Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

250+ TOP MCQs on Land Resources and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Land Resources”.

1. A continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________
a) Seashore
b) Beach
c) Landmass
d) Wetland
Answer: c
Clarification: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage ‘landmass’ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents. Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass.

2. How many major continuous landmass are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present.

3. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________
a) Domestic land
b) Arable land
c) Un arable land
d) Dry land
Answer: b
Clarification: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world’s arable land. India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%.

4. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation?
a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 225
Answer: b
Clarification: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree of degradation will affect the existing land resources.

5. Wearing away of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known as_____________
a) Wind erosion
b) Soil erosion
c) Water erosion
d) Sand erosion
Answer: b
Clarification: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is by water or wind.

6. The greater the intensity and duration of a rainstorm, the higher the erosion potential.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The impact of raindrops on the soil surfaces can break down soil aggregates and disperse the aggregate material. Lighter aggregate materials such as very fine sand, silt, clay and organic matter are easily removed by raindrops.

7. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each soil is known as__________________
a) Soil erodibility
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil potentiality
d) Soil neutrality
Answer: a
Clarification: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater resistance to erosion.

8. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known as_________________
a) Polder
b) Resign
c) Derelict
d) Catchment
Answer: a
Clarification: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains and the last one is marshes.

9. In Germany marshes separated from the surrounding water by a dike are known as______________
a) Delt
b) Koogs
c) Catchment
d) Flood plains
Answer: b
Clarification: A koog is one of the types of polder found on the North Sea West of Germany. Koog is established by the construction of dykes enclosing the land which is drained to form marshland. Koog is protected by embankments known as dykes.

10. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________
a) Water
b) Air
c) Soil
d) Sunlight
Answer: c
Clarification: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral nutrient solutions to feed the plants.

11. The land which is abandoned and declared as not good for cultivation anymore is known as_____________
a) Polder
b) Koogs
c) Derelict land
d) Catchment land
Answer: c
Clarification: Derelict land is the land that has become damaged by industrial or other development and beyond uses without any kind of treatment. The treatments that is given for derelict land are demolition and levelling.

12. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called as_______________
a) Mineral
b) Soil
c) Sand
d) Chemical fertilizers
Answer: b
Clarification: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic and inorganic material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem.

13. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain is known as__________________
a) Landform
b) Landslide
c) Deforestation
d) Deformation
Answer: b
Clarification: During landslides huge masses of land slide down destroying anything in its path. Various development activities like construction of dams, reservoirs, roads require large space which results in deforestation. This activity increases chances of landslides.

14. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known as________________
a) Deforestation
b) Deformation
c) Landform
d) Desertification
Answer: d
Clarification: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to 25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a 50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water.

250+ TOP MCQs on Major International Environmental Protocols and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Major International Environmental Protocols”.

1. When did the Montreal protocol come into force?
a) 1985
b) 1987
c) 1989
d) 1991
Answer: c
Clarification: Montreal protocol on substances that deplete ozone layer came into force in 1989. The protocol settargete for reducing the consumption and production of a range of ozone depleting substances.

2. When did India accepted Montreal protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: Though Montreal protocol came into force in 1989, India accepted this protocol with its London Amendment in September 1992. The Ministry of Environment and Forest has established an ozone cell for this.

3. When did Kyoto protocol adopted?
a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2007
Answer: b
Clarification: The Kyoto protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on December 1997. It entered int force on 16 February 2005. It is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change.

4. For the convention on Biological Diversity which protocol was adopted?
a) Kyoto
b) Montreal
c) The Nagoya Protocol
d) The Cartagena protocol
Answer: d
Clarification: The Cartagena protocol on biosafety was adapted to the convention on Biological Diversity. It is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms.

5. Which protocol aims to sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources?
a) The Nagoya Protocol
b) The Cartagena protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Montreal Protocol
Answer: a
Clarification: The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefits-sharing is an international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. It came into force on 12th October 2014.

6. Protocol and conventions are the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A protocol to the convention is an agreement that diplomatic negotiators formulate and sign as the basis for a final convention where the parties set specific aims. Usually, when a major provision is to be incorporated a protocol is called among the countries.

7. Which protocol helps to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons?
a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) The Cartagena Protocol
d) The Nagoya Protocol
Answer: a
Clarification: Hydro-fluorocarbons are greenhouse gases with a significantly higher warming potential than carbon dioxide. More than 170 countries have reached a historic deal to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons after years of protracted.

8. How many parties are there in the Nagoya Protocol?
a) 91
b) 93
c) 95
d) 97
Answer: b
Clarification: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Presently there are 93 parties are there. Secretary General of the United Nations worked as a depository for the Nagoya protocol.

9. When did the Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol come into force?
a) 2011
b) 2015
c) 2017
d) 2018
Answer: d
Clarification: The Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol is the recent added protocol. This protocol is majorly on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. This protocol came into force on 5 March 2018.

10. The international committee came into force for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The international committee for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (ICC) was established in decision EM-1/3 adoption the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to undertake the preparations necessary for the first meeting of the parties to the protocol.

300+ TOP Solid Waste MCQs and Answers Quiz Test Exam

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Solid Waste”.

1. The process of burning municipal solid waste at high temperature is called ____________
a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) Land filing
d) Shredding
Answer: a
Explanation: Incineration is the most sanitary method of disposal of municipal solid waste. Solid waste should have a high calorific value.

2. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
a) Polythene bags
b) Synthetic fiber
c) Food waste
d) Paper
Answer: c
Explanation: Polythene bags, synthetic fiber and paper are non biodegradable wastes whereas food waste is a biodegradable waste.

3. In which method of disposal of municipal solid waste, the waste is dumped in the soil?
a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) Land filing
d) Shredding
Answer: c
Explanation: Land filling is a process of disposal of solid waste under the soil. It is usually done in low lying areas to prevent unhygienic conditions.

4. Which of the following is correct regarding disposal of waste by land filling?
a) Economical method
b) Preferred in low lying areas
c) Foul gases are not produced
d) Separation of different types of waste not required
Answer: c
Explanation: Land fill gases are produced during the dumping of waste. They are foul smell creating unhygienic conditions.

5. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is ___________
a) 100 kg/m3
b) 450 kg/m3
c) 700 kg/m3
d) 1000 kg/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of the d density of ash produced from the municipal solid waste is 700-850kg/m3.
6. The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is called ___________
a) Landfills
b) Shredding
c) Vermicomposting
d) Composting
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is called Vermicomposting.

7. The waste produced in cotton mills are ___________
a) Municipal solid waste
b) Non biodegradable waste
c) Hazardous waste
d) Non hazardous waste
Answer: d
Explanation: Industrial waste is produced by cotton mills that are biodegradable and are non-hazardous.

8. Which of the following is not the landfilling method?
a) Bangalore method
b) Area method
c) Depression method
d) Trench method
Answer: a
Explanation: Bangalore method is a method of composting whereas area, depression and trench method are the land filling method.

9. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from it.
a) Leachate
b) Sludge
c) Distilled water
d) Municipal waste
Answer: a
Explanation: Leachate is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from it. It can be minimized by the use of clay lines.

10. Which of the following is not the municipal solid waste?
a) Radioactive substance
b) Ashes
c) Food waste
d) Rubbish
Answer: a
Explanation: Rubbish, food waste and food waste are municipal solid waste, whereas radioactive substances are industrial waste.
11. Which of the following waste can be decomposed by bacteria?
a) Radioactive substance
b) Ashes
c) Food waste
d) Rubbish
Answer: c
Explanation: Food waste can be decomposed by bacteria as they are biodegradable waste, whereas ashes, rubbish is non biodegradable.

12. ______ is the cutting and tearing of municipal solid waste.
a) Land fills
b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
Answer: b
Explanation: Shredding is the cutting and tearing of municipal solid waste. It helps in reducing the size and volume of municipal solid waste.

13. _________ is the crushing and grinding of municipal solid waste.
a) Land fills
b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
Answer: c
Explanation: Pulverization is the crushing and grinding of municipal solid waste. It changes the character of municipal solid waste and reduced its volume by 40%.

14. In which method of composting, decomposition of anaerobic waste takes place?
a) Indian method
b) Depression method
c) Bangalore method
d) Trench method
Answer: c
Explanation: In the Bangalore method of composting, decomposition of anaerobic waste takes place. It is better than the Indore method.

15. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?
a) Land fills
b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
Answer: d
Explanation: Composting is a biological method of decomposing the municipal solid waste under aerobic and anaerobic condition. It results in the production of humus.

16. Which was the first city to an established system of waste removal?
a) Lahore
b) Athens
c) Paris
d) London
Answer: b
Explanation: In ancient cities, food scraps and other waste were simply thrown onto the unpaved streets where they accumulated and cause various diseases. Around 320 BC in Athens, the first known law forbidding this practice was established.

17. Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
a) Because it is very costly
b) Because it requires modern technologies
c) Because it cause several environmental issues
d) Because it requires lot of space
Answer: c
Explanation: Burning waste is not an acceptable practice, because if we look into environmental or health prospective burning waste creates lots of pollution and it is harmful to both environment and as well as organisms.

18. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?
a) Integrated waste management plan
b) Recycling of waste management plan
c) Reducing of waste management plan
d) Use of waste management plan
Answer: a
Explanation: The disposal of solid waste should be part of an integrated waste management plan. This integrated solid waste management is the method of collection, processing, resource recovery and final disposal of solid waste.

19. The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
a) Hazardous
b) Toxic
c) Non hazardous
d) Non toxic
Answer: a
Explanation: The term ‘municipal Solid Waste’ is generally used to describe most of the non-hazardous solid waste from a city, town or village that requires routine collection and transport to a processing or disposal site.

20. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: An integrated waste management strategy includes three main components they are source reduction, recycling and disposal. All these three types plays an important role in the solid waste management.

21. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) contains a wide variety of materials.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: MSW contains a wide variety of materials. It can contain food waste which is classified as wet garbage and paper, plastic, tetra packs, plastic cans, glass bottles, metal items, wood pieces, aluminum foil and many more items.
22. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
a) Source reduction
b) Recycling
c) Disposal
d) Burning
Answer: a
Explanation: Source reduction is one of the fundamental ways to reduce waste. On an individual level, we can reduce the use of unnecessary items while shopping, avoid buying disposable items and avoid using plastic carry bags.
23. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
a) Plastic
b) Wood
c) Organic materials
d) Aluminum
Answer: d
Explanation: Recycling is reusing some components of the waste that has some economic value. Aluminum can be recycled many times. Mining of new aluminum is expensive hence recycling of aluminum plays a significant role in aluminum industry.
24. Why plastics are difficult to recycle?
a) Because it is very hard material
b) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
c) Because of different types of polymer resins
d) Because of different sizes of plastic
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastic are difficult to recycle because of the different types of polymer resins in their production. Since each type has a distinct chemical composition, different plastics cannot be recycled together.
25. How many key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The three key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill that distinguish it from an open dump are: Solid waste is placed in a suitably selected and prepared landfill site, the waste material is spread out and compacted with appropriate heavy machinery, the waste is covered each day with a layer of compacted soil.
26. How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation
b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water
d) By the soil particles
Answer: b
Explanation: The organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose due to the action of microorganisms. At first the waste decomposes aerobically until the oxygen that was present in the freshly placed fill is used up by the aerobic microorganisms.
27. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill
b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Explanation: Incineration is a chemical process in which the combustible portion of the waste is combined with oxygen forming carbon dioxide and water, which are released into the atmosphere. Suitable temperature and operating conditions are required to achieve for incineration.
28. Why the recycled paper is banned for use in food containers?
a) Because it creates contamination
b) Because it creates a lot of spaces
c) Because paper can be used only one time
d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
Answer: a
Explanation: Recycled paper is banned for use in food containers to prevent the possibility of contamination. It very often costs less to transport raw-paper pulp than scrap paper. Collection, sorting and transport account for about 90% of the cost of paper recycling.
29. Landfilling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal and it can be implemented easily.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Although land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal, it becomes increasingly difficult to find suitable landfilling sites within economic hauling distance. There will be a danger of some environmental damage in the form of leakage of leachate.
30. Which of the following undesirable and waste material is neither gas nor liquid?
a) Water waste
b) Oxygen
c) Liquid waste
d) Solid waste
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid waste like meal scraps, waste food, racked leaves, sewage, animal manure etc. are referred as unwanted waste material that is not in gas or liquid state. Molecular oxygen, liquid waste and water waste are not found in solid state.
31. Which of the following are not categorized as hazardous wastes?
a) Garbage
b) Industry wastes
c) Hospital wastes
d) Laboratory wastes
Answer: a
Explanation: Garbage usually produced during cooking, storage of other food items is not categorized as hazardous wastes whereas, industry wastes, hospital wastes and laboratory wastes contains biohazards, harmful chemicals which is very harmful for the environment and hence categorized as hazardous waste.
32. Disposal is the initial stage during solid waste management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Disposal is usually done in the end and hence, is not done in the initial stage during the solid waste management, may it be from residential area or commercial area or any other source.
33. Which of the following is both inorganic and organic?
a) Sewage Sludge
b) Liquid crystalline
c) Natural gas
d) Semicrystalline
Answer: a
Explanation: Sewage Sludge is produced during primary and secondary treatment phases and are usually sticky and has pathogens, so, it is both inorganic and organic, whereas, Liquid crystalline and Semi crystalline are optically active polymer that can activate in response to heat, light, electrical field etc. and hence, is not is inorganic or organic and natural gas is usually a hydrocarbon which is non-renewable.
34. Which of the following is not a result of mishandling of solid waste?
a) Odor
b) Hydrolysis of sugar
c) Fire
d) Dysentery
Answer: b
Explanation: Mishandling of solid waste can lead to fire from ashes when added to combustible refuse, dysentery like bacillary dysentery, amoebic dysentery from human fecal matter spread by flies to food and water, odor due to rotting of garbage but hydrolysis of sugar is not a result of mismanagement of solid waste.
35. Which of the following is a visual pollution?
a) Insightfulness of piles of garbage
b) Mashing with Adhesives
c) Mashing with Fibers
d) Flowers
Answer: a
Explanation: Insightfulness of piles of garbage which offends the aesthetic feeling is referred to as visual pollution, whereas, mashing with Adhesives or fibers is not related to visual pollution and flowers are fine-looking to watch.
36. Which of the following methods cannot be used for waste disposal?
a) Dumping
b) Gasification
c) Incineration
d) Open sea disposal
Answer: d
Explanation: If open sea disposal method is used for disposing waste, a lot of aquatic organisms would be affected and in long run it might affect other land organisms as well, whereas, dumping is done in low lying areas, gasification is the degradation of organic matter in anaerobic conditions and incineration involves chemical reaction, all these methods doesn’t cause much damage to the environment.
37. Which of the following is an important part of the natural release of biogas in the environment?
a) Biogeochemcial cycle
b) Environment pollution
c) Afforestation
d) Deforestation
Answer: a
Explanation: The natural release of biogas in the environment due to the activity of methanogens leads is crucial for biogeochemical cycle, whereas, biogas does not lead to a considerable amount of environment pollution, afforestation and deforestation are caused by human intervention.
38. Which of the following organism degrade the organic matter thereby, transfer the matter to the environment?
a) Methanogens
b) Manganese
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Methane
Answer: a
Explanation: Methanogens degrade the organic matter under anaerobic conditions producing natural biogas, whereas, manganese, carbon dioxide and methane are not microorganisms that degrade the organic matter.
40. Which of the following temperature is optimum for incinerators?
a) 900-1100°C
b) 100-110°C
c) 90-110°C
d) 100-11000°C
Answer: a
Explanation: 900-1100°C is the optimum temperature for incinerators which operates in the combustion zone which results in good combustion and also protects the inside walls of the incinerator. Temperature above and lower this range wouldn’t result in good combustion and might harm the incinerator as well.
41. The chemical reaction between the carbon, hydrogen present in the solid waste combines with the oxygen.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The chemical reaction between the carbon, hydrogen present in the solid waste combines with the oxygen and when it enters the combustion zone, this reaction generates heat.
42. Which of the following resembles the rich topsoil in context to solid waste composting?
a) Humus
b) Bed rock
c) Sub soil
d) Weathered rock
Answer: a
Explanation: The dark substance in the top layer of the soil which looks like peat and has a powdery texture is humus, sub soil, weathered rock bed rock are the subsequent layers after the top layer.
43. Why mismanagement of battery waste can be harmful?
a) Texture
b) Heavy metals
c) Plastics
d) Odor
Answer: b
Explanation: Battery recycling is very vital as it contains heavy metals like cadmium, lead and mercury which if comes in contact with the environment is very harmful. Hence, should be handled properly. Odor and texture is not hazardous; plastics is a major concern but is not related to the batteries waste.
44. Why recycling of metal is more cost-effective?
a) Extraction of metal increases
b) Increases operating cost
c) Reduces operating cost
d) Reduces odor
Answer: c
Explanation: Recycling of metal highly reduces the operating cost and the industrial cost as extraction cost is reduced and energy consumption is also reduced, extraction of metal decreases and odor is not relative.
45. Unrecycled plastic leads to emission of greenhouse gases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Unrecycled plastic leads to emission of greenhouse gases because of their non-renewable property and is potential pollutant in the environment and can also lead to emission of carcinogenic gases.
46. Which of the following area has the lowest chance of producing a biomedical waste?
a) Hospitals
b) Clinics
c) Laboratories
d) Agricultural lands
Answer: d
Explanation: Hospitals, clinics, laboratories and various research centers generate a lot of biomedical wastes from diagnosis, treatment and disease on various diseases generate wastes that are termed as biomedical waste. But agricultural lands generally produce wastes that are biodegradable in nature, so they are not called as biomedical waste.
47. Which of the following is not a Biomedical waste?
a) Animal waste
b) Microbiological waste
c) Chemical waste
