250+ TOP MCQs on Decomposers and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Decomposers”.

1. From where does the decomposer receive energy?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Self generation
d) Organic substrates
Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers receive energy by using organic substrates to get their energy, nutrients for development and growth. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead and decaying organisms. Similar to herbivores and predators, decomposers are also heterotrophic.

2. How many major groups classified in decomposers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Decomposers can be classified into two group namely, fungi and detritivores. Fungi break down deceased organism. While detritivores are responsible for consuming large particles off the deceased organism.

3. Which are known as most recognized players in the food chain and energy puramid?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritivores
Answer: c
Clarification: Decomposers are the most recognized players in the food chain and energy pyramid. They are the only players that have direct access to the energy which is stored in plants that comes from direct sunlight. It help in decay and in the conversion of remains of plants animals to carbon dioxide and energy.

4. What is called for an organism which breakdown dead or waste matter into simpler substances?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Insects
d) Consumers
Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers breakdown dead plant and animals. Decomposers are very important for any ecosystem. If decomposers doesn’t exist then the plants would not get essential nutrients and even dead and waste matter would pile up.

5. The primary decomposers of most dead plant material are____________________
a) Algae
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Insects
Answer: c
Clarification: Fungi play a major role as decomposers and recycles in the wide variety of habitants in which they exist. They release nitrogen and phosphorous from decaying matter. In fungi we can see digestion precedes ingestion.

6. Decomposers and detritivores are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Though both feeds on the same diet and both are heterotrophic they both are not same. Decomposer is a general term while detritivores are the classification of decomposers. Decomposers break down the dead organisms through decomposition, while detritivores consume the decaying organisms.

7. In polypore which species caused poisoning in several plants?
a) Ganoderma lucidum coll
b) Trametes versicolor
c) Hapslopilus nidulans
d) Piptoporous betulinus
Answer: c
Clarification: Polypores from the Hapslopilus nidulans species caused poisoning in severe people which effects kidney dysfunction and also caused problems to central nervous system functions. Hapalopilus nidulans belongs to the family of ‘Polyporaceae’.

8. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi?
a) Saprophytic
b) Heterotrophic
c) Autotrophic
d) Mixotrophic
Answer: a
Clarification: Saprophytic feeds non living organic matter by secreting digestive enzymes and absorbing the products. The mode of nutrition seen in fungi is of saprophytic. Saprophytic type of nutrition means break down dead organic matter into compost and manure by the action of enzymes.

9. To which category shelf fungi classified?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Insects
Answer: c
Clarification: Shelf fungi also called as bracket fungi that forms shelf like sporophores. They grow on trees in a stack. They attack and digest the trunk and branches of a tree. Few shelf fungi can parasitize living trees causing eventual death of the tree.

10. What is called for the symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a vascular plant?
a) Thallus
b) Mycelium
c) Fungal mantle
d) Mycorrhizae
Answer: d
Clarification: Mycorrhizae form a network of filaments that associate with plant roots and draw nutrients from the soil. It helps increase plants nutrients uptake. In return, the plant supplies the fungi with photosynthesis products for their metabolic use.

11. What is called for a symbiotic relationship of fungus with an alga?
a) Lichens
b) Thallus
c) Mycelium
d) Funga
Answer: a
Clarification: Lichen is a symbiotic organism which is associated of fungi and algae. It is often found as white or yellow patches on old walls and thereby destroy the strength of it. Lichen is an example of mutualism.

12. Gold can be decomposed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: According to the definition of decomposers which states that, ‘It is an organism that decomposes, or breaks down organic material’. But gold is not an organic material. Gold do not decompose in the sense that it either rots or withers away.

13. In order to form compost which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria?
a) Plant wastes
b) Kitchen wastes
c) Plastic and polythene wastes
d) Bodies of dead animals
Answer: c
Clarification: Bacteria cannot convert plastic and polythene to compost. Composting is a way to treat solid waste so that microorganisms break down the organic material. The composting process requires organic waste such as leaves, fruits and vegetables scraps.

