) 1.1870
c) 118.7
d) 0.1187

Answer: a
Clarification: The resolution of a DVM is,
R = 110n
Here, n is 4. Substituting n=4 in the equation for resolution we get,
R = 1104 = 10-4 = 0.0001
Since there are 5 digit places in the resolution, 11.87 which already has four digits is represented as 11.870.

7. Consider a 3 digit display for a DVM with an accuracy of ± 0.5 % for a reading of ± 1 digit. Compute the error for 5 V reading on a 10 V range.
a) ± 10 V
b) ± 0.035 V
c) ± 0.05 V
d) ± 1 V

Answer: b
Clarification: The resolution of a DVM is,
R = 110n
Here, n is 3. Substituting n=3 in the equation for resolution we get,
R = 1103 = 10-3 = 0.001
For 10 V range, the resolution is,
R10V = 10 × 0.001 = 0.01 V
Consider the reading of 5 V.
Error = ± 0.5 % of 5 = 0.5100 × 5 = ± 0.025 V
1 digit error = ± 0.01 V
Total error = ±(0.025 V+ 0.01 V)=± 0.035 V.

8. Clock pulses are controlled ______
a) automatically
b) using microcontrollers
c) using valves
d) manually

Answer: d
Clarification: A manual range hold command is used to control the clock pulses and the autoranging. This is done through a signal that exceeds the maximum range for up counts by reaching the most sensitive range (down counts).

250+ TOP MCQs on Introduction of Bridges and Answers

Electrical Measurements & Measuring Instruments Multiple Choice Questions on “Introduction of Bridges”.

1. A bridge circuit is used for the measurement of which of the following components?
a) Resistance, capacitance, and inductance
b) Diode, triode, and thyristor
c) Transistor, thermistor, and antenna
d) LED, op amp, and transducer
Answer: a
Clarification: A bridge circuit is basically used for the measurement of basic electronic components such as resistance, capacitance, and inductance.

2. A simple bridge circuit consists of a network of __________
a) 3 resistance arms
b) 2 resistance arms
c) 4 resistance arms
d) 6 resistance arms
Answer: c
Clarification: A simple bridge circuit is made of a network consisting of 4 resistance arms. Usually a galvanometer is connected between the ends of the opposite two junctions in order to measure the flow of current.

3. What is applied to the two opposite junctions of a bridge circuit?
a) source of voltage
b) source of current
c) source of power
d) source of impedance
Answer: b
Clarification: A current source is connected between the two opposite junctions of a bridge circuit. Deflection of the galvanometer in the circuit indicates the flow of current.

4. A bridge circuit uses which method of measurement?
a) absolute
b) relative
c) differential
d) comparison
Answer: d
Clarification: A bridge circuit makes use of a comparison measurement method. In this method the bridge compares the value of an unknown component with a standard value of a given component.

5. Which principle operates a bridge circuit?
a) null indication
b) ampere’s rule
c) partial indication
d) kirchhoff’s laws
Answer: a
Clarification: A bridge circuit operates on the principle of null indication. Based on the deflection of the galvanometer, current flows between the two opposite junctions.

6. The accuracy of a bridge depends on the _________
a) null indicator
b) bridge components
c) current source
d) voltage source
Answer: b
Clarification: As a bridge circuit compares the value of an unknown component with the value of a standard, it’s accuracy depends on the bridge components.

7. When is the bridge circuit balanced?
a) When voltage is applied
b) When current flows through the opposite ends of the bridge circuit
c) When no current flows through the galvanometer
d) When impedance is minimum
Answer: c
Clarification: The bridge circuit is said to be balanced when no current flows through the null indicator which is generally a galvanometer.

8. Relationship at balance condition between the component values of the four arms of a bridge is known as _________
a) full load condition
b) open circuit condition
c) short circuit condition
d) balancing condition
Answer: d
Clarification: During balance condition or equilibrium there exists a certain relationship between the component values of the four arms of the bridge. This relationship is known as the balancing condition or balancing equation.

9. D.C. bridges are used for _________
a) measurement of resistance
b) measurement of capacitance
c) measurement of current
d) measurement of inductance
Answer: a
Clarification: Resistance measurements are done by making use of a suitable D.C. bridge.

10. What is used to characterize single port devices, multiport devices, etc?
a) current values
b) impedance values
c) voltage values
d) power values
Answer: b
Clarification: Impedance values are used to characterize one port devices, networks, multiport devices and other systems.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Sources and Detectors and Answers

Electrical Measurements & Measuring Instruments Multiple Choice Questions on “Sources and Detectors”.

1. At very low frequencies in a AC bridge, the source is _________
a) power line
b) e.m.f
c) galvanometer
d) tuned circuit

Answer: a
Clarification: Galvanometer is used for detecting the balance condition. The power line acts as a source of supply for bridge measurements in an AC bridge circuit at very low frequencies.

2. At high frequencies in an AC bridge, the source is _______
a) tuned amplifiers
b) oscillators
c) vibration galvanometer
d) high voltage source

Answer: b
Clarification: Tuned amplifiers are used as a source of voltage in AC bridges. Electronic oscillators are used as a source of supply for bridge measurements in an AC bridge circuit at high frequencies.

3. The frequency range of a typical oscillator is _______
a) 1 Hz to 50 Hz
b) 1 kHz to 100 KHz
c) 40 Hz to 125 kHz
d) 1 MHz to 150 MHz

Answer: c
Clarification: An oscillator has a frequency range slightly above the audio frequency. A typical oscillator has a frequency range of 40 Hz to 125 kHz.