d) Domestic waste
Answer: d
Explanation: Domestic waste doesn’t contain any infectious agents and is totally degradable in nature but animal waste contains animal tissue and organs, microbiological waste contains microbiological specimen wastes, chemical waste contains disinfectant chemicals. So, all of these wastes are treated as Biomedical wastes.
48. Biomedical wastes are not infectious.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Biomedical wastes are infectious, they are pathological, pharmaceutical waste that are infectious to living organisms thereby spreading diseases. So, it is really required to dispose of the Biomedical wastes properly to avoid any further contamination.
49. Which of the following is categorized as an incineration waste?
a) Incineration ash
b) Animal waste
c) Solid waste
d) Cytotoxic drugs
Answer: a
Explanation: Incineration ash comes from any biomedical wastes that is being incinerated and ignited and burnt to dispose of the biomedical wastes. This prevents further contamination but this also creates Incineration ash, which has the potential of causing a disease and hence, it’s treatment is very necessary for the public health, whereas, animal waste contains animal tissue and organs, Solid waste can be any wastes from the hospitals or labs like cotton, blood tubing, catheters etc. and cytotoxic drugs are used and old expired medicines.
50. Which of the following should not be mixed with other wastes to avoid contamination?
a) Tarry residue
b) Oily sludge
c) Animal waste
d) Vegetable oil
Answer: c
Explanation: Animal waste is a type of biomedical waste that contains animal tissue and organs and it is not safe for contamination with other wastes as they are infectious. Tarry residue, oily sludge, are hazardous waste of petrochemical processes which should be handled correctly and disposed of carefully without causing any damage to the environment, but it certainly is not infectious. Vegetable oil doesn’t pose any threat as it’s a kitchen waste and domestic wastes are biodegradable.
51. Which of the following is not a waste treatment method for biomedical wastes?
a) Incineration
b) Chemical disinfecting
c) Autoclaving
d) Sieving
Answer: d
Explanation: Sieving is a physical method of separation of bigger molecules and it cannot be used in a waste treatment method, whereas, incineration, chemical disinfecting, autoclaving, encapsulation are the methods used for waste treatment of biomedical wastes.
52. Which of the following requires special treatment of bacteria?
a) Packaging of waste
b) Labelling of waste
c) Transport of waste
d) Degradation of waste
Answer: d
Explanation: Degradation of waste especially biomedical wastes requires some special treatment of bacteria or other microorganisms, whereas, Packaging, labelling and transport of biomedical wastes should be done properly in order to avoid any hazardous contamination of the wastes with the environment and with humans that can be infectious.
53. Which of the following can be used to produce marketable compost from dry solid wastes?
a) Aerobic composting
b) Vermicomposting
c) Anaerobic digestion
d) Anaerobic composting
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerobic composting is used to treat dry solid wastes which can thereby produce compost which can be readily marketed, vermicomposting is usually used to treat lignocellulosic waste, anaerobic composting and Anaerobic digestion are the same thing which is used to treat simple organic wastes, hence, Aerobic composting. Is most suitable for dry solid wastes.
54. Which of the following can be used to treat wastes with simple organic matter with high water content?
a) Vermicomposting
b) Aerobic composting
c) Incineration
d) Anaerobic digestion
Answer: d
Explanation: Vermicomposting is usually used to treat lignocellulosic waste which are also dry in nature, Aerobic composting is used to treat dry solid waste, Incineration is method to treat wastes by burning i.e. heat, Anaerobic digestion is used to treat wastes with simple organic matter and with high water content which thereby, degrades it and produces better marketable compost.
55. Genetically engineered microorganisms can treat biomedical wastes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Genetically engineered microorganisms can be used to treat biomedical wastes as it gives a new biological approach to treat the wastes which poses a great threat to the human health. Moreover, it is more environment friendly than any other methods. It can be used to convert the toxic wastes to non-hazardous and non-toxic form.
56. Which of the following characteristics is not important to hazardous wastes?
a) Quantity
b) Concentration
c) Color
d) Physical or chemical properties
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantity, concentration, physical or chemical properties or infectious characteristics are important to hazardous wastes as they define their properties and categories them into solid wastes that are hazardous to the next environment or humans. But color is not a very important property to define the characteristics of hazardous wastes as it doesn’t interfere with the property.
57. Which of the following is not an ill-effect of improper handling of hazardous waste?
a) Increase in mortality rate
b) Irreversible illness
c) Threat to the environment
d) Decrease in mortality rate
Answer: d
Explanation: Increase in mortality rate, irreversible illness, threat to the environment and humans when not disposed of properly are several ill-effects of improper handling of hazardous waste. But this definitely doesn’t decrease the mortality rate as it poses serious threats and potential hazard to human health.
58. It is the responsibility of the civilians to take care of the disposed of hazardous wastes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the prime responsibility of the operators or the occupier or the dweller to take care of the hazardous wastes, its disposal and handle it properly to avoid its adverse effect on the environment and human health under the law set by the Indian government.
59. Which of the following is not a serious hazardous characteristic of the waste?
a) Toxicity
b) Ignitability
c) Corrosiveness
d) Degradability
Answer: d
Explanation: Degradability is not a hazardous characteristic of the waste; it is always a good approach if the waste can be degraded safely without causing any major damage to the environment. But toxicity, ignitability, corrosiveness and reactivity are a few serious hazardous characteristics of the waste, which if not treated poses serious health hazards and environmental damage.
60. Which of the following is not a hazardous waste of petrochemical processes?
a) Tarry residue
b) Oily sludge
c) Slop oil
d) Vegetable oil
Answer: d
Explanation: Tarry residue, oily sludge, slop oil, spent catalyst, organic residues, etc. are the hazardous waste of petrochemical processes which should be handled correctly and disposed of carefully without causing any damage to the environment. Vegetable oil doesn’t pose any threat as it’s a kitchen waste and not waste of petrochemical processes.
61. Which of the following is not generated in waste treatment processes?
a) Sludge
b) Ash
c) Organic solvents
d) Noise
Answer: d
Explanation: Noise is not a waste that is generated in the waste treatment processes as it is a sound which affects the environment but physically doesn’t. And it is not generated in waste treatment processes. Whereas, sludge, ash, organic solvents are generated during various processes like incineration, wet scrubbers, distillation etc. These are generated in waste treatment processes and can be a serious threat to the environment if not disposed of properly.
62. In provision of the rules, which of the following is not appropriate with respect to the hazardous wastes?
a) Packaging
b) Labelling
c) Transport
d) Very expensive
Answer: d
Explanation: Packaging, labelling and transport of hazardous wastes should be done properly in order to avoid any hazardous contamination of the wastes with the environment and with humans. But the cost price of the waste is irrelevant here as these factors deals with the handling of the wastes.
63. Spent hardening salt is a potentially hazardous waste in which of the following processes?
a) Hardening of steel
b) Hardening of rock salt
c) Hardening of gold
d) Hardening of coal
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardening of steel generates a hazardous waste i.e. Spent hardening salt, cyanide, nitrate and nitrate sludge which is very much hazardous to the environment and human health, so, it should be disposed of properly. But Hardening of rock salt, hardening of gold, hardening of coal doesn’t produce the wastes listed above because of different processing.
64. Which of the following combination methods can be used to process hazardous wastes?
a) Landfill
b) Solidification
c) Incineration
d) Chemical oxidation
Answer: a
Explanation: Solidification, incineration, chemical oxidation, aerobic oxidation or anaerobic fermentation are the combination methods that can be used to process the hazardous wastes, designed to treat or dispose of the hazardous wastes safely. But landfill is also a method used to dispose of the hazardous waste but it is not a combination method.
65. What can be hazardous waste in the purification processes for organic solvents?
a) Spent carbon
b) Methane
c) High water content
d) Less water contents
Answer: a
Explanation: Hazardous waste in the purification processes for organic solvents usually generate wastes like spent carbon, spent catalyst and filters with organic liquids in them. Methane, high water content, less water content, are the wastes generated in other treatment methods and not in the purification processes for organic solvents.
66. Flue gas dust is a hazardous waste of zinc production.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Flue gas dust is a hazardous waste of the secondary zinc production specifically as, the hazardous waste in the production processes usually generate wastes like zinc fines, dust, ash and sludge and filter press cake out of zinc sulphate. Other wastes from zinc ash/gliding are also generated.
67. Which of the following is most suitable for dry wastes?
a) Aerobic composting
b) Anaerobic composting
c) Closed vessel
d) Anaerobic digestion