14. Which is the most important group of decomposer?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Insects
d) Enzyme
Answer: a
Clarification: Bacteria begin the process of decomposition shortly after the death of an organic life form, it may be plant or animal. Bacteria that live in the body usually in the digestive tract start the decomposition process in animals.

250+ TOP MCQs on Effects and Control Measures of Air Pollution and Answers

Environment Management test on “Effects and Control Measures of Air Pollution”.

1. Which is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon dioxide for living organisms?
a) Hurricanes
b) Soil erosion
c) Vehicles emission
d) Cigarette smoking
Answer: d
Clarification: Cigarette smoking is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon monoxide. Exposure to air containing even 0.001% of carbon monoxide for few hours can cause collapse, coma and even death in the worst case.

2. How excessive water loss takes place in plants?
a) Due to soil pollution
b) Due to mutation
c) Due to air pollution
d) Due to improper seed
Answer: c
Clarification: The leaves of plants are damaged when some gaseous pollutants enter the pores of the leaf. Chronic exposure of the leaves to air pollutants can break down the waxy coating that helps prevent excessive water loss in plants.

3. How does asthma cause to human beings?
a) Because of excessive diet
b) Because of water pollution
c) Because of air pollution
d) Because of soil pollution
Answer: c
Clarification: Asthma is one of the health impacts that are caused due to air pollution. There are many health impacts especially respiratory impacts on human beings. Asthma is caused due to excessive inhale of sulphur dioxide and smoking.

4. What is the reason for reduced in the plant growth?
a) Excessive exposure to sunlight
b) Excessive exposure to wind
c) Excessive exposure to water pollution
d) Excessive exposure to air pollution
Answer: d
Clarification: Reduced in the plant growth is due to the chronic exposure of air pollution on the plants. Reduced plant growth is an effect due to the impact of plants of air pollution. Chronic exposure interferes with photosynthesis and plant growth in the plants.

5. Which dioxide damages the flower process in plants?
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrite dioxide
d) Magnesium dioxide
Answer: a
Clarification: Sulphur dioxide released due to air pollution caused damages to living organisms. Higher concentration of sulphur dioxide results in the formation of flowers. The flower buds become stiff and hard. They fall from the plants, as they are unable to flower.

6. Human’s respiratory system doesn’t many mechanisms that help to protect them from air pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Human respiratory have many mechanisms to prevent air pollution. The hair in the noise filters out large particles. The sticky mucus in the lining of the upper respiratory tract captures smaller particles and dissolves some gaseous pollutants.

7. What is the main reason for ozone depletion?
a) Releasing of oxygen
b) Releasing of chemicals
c) Releasing of CFCs
d) Releasing of nitrogen
Answer: c
Clarification: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCS) are extremely stable, non-flammable. CFCs leading in the ozone layer depletion. India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992, which aimed at controlling the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances.

8. Which of the following component is more dangerous to ozone layer?
a) CFCs
b) Nitrogen
c) Halons
d) Sulphur
Answer: c
Clarification: Halons are similar to structure to CFCs but it contains bromine instead of chlorine. CFCs and halons migrate into the upper atmosphere after they are released and caused damage to the ozone layer. Halons are more dangerous to the ozone layer than CFCs.

9. Why ozone depletion more over the South Pole?
a) Due to uneven disturbance of CFCs
b) Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere
c) Due to cyclonic depression in South Pole
d) Due to extreme pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: Despite the fact that CFCs are evenly distributed over the globe, ozone depletion is especially pronounced over the South Pole due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere.

10. When did India signed the Montreal Protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992. The aim is to control the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances. It was set up as an example of a successful international agreement.

11. What is the main reason for skin cancer?
a) Due to mutation
b) Due to unhealthy lifestyle
c) Due to alcohol consumption
d) Due to UV radiations
Answer: d
Clarification: Ozone depletion causes many harmful health impacts on humans and other organisms. When humans are exposed to Sunlight where due to ozone layer depletion receives direct UV radiations which cause skin burn which further causes skin cancer.