4. The power output for a typical oscillator is _______
a) 1 kW
b) 1 MW
c) 1 mW
d) 7 W

Answer: d
Clarification: Oscillator usually has a low power output. A typical oscillator has a power output of around 7 W.

5. The output waveform in an oscillator is _______
a) sinusoidal
b) cosinusoidal
c) tangential
d) logarithmic

Answer: a
Clarification: AC supply is generally in the form of sinusoidal signal. In an electronic oscillator, output waveform is very close to sinusoidal.

6. The output frequency of an oscillator is _______
a) unstable and fixed
b) stable and adjustable
c) stable and fixed
d) unstable and variable

Answer: b
Clarification: In an electronic oscillator, the output frequency is stable. It can be determined accurately and is also adjustable.

7. The output power of an oscillator is not enough to drive power circuits.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Power circuits generally require a low output in order to function. An electronic oscillator provides sufficient output power to drive power circuits.

8. Tuned amplifiers can be set to _______
a) low frequencies
b) high frequencies
c) any frequency
d) audio frequencies

Answer: c
Clarification: Tuning refers to varying a parameter. Tuned amplifier circuits can be set to any desired frequency.

9. Tuned amplifier circuits respond to broad bandwidth at bridge frequency.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Amplifiers can be used to detect the balance condition in AC bridges. Tuned amplifier circuits consist of transistors that respond to a narrow bandwidth at the bridge frequency.

250+ TOP MCQs on Design Features of Current Transformers and Answers

Electrical Measurements & Measuring Instruments Multiple Choice Questions on “Design Features of Current Transformers”.

1. The secondary leakage reactance of a C.T. ____________
a) increases its ratio error
b) decreases its ratio error
c) has no effect on its ratio error
d) increases the impedance of the circuit
Answer: a
Clarification: The windings in a current transformer must be kept close so that the secondary leakage reactance is minimum. Secondary leakage reactance of a C.T. thus increases its ratio error.

2. Secondary and primary windings consist of ________
a) copper turns
b) 14 S.W.G copper wire and copper strip respectively
c) iron coils wound around
d) laminations
Answer: b
Clarification: For a current transformer the most popular form used is the bar primary and ring core construction. Hence 14 S.W.G copper wire is used for the secondary winding whereas a copper strip is used for the primary winding.

3. Coils of a C.T. are separately wound.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A C.T. is used for the measurement of high magnitudes of current. In order to get lower line voltages, the coils of a C.T. are wound separately and insulated through tapes and varnish.

4. The windings of a C.T. are ________
a) tied together
b) shorted
c) wound over one another
d) grounded
Answer: c
Clarification: Using cylinders made of Bakelite, the windings of a C.T. are wound over one another. This setup is mounted on a steel tank sheet filled with transformer oil.

5. At high voltages, the current transformers are enclosed in a tank.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The current transformers are enclosed in a tank at high voltages of the order of more than 7 kV. The tank consists of a solid insulating compound. Since the cooling is poor, the compound introduces difficulty.

6. Turns compensation is used to obtain ________
a) to compensate the turns
b) to equalise the turns on the windings
c) to protect the equipment
d) transformation ratio equal to nominal ratio
Answer: d
Clarification: In a C.T., the transformation ratio is given by
R = n + IeIs
where, n is the turns ratio
Ie is the core loss component of the excitation current
Is is the secondary winding current
Turns compensation is used to obtain the transformation ratio (R) equal to the nominal ratio (Kn).

7. What is the effect of reducing the secondary turns in a C.T. by 1%?
a) transformation ratio reduces by the same value
b) no effect
c) nominal ratio increase by the same value
d) secondary current increases by the same value
Answer: a
Clarification: In a C.T., the transformation ratio is given by
R = n + IeIs
where, n is the turns ratio
Ie is the core loss component of the excitation current
Is is the secondary winding current
As the number of secondary turns is reduced by a factor of 1%, the transformation ratio (R) is reduced by approximately the same percentage.

8. In a 1000/5 A C.T., the number of secondary turns would be ________
a) 200
b) 199 or 198
c) 5
d) 1000
Answer: b
Clarification: The optimum number of secondary turns in a C.T. is the value that makes the transformation ratio (R) and nominal ratio (Kn) equal. It is usually one or two turns less than the actual value. Thus in a 1000/5 A, though the number of turns would be 200 ideally, it is considered as 198 or 199 in order to keep R and Kn equal.

9. In the ring type of core, the secondary winding is ________
a) non-uniformly distributed over the core
b) shorted with the primary winding
c) uniformly distributed over the core
d) connected in the form of a ring
Answer: c
Clarification: The ring type of core used for a secondary winding is a jointless core. It has a very small leakage reactance. Hence in a ring type of core, the secondary winding is uniformly distributed over the core.

10. In a shell type of core, the windings are ________
a) in the form of the shell
b) shorted with the primary windings
c) not wound
d) placed on the central limb
Answer: d
Clarification: The windings in a shell type of core are placed in a central limb. It provides protection to the windings.

11. Mumetal has ________
a) low permeability, high loss
b) high permeability, medium loss
c) medium permeability, high loss
d) high permeability, low loss
Answer: c
Clarification: Mumetal is an alloy of nickel, iron and copper. It has a high permeability, low loss and small retentivity. It has a maximum permeability of 90,000 at a flux density of 0.35 W/m2.

12. Perminder has __________
a) medium saturation point of permeability
b) low saturation point of permeability
c) no saturation point of permeability
d) high saturation point of permeability
Answer: d
Clarification: Perminder is an alloy of iron, cobalt and vanadium. It has a high flux density of the order of 2.4 Wb/m2. It is very expensive.

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