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerobic composting is usually used to treat the solid wastes which are generally dry in nature and not moist or wet wastes, whereas, anaerobic composting is used to degrade moist solid wastes which are very easy to degrade, and anaerobic digestion and Anaerobic composting is the same thing, and it is carried out under controlled temperature and high moisture control conditions, which takes place inside the vessel, a closed vessel.
68. Which of the following is an end product of anaerobic composting which is a source of energy?
a) Biogas
b) Alcohol
c) Toxic products
d) Amino acid
Answer: a
Explanation: Biogas can be used as a source of energy which is produced at the end of anaerobic fermentation, Alcohol and Amino acid are produced earlier in the fermentation process. Toxic products are eliminated from the process pre-composting to avoid accumulation in the later processes.
69. The degradation rate of anaerobic digestion is higher than that of aerobic digestion.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The degradation rate of anaerobic digestion is about 80% whereas that of aerobic digestion is 50%. So, in a way anaerobic digestion is more efficient but the amount of time consumption for the degradation depends on the substrate used and the process used.
70. Which of the following is a characteristic of anaerobic digestion?
a) Low degradation rate
b) Low odor emission
c) Narrow suitability of wastes
d) Gas phase
Answer: b
Explanation: Low degradation rate, high odor emission, narrow suitability of waste, Gas phase, these are the characteristic of aerobic digestion whereas in anaerobic digestion, the degradation rate is comparatively high, odor emission is low, it doesn’t have Gas phase, only solid and liquid phase and wide suitability of wastes.
71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of aerobic digestion?
a) Low degradation rate
b) High odor emission
c) Narrow suitability of wastes
d) Post-treatment
Answer: d
Explanation: Post-treatment is usually not done in aerobic digestion whereas, in anaerobic digestion Post-treatment is most necessary and is done for about 2-8 weeks, but low degradation rate, high odor emission, narrow suitability of wastes, these are some of the characteristic of aerobic digestion including sanitation, costs etc.
72. Which of the following factor doesn’t affect the growth of the technical expenditure?
a) Odor
b) Germs
c) Methane formation
d) Noise
Answer: c
Explanation: Methane formation or methanogenesis is a process in anaerobic fermentation. Hydrolysis converts organic matter, Acidification forms acetic acid and methanogenesis leads to methane. Since, this is an end product, it doesn’t raise the technical expenditure. Whereas, Noise, germs, odor and dust can elevate the growth of technical expenditure if their emissions are not controlled.
73. Which of the following is not an advantage of aerobic composting?
a) Simple process
b) Low-cost
c) Easy method
d) Very expensive
Answer: d
Explanation: Aerobic composting is a very simple process which doesn’t have any high technical expenditure and hence, its low cost. The regular maintenance cost is also low. The method is quite simple and easy to acclimatize. The whole Aerobic composting procedure is simple. So, this process is not so expensive.
74. In the arena of waste treatment, no process is the best.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Waste treatment can be done by various processes, and a lot of different processes and inculcated for the treatment of solid or liquid wastes. Every process has some major advantage or disadvantage but this cannot be a deciding factor for the best process. So, it depends very much on the operational area, so, there is no best treatment, every treatment has its pros and cons.
75. Which of the following process is not used for waste treatment?
a) Aerobic composting
b) Anaerobic fermentation
c) Nuclear imaging
d) Vermicomposting
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear imaging is used in medical field to find answers to the medical problems like various diseases. Anaerobic fermentation, Aerobic composting and Vermicomposting are the processes used for waste treatment by using various methods and techniques to degrade the waste from the environment.
76. What is a major advantage of anaerobic fermentation over aerobic composting?
a) Human control
b) Production of methane
c) High water content
d) Less water contents
Answer: a
Explanation: Human control is one of the major advantages of anaerobic fermentation over aerobic composting which can control the liquid and gaseous emissions, which is not the case for aerobic composting. High water content or low water content is irrelevant to this advantage. Also, the ability of re-use of methane by the engineers, in the process is a major advantage. So, in this case production of methane is not very relevant.
77. Which of the following condition is not suited for anaerobic treatment of solid wastes?
a) Controlled temperature
b) Controlled moisture
c) Closed vessel
d) Open vessel
Answer: d
Explanation: The anaerobic digestion of solid wastes is usually carried out under anaerobic conditions where the temperature is controlled and mainly high moisture control. This is usually carried out in a closed vessel to maintain temperature and particular conditions inside the vessel. Therefore, this digestion cannot be carried out in an open vessel.
78. Which of the following type of waste is best suited for anaerobic treatment of solid wastes?
a) Readily biodegradable compounds
b) Less moisture content
c) Less degradable
d) High temperature content
Answer: a
Explanation: Readily biodegradable compounds and wastes with high moisture content are best suited for anaerobic treatment as the anaerobic digestion of wastes is carried out under anaerobic conditions where the temperature and moisture is controlled. So, moisture content is high and is highly degradable and temperature need not be very high.
79. The technological potential of the biological wastes has been fully exhausted.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The technological potential of the degradation of biological wastes by fermentation has not been fully exhausted yet as a huge amount of energy and scientific techniques have been implemented in this process with wider developmental and optimization. This makes the process quite new and young.
80. Which of the following is the most important product of anaerobic digestion?
a) Biogas
b) Acetic acid
c) Amino acid
d) Calcium
Answer: a
Explanation: Biogas is the most important product of anaerobic digestion where organic matter is converted into simpler components by fermentation process. The entire process is divided into three steps i.e. hydrolysis, acidification and methane formation. This last steps generates biogas which is one of the most important product. In the acidification process acetic acid is produces and Amino acid is also produced during the process but in much earlier step and is not the most important product of anaerobic digestion. Calcium is not produced in any of the steps.
81. Which of the following has less organic matter load?
a) Marshlands
b) Marine sediments
c) Landfill sites
d) Fresh water
Answer: d
Explanation: Fresh water has the lowest organic matter load, and Marshlands, Marine sediments, Landfill sites, rice fields are the areas with the highest organic matter load. So, organic matter loading is an important parameter of anaerobic digestion. Anaerobic digestion is carried out by various bacteria involved in three major steps of anaerobic digestion.
82. Which of the following is not an important step of anaerobic digestion?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Acidification
c) Methane formation
d) De-acidification
Answer: d
Explanation: De-acidification is not carried out in anaerobic digestion. Anaerobic digestion is carried out by various bacteria involved in three major steps of anaerobic digestion. The entire process is divided into three steps that is hydrolysis, acidification and methane formation or methanogenesis. Hydrolysis converts organic matter; Acidification forms acetic acid and methanogenesis leads to methane.
83. Which of the following causes decomposition of water-insoluble biopolymers?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Acidification
c) Esterification
d) Methanogenesis
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrolysis using various extracellular enzymes can breakdown water-insoluble biopolymers like monosaccharides, glycerin, fatty acid etc. Acidification can begin with the product of previous reaction and hence, is depended on Hydrolysis, methanogenesis leads to methane formation. And Esterification combines organic acid with alcohol.
84. Continuous fermentation necessitates continuous loading and discharge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: High amount of substrate or organic matter is fed into the fermenter for Continuous fermentation. A fully mixed and plug flow system is available in the fermenters which helps in the process. The waste should be able to flow and uniform, this enables continuous biogas formation and stable operation of continuous fermentation. Therefore, continuous loading and discharge of waste is a necessity.
85. What is the third step for the anaerobic processing of organic wastes?
a) Homogenization
b) Active feeding
c) Drying under adequate light
d) Anaerobic fermentation
Answer: d
Explanation: Anaerobic fermentation is the third step for anaerobic processing of organic wastes where the wastes are shredded into the fermenter for anaerobic digestion which is degraded in the process. Homogenization is the break it down of wastes into simpler molecules, whereas, active feeding or Drying under adequate light in not carried out as it’s a closed vessel in anaerobic processing.
86. What is the dry fermentation process?
a) Water content between 55%-75%
b) Water content between 85%-95%
c) Water content between 80%-85%
d) Water content between 0%-15%
Answer: a
Explanation: Water content between 55%-75% is the most suitable for dry fermentation process with different moisture content for fermentation in the fermenters under anaerobic processing, whereas, Water content between 0%-15% is very dry and the solid wastes cannot be processed by dry fermentation process of anaerobic digestion, water content between 85%-95% and water content between 80%-85% is usually categorized as wet fermentation.
87. Which was the first city to an established system of waste removal?
a) Lahore
b) Athens
c) Paris
d) London
Answer: b
Explanation: In ancient cities, food scraps and other waste were simply thrown onto the unpaved streets where they accumulated and cause various diseases. Around 320 BC in Athens, the first known law forbidding this practice was established.
88. Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
a) Because it is very costly
b) Because it requires modern technologies
c) Because it cause several environmental issues
d) Because it requires lot of space
Answer: c
Explanation: Burning waste is not an acceptable practice, because if we look into environmental or health prospective burning waste creates lots of pollution and it is harmful to both environment and as well as organisms.
89. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?
a) Integrated waste management plan
b) Recycling of waste management plan
c) Reducing of waste management plan
d) Use of waste management plan
Answer: a
Explanation: The disposal of solid waste should be part of an integrated waste management plan. This integrated solid waste management is the method of collection, processing, resource recovery and final disposal of solid waste.
90. The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
a) Hazardous
b) Toxic
c) Non hazardous
d) Non toxic
Answer: a
Explanation: The term ‘municipal Solid Waste’ is generally used to describe most of the non-hazardous solid waste from a city, town or village that requires routine collection and transport to a processing or disposal site.
91. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: An integrated waste management strategy includes three main components they are source reduction, recycling and disposal. All these three types plays an important role in the solid waste management.
92. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) contains a wide variety of materials.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: MSW contains a wide variety of materials. It can contain food waste which is classified as wet garbage and paper, plastic, tetra packs, plastic cans, glass bottles, metal items, wood pieces, aluminum foil and many more items.
93. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
a) Source reduction
b) Recycling
c) Disposal
d) Burning
Answer: a
Explanation: Source reduction is one of the fundamental ways to reduce waste. On an individual level, we can reduce the use of unnecessary items while shopping, avoid buying disposable items and avoid using plastic carry bags.
94. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
a) Plastic
b) Wood
c) Organic materials
d) Aluminum
Answer: d
Explanation: Recycling is reusing some components of the waste that has some economic value. Aluminum can be recycled many times. Mining of new aluminum is expensive hence recycling of aluminum plays a significant role in aluminum industry.
95. Why plastics are difficult to recycle?
a) Because it is a very hard material
b) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
c) Because of different types of polymer resins
d) Because of different sizes of plastic
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastic are difficult to recycle because of the different types of polymer resins in their production. Since each type has a distinct chemical composition, different plastics cannot be recycled together.
96. How many key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The three key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill that distinguish it from an open dump are: Solid waste is placed in a suitably selected and prepared landfill site, the waste material is spread out and compacted with appropriate heavy machinery, the waste is covered each day with a layer of compacted soil.
96. How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation
b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water
d) By the soil particles
Answer: b
Explanation: The organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose due to the action of microorganisms. At first the waste decomposes aerobically until the oxygen that was present in the freshly placed fill is used up by the aerobic microorganisms.
97. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill
b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Explanation: Incineration is a chemical process in which the combustible portion of the waste is combined with oxygen forming carbon dioxide and water, which are released into the atmosphere. Suitable temperature and operating conditions are required to achieve for incineration.
98. Why the recycled paper is banned for use in food containers?
a) Because it creates contamination
b) Because it creates a lot of spaces
c) Because paper can be used only one time
d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
Answer: a
Explanation: Recycled paper is banned for use in food containers to prevent the possibility of contamination. It very often costs less to transport raw-paper pulp than scrap paper. Collection, sorting and transport account for about 90% of the cost of paper recycling.
99. Landfilling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal and it can be implemented easily.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Although land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal, it becomes increasingly difficult to find suitable landfilling sites within economic hauling distance. There will be a danger of some environmental damage in the form of leakage of leachate. Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Energy & Environment Management.
100. Identify a Sort of Plan That We Should Make to the Disposal of Solid Waste from the Given Ones?
The integrated waste management plan
Recycling of waste management plan
Reducing the waste management plan
Use of waste management plan
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Solid waste disposal should be part of an integrated waste management plan. This integrated solid waste management method is a plan of collection, processing, resource recovery, and final disposal of solid waste.
101. The ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ Is the Term Used to Describe Which Kind of Solid Waste?
Hazardous
Toxic
Non-hazardous
Non-toxic
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Generally, the ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ term is used to describe most of the non-hazardous solid waste from a Village, Town, or City that requires a daily collection and transport to a disposal site or to processing.
102. Identify the Following Ones Which Can Be Recycled Many Times?
Plastic
Wood
Organic materials
Aluminum
Answer: (d)
Explanation
Recycling means, reusing some of the components of the waste that has some economic value. Aluminum can be recycled as many times as we want. The mining of new aluminum is quite expensive, and hence recycling of aluminum plays a vital role in the aluminum industry.
103. Why Do Plastics Fall Under a Difficult Meterial to Recycle?
Because it is a very hard material
Because plastic is very adhesive in its nature
Because of different types of polymer resins
Because of the different sizes of plastic
Answer: c
Explanation
Plastic is a very difficult material to recycle due to various or mixed types of polymer resins in their production. Since each plastic type has a distinct chemical composition, different plastic materials cannot be recycled together.
104. How Does an Organic Material Decompose in the Buried Solid Waste?
By the action of microorganisms
By the action of oxidation
By the soil particles
By the flow of water
Answer: (a)
Explanation
The organic material will decompose in the buried solid waste due to the action of microorganisms. At first, the waste aerobically decomposes until the oxygen present in the freshly placed fill is used up by the aerobic microorganisms.
105. What is Called for the Method of Burning Municipal Solid Waste in a Properly Designed Furnace Under Operating Conditions and Suitable Temperature?
Landfill
Recycling
Vermicomposting
Incineration
Answer: (d)
106. Why is Recycled Paper Banned for Usage in Food Containers?
Because paper is used only one time
Because it creates contamination
Because the paper is very thick and it cannot cover the food containers
Because it creates a lot of spaces
Answer: (b)
107. Identify the Wastes That Are Known as the Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) from the Following?
Wood pieces
Plastic cans
Food wastes
All of the above
Answer:(d)
108. The Wastes Burning Is Not an Acceptable Practice of Solid Waste Management Because ____?
It requires a lot of space
It requires modern technologies
It causes several environmental issues
It is very costly
Answer: (c)
109. Which of the Following Ones Is the Simplest and Most Common Method Used in the Cities to Dump the Wastes That Are Collected?
River
Ocean
Landfill
None of the above
Sol:(c)
110. When the Matter Present Inside the Sanitary Landfill Breaks Down, Which of the Following Gas Generates?
Methane
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
All of the above
Answer: (a)
111. Identify the Correct One from the Given List About Wastes?
There is no real waste in nature
The apparent wastes collected from one process becomes the input to another
All processes of consumption and production produce waste
All of the above
Sol:(d)
112. Which of the Following Methods is a Good One in Dealing With the Solid Waste Problem?
Landfilling
Recycling
Both a and b
None of the above
Sol: (b)
113. _________ is the separation of biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable waste for proper disposal and recycling.
a) Separation
b) Segregation
c) Removal
d) Composting
Answer: b
Explanation: Segregation is the separation of biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable waste for proper disposal and recycling. Improper segregation may cause mixing in landfills.
114. What is the amount of waste generated in urban India per day?
a) 155500
b) 188500
c) 175800
d) 168500
Answer: b
Explanation: Urban India produces up to 188,500 tonnes of waste per day. Segregation and disposal is a major part of disposing of this waste.
115. Proper segregation can lead to mixing in landfills.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Improper segregation may cause mixing in landfills. Methane gas is likely to be released in such circumstances, which is one of the most harmful greenhouse gases.
116. Methane gas is released due to ______
a) Proper segregation
b) Improper segregation
c) Disposal
d) Dumping
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane gas is likely to be released in such circumstances where improper mixing tales place, which is one of the most harmful greenhouse gases.