12. How many fundamental approaches are there to control air pollution?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Air pollution can be controlled by two fundamental approaches. Those approaches can control air pollution if it applies in effective way. The two fundamental approaches to control air pollution are preventive techniques and effluent control.

13. Why industries location plays an important role with concern to the environment?
a) To get more output from industries
b) To clear the forests in order to build the industries
c) To get more income
d) To prevent pollution causing by industries
Answer: d
Clarification: Industries should be carefully located in order to minimize the effects of pollution after considering the topography and wind direction. Industries with are in side cities cause more pollution than those which are in outskirts.

14. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) is formed to monitor the air quality.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: NAMP aims to determine the present air quality status and trends, and to control and regulate pollution from industries and other sources to meet the ambient air quality standards. It provides background air quality data that is required for industrial sitting and town planning.

To practice all areas of Environment Management for tests,

250+ TOP MCQs on Management of Forests and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Management of Forests”.

1. What are the three R’s that are used to save the environment which includes forest?
a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle
c) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
d) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
Answer: a
Clarification: The three R’s which are used to save the environment which includes forest are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle. Reduce is the first step towards effective waste management. Reuse helps in reducing waste that needs to be recycled. Recycle helps in the prevention of pollution.

2. How many National Parks are there in India as of 2015?
a) 88
b) 96
c) 106
d) 179
Answer: a
Clarification: There are 88 national parks are there in India. In 1970, we only had 5 National Parks. Then came the Project Tiger in 1972, and we have added quite a few national parks after the Project Tiger which are playing important role.

3. How much area is under the forest cover in India?
a) Around 610000 sq km
b) Around 670000 sq km
c) Around 710000 sq km
d) Around 750000 sq km
Answer: c
Clarification: Forest Survey of India published the statistics of forest area of various states a union territory in 2017. According to this statistics 708273 square kilometers of forest land is covered in the country.

4. Which community of Rajasthan Have religious belief for conservation of forest and wildlife?
a) Haddi
b) Bishnoi
c) Rajput
d) Thakur
Answer: b
Clarification: Bishnoi community was founded by Lord Jambheshwar, the preserver of all that’s created on earth. The Bishnois consider trees as sacred, they protect the entire ecosystem that exists in their village.

5. Which one of the following movement was carried out for the conservation of forests and the environment?
a) Forest movement
b) Ganaga Action Plan
c) Tehri Andolan
d) Chipko Andolan
Answer: d
Clarification: Chipko Andolan is a nonviolent social and ecological movement by rural villagers particularly women’s in India in the 1970s. It was aimed at protecting trees and forest slated for government-backed logging.

6. Forest management has various scopes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Forest management encompasses a very wide scope and is becoming more important due to climate change and global warming which are encountering today. India is very diverse in its natural resources and vegetation, hence forest management plays an important role.

7. Which of the following is not a principle of Chugach National Forest?
a) The forest service is governed by many existing laws
b) National Forest System lands are managed for multiple uses
c) It provides subsistence uses for rural residents of Alaska
d) It doesn’t collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes
Answer: d
Clarification: A set of fundamental principles will guide the management of the Chugach National Forest. It is actively collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes, state and federal agencies and individuals in the management of forests.

8. Which country leads in the producing and consuming of forest products?
a) Nepal
b) Kenya
c) India
d) United States
Answer: d
Clarification: The United States is the world’s leading producer and consumer of forest products, accounting for more than one-quarter of the world’s production and consumption of the forest products.

9. Which of the following is not the best way to fight a forest fire?
a) Evacuate from the forest surrounding places
b) Not using water as a fire suppression tool
c) Deploy suppressant foam
d) Create a fire line
Answer: b
Clarification: Water is the best tool to suppress the fire. When fire crews arrive at a forest fire, they st up power pumps at the closest water source that they can find, and then they run to suppresses the fire. Water can stops the spreading of forest fire and it suppresses the remaining fire.

10. What is the full form of JFM with related to Forest Management?
a) Joint Forest Management
b) Junior Forest Management
c) Jury Forest Management
d) Jharkhand Forest Management
Answer: a
Clarification: Joint Forest Management (JFM) seeks to secure the involvement of local communities in management of forests on which people depend to meet various needs like for fodder, firewood, grass and so on.

11. What is called for the practice of regulating forest resources to meet the needs of society and industry while preserving the forest’s health?
a) Environmental protection
b) Sustainable Forest Management
c) Forest policy framework
d) Unsustainable Forest Management
Answer: b
Clarification: Sustainable forest management, also known as sustainable forestry is always looking to strike a balance between the demand for the forest’s natural resources and the vitality of the forest ecosystem.

12. Which one of the following is a branch of forestry?
a) Protection Forestry
b) Deforestation
c) Forest Management
d) Restricted Forestry
Answer: c
Clarification: Forest Management is a branch of forestry concerned with overall administrative legal, economic, social aspects and technical aspects. Management can be based on conservation, economics or a mixture of the two.

13. Which one of the following is not the best way to stop deforestation?
a) Planting trees
b) Not encouraging for recycling the used products
c) Go paperless
d) Eat vegetarian meals as often as possible
Answer: b
Clarification: One of the easy ways to combat deforestation is to plant a tree. Using less paper or go for paperless is also an effective way to stop deforestation. Eat vegetarian meals also helps to stop for forestation. Recycle and buying recycled products helps to stop deforestation.

14. Forest management varies in intensity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Forest management varies in intensity from an alone to a highly intensive regime with silvicultural interventions. Forest Management is generally increased in its intensity to achieve either economic criteria or ecological critera.

250+ TOP MCQs on Population Growth and Answers Quiz

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Population Growth “.

1. Which of the following is the main reason for not providing employment to the growing population?
a) Majority of the population own their business
b) Majority of the population have plenty of amounts with them
c) Majority of the population is poor
d) Majority of the population is illiterate

Answer: d
Clarification: Due to rapid population growth, providing employment to growing population is one of the biggest challenges. This is so because in developing economies the majority of the populations is illiterate. Every year number of illiterates increasing in numbers.

2. Where we can find over strained infrastructure due to population growth?
a) In rural areas
b) In forest areas
c) In desert areas
d) In urban areas

Answer: d
Clarification: Due to over population growth facilities such as housing, transportation, health care and education become inadequate. The worst symptoms of congestion in every aspect of living conditions are manifested in the urban areas.

3. Which one of the following is a result of overpopulation?
a) Adequate storage of natural resources
b) Pressure on land and other renewable resources
c) Increasing the amount of forest
d) Decrease the shortage of water

Answer: b
Clarification: Due to rapid population growth, there is a pressure on land and other renewable natural resources. Due to over exploitation of forest and water it results in desertification with permanent damage to renewable resources.

4. Which one of the following is the main reason for decrease in the per capita income?
a) Due to decrease in gross national product
b) Due to decrease in population growth
c) Due to increase in population growth
d) Due to equitable distribution of income

Answer: c
Clarification: Due to increase in population there is an inequitable distribution of income. The increase in gross national product is greatly reduced in per capita terms on account of the rapidly growing population.

5. According to 2011 census, what is the annual exponential growth rate in India?
a) 1.34%
b) 1.45%
c) 1.64%
d) 1.75%

Answer: c
Clarification: In spite of many attempts to check population growth, the birth rate is still high in India. Annual exponential growth rate is 1.64% as per as 2011 census. Overpopulation causes various problems to the ecosystem.

6. Over population growth causing disproportionate gender composition.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: According to 2001 census, national sex ratio is 940 females per 1000 males. Due to poverty female mortality is higher. Only Kerala and Pondicherry have more women percentage OF SEX RATIO than men.