117. Garbage is liquid waste.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Garbage is not a liquid waste. It is a solid or semi-solid waste from preparing, cooking food and serving, etc. It does not include rubbish.

118. _________ is the solid or semi-solid waste incidental to preparing, cooking, and serving food and cleaning of food service items.
a) Rubbish
b) Waste
c) Garbage
d) Dirt
Answer: c
Explanation: Garbage is classified into two types. They are edible and non-edible. Edible garbage can be fed to animals, like scrap meat and vegetables.
119. _______ consists of wastes originating from various food facilities.
a) Compost
b) Manure
c) Rubbish
d) Garbage
Answer: c
Explanation: Rubbish consists of wastes which originate in food service facilities, barracks, wards, quarters and offices. Rubbish may be classified as combustible or non-combustible depending upon whether or not it can be burned.

119. How many types of rubbish waste are present?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Rubbish may be classified as combustible or non-combustible depending upon whether or not it can be burned.

120. How many types of garbage wastes are present?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Garbage is classified into two types. They are edible and non-edible. Edible garbage can be fed to animals, like scrap meat and vegetables. Non-edible garbage cannot be fed to animals, like tea leaves, bones, etc.

121. What is the minimum depth of the landfill required?
a) 1.5 m
b) 1.6 m
c) 1.7 m
d) 1.8 m
Answer: d
Explanation: Sites should be selected where the soil can be excavated to a minimum depth of 1.8 m. Clay-like soils or any soil that can form a seal over the compacted refuse can be acceptable.

122. What is the area of land required for 4000 people for disposal of waste?
a) 1.25 hectares
b) 1.5 hectares
c) 1.75 hectares
d) 2.0 hectares
Answer: a
Explanation: There should be at least 1.25 hectares per year for each 4000 personnel when the fill is to be 1.8 meters (m) deep.

Solid Waste objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

250+ TOP MCQs on Pollution Control Boards and Control Pollution Acts in India and Answers

Environment Management online quiz on “Pollution Control Boards and Control Pollution Acts in India”.

1. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
Answer: c
Clarification: The Central Pollution Control Board of India was established in 1974 under the Water Act. It is a statutory organization which comes under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

2. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Governor of the State
d) President of India
Answer: a
Clarification: The Central Pollution Control Board is lead by its chairman, this chairman is appointed by the Central Government. The current acting chairman is Shri S. P. Singh Parihar. This entire board comes under Central Government.

3. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control?
a) Water Pollution Control Board
b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board
d) Air pollution Control Board
Answer: c
Clarification: The Central Pollution Control Board is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control. It is a technical wing of Ministry of Environment and Forest. It comes under Government of India.

4. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the Central Government?
a) Five
b) Ten
c) Twenty
d) Twenty Five
Answer: a
Clarification: According to Section-3, the Central Pollution Control Board can have maximum five officials nominated by the Central Government and not more than five persons nominated by the Central Government from amongst the members of State Boards.

5. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute?
a) One
b) Ten
c) Not constitute any committees
d) As many committees as necessary
Answer: d
Clarification: According to the constitution of committees, The State Pollution Control Board can constitute as many committees as necessary. The member of a committee shall be paid fees and allowances.

6. The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country by providing scientific information, generating relevant data, training and development of manpower, etc.

7. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai
b) Raipur
c) Mysore
d) New Delhi
Answer: d
Clarification: The head office of the Central Pollution Control Board located in New Delhi. It consists of seven zonal offices and five laboratories. Here the board conducts environmental assessments and research.

8. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board
b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) Government of India
Answer: d
Clarification: Government of India decides the terms and services condition of the Member Secretary and also for the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board. Rest of the members shall hold office for a term of three years.

9. What is the full form of NAMP?
a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
Answer: a
Clarification: NAMP stand for National Air Quality Monitoring Program. The Central Pollution Control Board runs nationwide programs of ambient air quality monitoring which is known as National Air Quality Monitoring Program.

10. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution constituted?
a) 1974
b) 1978
c) 1982
d) 1985
Answer: a
Clarification: The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution was constituted in 1974 by the Government of Karnataka in pursuance of the Water Prevention and Control Pollution Act, 1974.

11. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The inland water quality monitoring network is operating under a three tier program. The three tier programs are Global Environment Monitoring System, Monitoring of India National Aquatic Resources System and Yamuna Action Plan.

12. When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: c
Clarification: The National Green Tribunal Act was constituted in 2010. It has been enacted with the objectives to provide for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.

13. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the environment?
a) Brazil
b) Denmark
c) China
d) India
Answer: d
Clarification: In 1976, the Indian parliament passed the 42nd amendment to its constitution for safeguarding the environment. Thus India became the first country in the world to pass the amendment to safeguard the environment.

14. There are various pollution regulations are there.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Various pollution regulations are, a) The Water Act, 1974, b) The Water Cess Act, 1974, c) The Air Act, 1981, d) The Environmental Protection Act, 1986, e) Hazardous Waste Rules, 1989, f) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.

250+ TOP MCQs on Structure and Functions of an Ecosystem and Answers

Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Freshers on “Structure and Functions of an Ecosystem”.

1. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Phosphorous cycle
c) Sulfur cycle
d) Nitrogen cycle
Answer: b
Clarification: Phosphorous cycle is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem. It is also a biogeochemical cycles but here atmosphere does not play a significant role in the movement of the phosphorous cycle.

2. Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as ________________
a) Food web
b) Energy cycle
c) Food chain
d) Biological system
Answer: c
Clarification: Food chain is a pathway that represents the exchange of energy from one organism to another. Energy is transmitted all the way from Sun to the other organisms by passing from producers to the consumers.

3. The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is _______________
a) Tundra
b) Temperate grassland
c) Desert
d) Tropical rain forest
Answer: d
Clarification: A Tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world. Seventy percent of the plants in the rainforest are trees. There are many distinct layers of trees. These layers have been identified as the emergent upper, canopy, understory and forest floor.

4. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recovered after some time if damaging effect stops will be having ____________________
a) High stability and high resilience
b) High stability and low resilience
c) Low stability and low resilience
d) Low stability and high resilience
Answer: d
Clarification: In any ecosystem the condition of low stability and high resilience makes it to damage easily and after a certain amount of time they recover from damaging effects. Hence both stability and resilience play an important role in ecosystem.

5. Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem are inverted.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem is erect. It is the graphical representation which depicts the number of organisms, biomass and productivity at each tropic level. All ecological pyramids begin at the bottom with the producer and goes into the upper level.

6. In ecosystem standing crop refers to________________
a) All the green plants
b) All the non living materials
c) All living and dead animals
d) All the living materials both animals and plants
Answer: d
Clarification: Standing crop is the amount of total biomass present in an ecosystem. This is the amount of total living matter. There is no circulation in standing crop. In standing crop continuous synthesis and consumption of biomass are going on.

7. Which ecosystem produce the highest annual net primary productivity?
a) Tropical evergreen forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Tropical deciduous forest
d) Temperate evergreen forest
Answer: b
Clarification: Tropical rain forest produce mean NPP of 2200(g/m2/yr) the world NPP is 37.4(109 tons/yr). Tropical rain forest produce mean biomass of 45(Kg/m2) and the world biomass is 763(109 tones). Hence tropical rain forest ecosystem produces the highest annual net primary productivity(NPP).

8. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them?
a) Energy
b) Force
c) Pressure
d) Wind
Answer: a
Clarification: Ecosystem maintains themselves by cycling energy and nutrients obtained from external sources. At the first tropic level, primary producers are solar energy to produce organic plant material through photosynthesis.

9. Total primary production in an ecosystem is known as____________________
a) Gross final production
b) Gross primary production
c) Gross middle production
d) Net primary production
Answer: b
Clarification: The total amount of productivity in a region is gross primary productivity. Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.

10. Which type of ecosystem accounts for most of the net primary productivity on earth even though it has a low average net primary productivity?
a) Tropical rain forest
b) Desert
c) Tropical evergreen forest
d) Oceans
Answer: d
Clarification: The open oceans account for most of the net primary productivity on the planet even though they have one of the lowest average net primary productivities which cover by far the most area on earth.

11. Generally ecosystem consists of how many basic components?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Generally ecosystems consist of two basic components, they are abiotic and biotic components. Abiotic components include basic inorganic and organic compounds. Biotic components include producers, consumers and decomposers.

12. The three functional components interact with each other to form__________________
a) Environmental succession
b) Environmental depression
c) Environmental system
d) Ecology
Answer: c
Clarification: The three functional components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system. An ecosystem is a functional and life sustaining environmental system.

13. The dominant second tropic level in a lake ecosystem is_____________________
a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Plankton
d) Benthos
Answer: b
Clarification: Lake ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components. Zooplanktons are the organisms that have animal like traits. Most of them are heterotrophy in nature. Zooplankton is a vital component of fresh water food webs.

14. Green plants are the most important organisms for an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Green plants form the basis for the sustainability and long term health of the environmental system. Green plant removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and generates oxygen required for breathing for other organisms include humans.

Energy and Environment Management for Freshers,

250+ TOP MCQs on Environmental Compliance Status in India and Answers

Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Experienced people on “Environmental Compliance Status in India”.

1. What is the full form of NPPA?
a) National Policy on Population Abatement
b) National Policy on Pollution Abatement
c) National Policy on Population Absorption
d) National Policy on Population Arise
Answer: b
Clarification: National Policy on Population Abatement encourages the use of economical instruments to complement traditional command and control approaches to pollution abatement. The policy adopts various guiding principles to integrate environmental consideration.

2. Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving environmental conditions?
a) National Environmental Policy
b) National Water Policy
c) Environment Act
d) Air Policy
Answer: a
Clarification: National Environment Policy (NEP) came into force in 2006. This is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving environmental objectives include conservation of critical environmental resources and social development.

3. What is Environmental Compliance?
a) Conforming to government laws
b) Conforming to constitutional laws
c) Conforming to environmental laws
d) Conforming to tribal laws
Answer: c
Clarification: The meaning of environmental compliance is conforming to environmental laws, regulations and other requirements such as site permits to operate. Environmental concerns have led to a significant increase in the number of compliance imperatives.

4. What is the full form of EDMS?
a) Environmental Data Management Systems
b) Environmental Data Management Security
c) Environmental Data Management Sustainability
d) Environmental Data Management Syndrome
Answer: a
Clarification: Environmental Data Management System is software that is designed to manage environmental compliance. Criteria must be considered when selecting environmental compliance software like proven capability, high performance and data extraction.

5. How many laws relating to environmental protection in the legal framework are there?
a) Over one hundred
b) Over two hundred
c) Over three hundred
d) Over four hundred
Answer: b
Clarification: India has an elaborate legal framework with over to hundred laws relating to environmental protection. Key national laws for the prevention and control of industrial and urban pollution.

6. One of the main objectives of the Central Pollution Control Board is to coordinate the activities of State Pollution Control Boards and resolve the disputes among them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the national board with oversight powers over state boards. The CPCB has a central office as well as a network of zonal offices located in various places in India.

7. Which is the central government nodal agency responsible for planning, promotion and coordination of all environmental activities?
a) The Central Pollution Control Boards
b) Municipal Corporation
c) State Pollution Control Boards
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Answer: d
Clarification: Ministry of Environment and Forests is the primary institution responsible for the formulation and enforcement of environmental acts. It is established in 1985. The main objective is to conservation and survey of flora, fauna, forests and wildlife.

8. Which of the following helped in the saving of trees?
a) Pouring of water
b) Developing of chemical manuals
c) Use of modern agriculture
d) Development of iron and steel
Answer: d
Clarification: Development of iron and steel saved the trees that were used for most heavy construction and ship building. Coal mining saved more trees that didn’t need to be cut down for fire wood and the manufacture of charcoal.

Energy and Environment Management for Experienced people,