7. What is the reason for poor standard of living and malnutrition in India?
a) Due to environmental conditions
b) Due to over population
c) Due to absence of natural resources
d) Due to the poor economy of India

Answer: b
Clarification: Standard of living in India is affected by its population. There is a great shortage of nourishment, especially in balanced diet which results in the malnutrition. This malnutrition causes various problems to humans.

8. Why it is impossible to provide employment to all the unemployed in India?
a) Due to lack of economy
b) Due to over population growth
c) Due to the absence of natural resources
d) Due to lack of interest among youths

Answer: b
Clarification: Due to over population it is impossible to provide employment to all the unemployed in India. Over population leads to increase the need of job among people. This over population is a great harm for per capita income among Indians.

9. What is the need to control the population growth in India?
a) To improve the standard of living among existing people
b) To utilize all the natural resources among the existing people
c) To participate in war among neighboring nations
d) To increase the mortality rate in India

Answer: a
Clarification: The need for controlling population is urgent and pressing so that the existing people may have an improved standard of living. Overpopulation cause various ill effects for both humans and as well as for the environment.

10. Which one of the following is the cause for overpopulation in India?
a) Birth rate is lower than the death rate
b) Birth rate is higher than the death rate
c) There is no death happening
d) Due to over pollution

Answer: b
Clarification: The common cause leading to over population in India is the birth rate is still higher than the death rate. Declining of death rate is achieved from medical technologies but the same cannot achieve for birth rates.

11. Which one of the following is the step to control population growth in India?
a) Killing all newborn babies
b) Not providing medical assistance to people
c) Lowering infant mortality rate
d) Early marriage to girls

Answer: c
Clarification: Lowering infant mortality rate can also help in solving the problem of population. It has been seen that mortality rate among poor children is high and because of this poor couples tend to have more kids.

12. What is India’s global rank in population?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

Answer: b
Clarification: India stands in second position after China in population. As of 2018 India’s yearly change percentage of population is 1.11%. China’s population to world share is 18.54%, whereas India’s world share is 17.74%.

13. Which one of the following can be a solution to overpopulation?
a) Neglecting family planning
b) Knowledge of sex education
c) Providing more facilities to the family consisting if more kids
d) Improper medical facilities

Answer: b
Clarification: Imparting sex education to young kids at elementary level will decrease the rate of over population in the upcoming years. Providing information about safe sex and about contraceptives for sexually active teenagers will reduce the population growth.

250+ TOP MCQs on Renewable Resources and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Renewable Resources”.

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply

Answer: d
Clarification: Renewable energy often relies on the weather for its sources of power. Hydro generators need rain to fill dams and thereby provide electricity. Wind turbines need wind to turn the blades. Solar collectors need clear skies and sunshine.

2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect

Answer: a
Clarification: The photovoltaic effect was first discovered in 1839 by Edmond Becquerel. The hotovoltaic effect is a process that generates voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell when it is exposed to sunlight.

3. Wood is a renewable resource.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Wood is a renewable resource. Trees can be replanted and grown to maturity in place of those that are cut down. When the trees are replanted at the same rate as they are cut down, wood will be a renewable resource. Rainforests are said to be non-renewable because they take thousands of years to re-grow.

4. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power

Answer: a
Clarification: Dams are used for power generation. The reservoir water is stored at a higher level than the turbines, which are housed in a power station. The dam feed water directly to the turbines in the power station.

5. The main composition of biogas is _______________
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

Answer: a
Clarification: Biogas is one of the types of bio fuel that is produced from the decomposition of organic waste. Biogas is known as the environmentally-friendly energy source since it is converting organic waste into energy. The composition of biogas is as follows: – Methane 50-75%, Carbon dioxide 25-50%, Nitrogen 0-10%, Hydrogen 0-1%.

6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare

Answer: c
Clarification: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop renewable energy for supplementing the energy requirements of India. It is headquartered in Lodhi Road, New Delhi.

7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind power having capacity 29000 MW holds 56.8%, Solar power having capacity 9500 MW holds 18.5%, Biomass power having capacity 8200 MW holds 16%, Small Hydro power having capacity 4400 MW holds 8.5%.

8. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________
a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra

Answer: a
Clarification: Cochin International airport, the fourth-largest airport in India in terms of international traffic, now runs entirely on solar power. Cochin International Airport became the world’s first fully solar powered airport on 18 August 2015.

9. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro

Answer: d
Clarification: According to a recent survey large hydro installed capacity was 44.41 GW. The large hydro is administered separately by the Ministry of Power and not included in Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

10. Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India?
a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra

Answer: b
Clarification: Muppandal Wind Farm produces 1500 MW of current capacity. Muppandal Wind Farm is the second largest onshore wind farm in the world. This Wind Farm supplies power to many regions in Tamil Nadu.

11. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: No, Nuclear Energy is not a Renewable Energy. Nuclear Energy is produced in Nuclear power plant. Nuclear power plant uses uranium as nuclear fuel to generate electricity during the nuclear fission reaction. Uranium is a finite resource, so we can’t consider the nuclear energy produced by uranium in a nuclear reactor as a renewable energy source.

12. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?
a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development

Answer:a
Clarification: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency established in 1987 as Non-Banking Financial Institution. It is engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects which are relating to new and renewable sources of energy.

250+ TOP MCQs on Energy Flow in the Ecosystem and Answers

Energy Management Interview Questions and Answers for freshers on “Energy Flow in the Ecosystem”.

1. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy?
a) Oxidation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Decomposition

Answer: c
Clarification: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste.

2. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Consumers
d) Herbivores

Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the food chain.

3. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Carbon
c) Monoxide
d) Nitrogen

Answer: a
Clarification: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of energy from the sun to make food.

4. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals?
a) Omnivore
b) Carnivore
c) Decomposers
d) Herbivore

Answer: a
Clarification: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters.

5. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem?
a) Because it flows in air medium
b) Because it is very particular
c) Because ecosystem is linear
d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one

Answer: d
Clarification: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step. This is according to 10% energy transfer law.

6. Energy flow is cyclic
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Energy flow is a natural process that has energy associated with the movement. The energy is passed from one organism to another in the food chain but unlike water and few elements like nitrogen and carbon, energy doesn’t return in a cycle.

7. Flow of nutrients is___________________________
a) Unidirectional
b) Rectangular
c) Cyclic
d) Triangular

Answer: c
Clarification: Nutrients flows in a cyclic form. This is because to create a balance of nutrients in different resources of the environment. These nutrients even if used are restored by these biogeochemical cycles. The flow of nutrients from abiotic factor to biotic factors helped by biogeochemical cycles.

8. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them?
a) Because plants do not require energy
b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season
c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll
d) Because sunlight doesn’t fall on the leaves fully

Answer: d
Clarification: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy.

9. Which form of Sun’s energy is trapped by the producers in the energy flow?
a) Light energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Wind energy
d) Pressure energy

Answer: a
Clarification: The potential for light to perform work is called as light energy. Here light from sun enters the plants and there it creates energy with the help of chlorophyll. This chlorophyll is a green pigment present in all green plants to trap light energy.

10. How many percents of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%

Answer: a
Clarification: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost through heat as it transfers along each level. The reason for this is when energy is transferred energy is lost. This is according to second law of thermodynamics.

11. Into how many areas the energy that is received by organisms during energy transfer is converted?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: c
Clarification: The energy that is received during energy transfer which is received by organisms is converted onto three different areas. The three areas are, a)Net Consumer Productivity, b)Metabolic Energy, c) Organic Waste.

12. There is always a loss of some energy as heat during energy flows through an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: At each trophic level about 90% of the energy is lost. It is called as ‘Ten Percent Law’, which was introduced by Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, during the transfer of energy from organic food from one tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh.