Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Tricky Environment Management Questions and Answers on “Disaster Management”.

1. How much of India’s coastline is vulnerable to disasters?
a) 5000km
b) 5500km
c) 5700km
d) 6000km
Answer: c
Clarification: India’s coastline is vulnerable close to 5,700km out of the 7,516km long coastline. This coastline is vulnerable to cyclones and tsunamis. 68% of its cultivable area is vulnerable to droughts and its hilly areas are at risk from landslides and avalanches.

2. How much percentage of the landmass is prone to earthquakes in India?
a) Around 58%
b) Around 60%
c) Around 63%
d) Around 65%
Answer: a
Clarification: Large amount of Indian landmass is prone to earthquakes. 58.5 percent of the landmass is prone to earthquakes. These earthquakes various from moderate to very high intensity depending of the intensity happened.

3. How many hectares of Indian land are prone to floods and river erosion?
a) Around 25 million hectares
b) Around 30 million hectares
c) Around 35 million hectares
d) Around 40 million hectares
Answer: d
Clarification: Over 40 million hectares which is almost 12 percent of land is prone to floods and river erosion. These floods and river erosion cause various disasters for the life f human beings and other organisms including vegetations.

4. When did National Disaster Management Authority formed?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: b
Clarification: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) was established through the Disaster Management Act enacted by the Government of India in May 30, 2005. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson.

5. Under which Ministry National Disaster Management Authority comes?
a) Ministry of Environment
b) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
c) Ministry of Pollution
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: d
Clarification: National Disaster Management Authority is an agency of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Primary purpose of National Disaster Management Authority is to coordinate response to the natural or manmade disaster.

6. Disaster Management refers to manage disaster response in the country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Disaster Management plays a very important role in India. India has been traditionally vulnerable to the natural disasters on the account of its unique geographical conditions. Earthquakes, floods, droughts and many more recurrent phenomena occur.

7. Who heads the National Crisis Management Committee?
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Ministry of Environment
Answer: c
Clarification: Cabinet Secretary, who is the highest executive officer, heads the National Crisis Management Committee. Secretaries of all the concerned Departments as well as organizations are the members of the Committee.

8. What is called for the manuals that identify the role of each officer in State for managing the natural disasters?
a) State Relief Manuals
b) State Environmental Protection Manuals
c) State Disaster Manuals
d) State Protection Manuals
Answer: a
Clarification: Each State Government has relief manuals which identify the role of each officer in the State for managing the natural disaster, such manuals are called as State Relief Manuals. These are reviewed and updated periodically.

9. Who released the first Disaster Management Plan of India?
a) H. D. Deve gowda
b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c) Manmohan Singh
d) Narendra Modi
Answer: d
Clarification: Narendra Modi released the first Disaster Management Plan of India on 1 June 2016. This plan seeks to provide a framework and direction to government agencies for prevention, mitigation and management of disasters.

10. When did the Disaster Management formed?
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
Answer: a
Clarification: The Disaster Management At was formed in 23 December 2005. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has 11 chapters and 79 sections that extend to the whole India. The Act provides for the effective management of disasters.

11. When was Asian Disaster Preparedness Center established?
a) 1980
b) 1986
c) 1990
d) 996
Answer: b
Clarification: Asian Disaster Preparedness Center (ADPC) established in 1986 as a technical capacity building center. It I an independent regional non-profit organization that works to build the resilience of people and institutions to disaster and climate change impacts in Asia and Pacific.

12. Where is National Institute of Disaster Management located?
a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
c) New Delhi
d) Kanpur
Answer: c
Clarification: National Institute of Disaster management is premier Institute for training and capacity development programs for managing natural disasters in India. It is constituted under an Act Of Parliament in 1995.

13. Where is International Tsunami Center located?
a) New York
b) London
c) Mysore
d) Honolulu
Answer: d
Clarification: International Tsunami Center is located in Honolulu, United States. It was created in 1965 by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

14. When do we celebrate as International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction?
a) March 1
b) April 15
c) September 12
d) October 13
Answer: d
Clarification: Every year October 13 is celebrated as International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction. It was started in 1989, after a call by the United Nations General Assembly for a day to promote a global culture of risk-awareness and disaster reduction.

To practice Tricky questions and answers on all areas of Environment Management,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “International Environmental Centers”.

1. When did the Environmental Assessment Institute which is the independent body under the Danish Ministry of the Environment established?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Answer: c
Clarification: The Environmental Assessment Institute was an independent body under the Danish Ministry of the Environment. It was established in February 2002 by the Danish Government with the task of making environmental analyses.

2. Which institute in Sweden has the motto as “Bridging Science and Policy”?
a) Stockholm Environmental Institute
b) Yale Environmental Institute
c) Uppsala Environmental Institute
d) Lund Environmental Institute
Answer: a
Clarification: Stockholm Environmental Institute (SEI) was formed in 1989. Its headquarters is in Stockholm in Sweden. The motto of Stockholm Environmental Institute is “Bridging Science and Policy”. The Swedish International Development Cooperation Agency is the main donor of SEI.

3. In how many countries the Stockholm Environmental Institute operates?
a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
Answer: d
Clarification: Stockholm Environmental Institute was an initiative of the Government of Sweden. SEI operates in seven countries they are Sweden, United Kingdom, United States, Estonia, Thailand, Colombia and Kenya.

4. Who many National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) research laboratories are there?
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Eleven
d) Sixteen
Answer: b
Clarification: There are seven NOAA research laboratories are there, they are Atlantic Oceanographic and Meteorological Laboratory, Air Resource Laboratory, Earth System Research Laboratory, Geophysical Lakes Environmental Research Laboratory, Great Lakes Environmental Research Laboratory, National Severe Storms Laboratory and Pacific Marine Environmental Laboratory.

5. Who founded Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies?
a) Jorge Kindly
b) Gifford Pinchot
c) James Harry
d) Peter Mark
Answer: b
Clarification: Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies was founded by Gifford Pinchot in 1900. He was the first Chief of the United States Forest Service. The School’s graduates have provided ongoing leadership in environment.

6. Only ten environmental research institutes are there in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: There are more than ten environmental research institutes are there in the world. These environmental research organizations undertake research on the sustainable management of resources which includes water, biodiversity and energy.

7. With respect to the World Environmental Center which one of the following option is correct?
a) It is a non-profit and advocacy organization
b) It is a profit and advocacy organization
c) It is a non-profit and non-advocacy organization
d) It is a profit and non-advocacy organization
Answer: c
Clarification: World Environmental Center is a global non-profit and non-advocacy organization that advances sustainable development through the business practices of member companies and in partnership with governments.

8. Making people aware of family planning is one of the solutions to overpopulation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Raising awareness among people regarding family planning and letting them know about the after effects of overpopulation can help to reduce the population growth. Provide knowledge about various safe sex techniques will reduce the population growth.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Decomposers”.

1. From where does the decomposer receive energy?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Self generation
d) Organic substrates
Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers receive energy by using organic substrates to get their energy, nutrients for development and growth. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead and decaying organisms. Similar to herbivores and predators, decomposers are also heterotrophic.

2. How many major groups classified in decomposers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Decomposers can be classified into two group namely, fungi and detritivores. Fungi break down deceased organism. While detritivores are responsible for consuming large particles off the deceased organism.

3. Which are known as most recognized players in the food chain and energy puramid?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritivores
Answer: c
Clarification: Decomposers are the most recognized players in the food chain and energy pyramid. They are the only players that have direct access to the energy which is stored in plants that comes from direct sunlight. It help in decay and in the conversion of remains of plants animals to carbon dioxide and energy.

4. What is called for an organism which breakdown dead or waste matter into simpler substances?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Insects
d) Consumers
Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers breakdown dead plant and animals. Decomposers are very important for any ecosystem. If decomposers doesn’t exist then the plants would not get essential nutrients and even dead and waste matter would pile up.

5. The primary decomposers of most dead plant material are____________________
a) Algae
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Insects
Answer: c
Clarification: Fungi play a major role as decomposers and recycles in the wide variety of habitants in which they exist. They release nitrogen and phosphorous from decaying matter. In fungi we can see digestion precedes ingestion.

6. Decomposers and detritivores are same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Though both feeds on the same diet and both are heterotrophic they both are not same. Decomposer is a general term while detritivores are the classification of decomposers. Decomposers break down the dead organisms through decomposition, while detritivores consume the decaying organisms.

7. In polypore which species caused poisoning in several plants?
a) Ganoderma lucidum coll
b) Trametes versicolor
c) Hapslopilus nidulans
d) Piptoporous betulinus
Answer: c
Clarification: Polypores from the Hapslopilus nidulans species caused poisoning in severe people which effects kidney dysfunction and also caused problems to central nervous system functions. Hapalopilus nidulans belongs to the family of ‘Polyporaceae’.

8. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi?
a) Saprophytic
b) Heterotrophic
c) Autotrophic
d) Mixotrophic
Answer: a
Clarification: Saprophytic feeds non living organic matter by secreting digestive enzymes and absorbing the products. The mode of nutrition seen in fungi is of saprophytic. Saprophytic type of nutrition means break down dead organic matter into compost and manure by the action of enzymes.

9. To which category shelf fungi classified?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Insects
Answer: c
Clarification: Shelf fungi also called as bracket fungi that forms shelf like sporophores. They grow on trees in a stack. They attack and digest the trunk and branches of a tree. Few shelf fungi can parasitize living trees causing eventual death of the tree.

10. What is called for the symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a vascular plant?
a) Thallus
b) Mycelium
c) Fungal mantle
d) Mycorrhizae
Answer: d
Clarification: Mycorrhizae form a network of filaments that associate with plant roots and draw nutrients from the soil. It helps increase plants nutrients uptake. In return, the plant supplies the fungi with photosynthesis products for their metabolic use.

11. What is called for a symbiotic relationship of fungus with an alga?
a) Lichens
b) Thallus
c) Mycelium
d) Funga
Answer: a
Clarification: Lichen is a symbiotic organism which is associated of fungi and algae. It is often found as white or yellow patches on old walls and thereby destroy the strength of it. Lichen is an example of mutualism.

12. Gold can be decomposed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: According to the definition of decomposers which states that, ‘It is an organism that decomposes, or breaks down organic material’. But gold is not an organic material. Gold do not decompose in the sense that it either rots or withers away.

13. In order to form compost which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria?
a) Plant wastes
b) Kitchen wastes
c) Plastic and polythene wastes
d) Bodies of dead animals
Answer: c
Clarification: Bacteria cannot convert plastic and polythene to compost. Composting is a way to treat solid waste so that microorganisms break down the organic material. The composting process requires organic waste such as leaves, fruits and vegetables scraps.

14. Which is the most important group of decomposer?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Insects
d) Enzyme
Answer: a
Clarification: Bacteria begin the process of decomposition shortly after the death of an organic life form, it may be plant or animal. Bacteria that live in the body usually in the digestive tract start the decomposition process in animals.

Environment Management test on “Effects and Control Measures of Air Pollution”.

1. Which is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon dioxide for living organisms?
a) Hurricanes
b) Soil erosion
c) Vehicles emission
d) Cigarette smoking
Answer: d
Clarification: Cigarette smoking is responsible for the greatest exposure to carbon monoxide. Exposure to air containing even 0.001% of carbon monoxide for few hours can cause collapse, coma and even death in the worst case.

2. How excessive water loss takes place in plants?
a) Due to soil pollution
b) Due to mutation
c) Due to air pollution
d) Due to improper seed
Answer: c
Clarification: The leaves of plants are damaged when some gaseous pollutants enter the pores of the leaf. Chronic exposure of the leaves to air pollutants can break down the waxy coating that helps prevent excessive water loss in plants.

3. How does asthma cause to human beings?
a) Because of excessive diet
b) Because of water pollution
c) Because of air pollution
d) Because of soil pollution
Answer: c
Clarification: Asthma is one of the health impacts that are caused due to air pollution. There are many health impacts especially respiratory impacts on human beings. Asthma is caused due to excessive inhale of sulphur dioxide and smoking.

4. What is the reason for reduced in the plant growth?
a) Excessive exposure to sunlight
b) Excessive exposure to wind
c) Excessive exposure to water pollution
d) Excessive exposure to air pollution
Answer: d
Clarification: Reduced in the plant growth is due to the chronic exposure of air pollution on the plants. Reduced plant growth is an effect due to the impact of plants of air pollution. Chronic exposure interferes with photosynthesis and plant growth in the plants.

5. Which dioxide damages the flower process in plants?
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrite dioxide
d) Magnesium dioxide
Answer: a
Clarification: Sulphur dioxide released due to air pollution caused damages to living organisms. Higher concentration of sulphur dioxide results in the formation of flowers. The flower buds become stiff and hard. They fall from the plants, as they are unable to flower.

6. Human’s respiratory system doesn’t many mechanisms that help to protect them from air pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Human respiratory have many mechanisms to prevent air pollution. The hair in the noise filters out large particles. The sticky mucus in the lining of the upper respiratory tract captures smaller particles and dissolves some gaseous pollutants.

7. What is the main reason for ozone depletion?
a) Releasing of oxygen
b) Releasing of chemicals
c) Releasing of CFCs
d) Releasing of nitrogen
Answer: c
Clarification: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCS) are extremely stable, non-flammable. CFCs leading in the ozone layer depletion. India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992, which aimed at controlling the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances.

8. Which of the following component is more dangerous to ozone layer?
a) CFCs
b) Nitrogen
c) Halons
d) Sulphur
Answer: c
Clarification: Halons are similar to structure to CFCs but it contains bromine instead of chlorine. CFCs and halons migrate into the upper atmosphere after they are released and caused damage to the ozone layer. Halons are more dangerous to the ozone layer than CFCs.

9. Why ozone depletion more over the South Pole?
a) Due to uneven disturbance of CFCs
b) Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere
c) Due to cyclonic depression in South Pole
d) Due to extreme pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: Despite the fact that CFCs are evenly distributed over the globe, ozone depletion is especially pronounced over the South Pole due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere.

10. When did India signed the Montreal Protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992. The aim is to control the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances. It was set up as an example of a successful international agreement.

11. What is the main reason for skin cancer?
a) Due to mutation
b) Due to unhealthy lifestyle
c) Due to alcohol consumption
d) Due to UV radiations
Answer: d
Clarification: Ozone depletion causes many harmful health impacts on humans and other organisms. When humans are exposed to Sunlight where due to ozone layer depletion receives direct UV radiations which cause skin burn which further causes skin cancer.

12. How many fundamental approaches are there to control air pollution?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Air pollution can be controlled by two fundamental approaches. Those approaches can control air pollution if it applies in effective way. The two fundamental approaches to control air pollution are preventive techniques and effluent control.

13. Why industries location plays an important role with concern to the environment?
a) To get more output from industries
b) To clear the forests in order to build the industries
c) To get more income
d) To prevent pollution causing by industries
Answer: d
Clarification: Industries should be carefully located in order to minimize the effects of pollution after considering the topography and wind direction. Industries with are in side cities cause more pollution than those which are in outskirts.

14. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) is formed to monitor the air quality.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: NAMP aims to determine the present air quality status and trends, and to control and regulate pollution from industries and other sources to meet the ambient air quality standards. It provides background air quality data that is required for industrial sitting and town planning.

To practice all areas of Environment Management for tests,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Management of Forests”.

1. What are the three R’s that are used to save the environment which includes forest?
a) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle
c) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
d) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
Answer: a
Clarification: The three R’s which are used to save the environment which includes forest are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle. Reduce is the first step towards effective waste management. Reuse helps in reducing waste that needs to be recycled. Recycle helps in the prevention of pollution.

2. How many National Parks are there in India as of 2015?
a) 88
b) 96
c) 106
d) 179
Answer: a
Clarification: There are 88 national parks are there in India. In 1970, we only had 5 National Parks. Then came the Project Tiger in 1972, and we have added quite a few national parks after the Project Tiger which are playing important role.

3. How much area is under the forest cover in India?
a) Around 610000 sq km
b) Around 670000 sq km
c) Around 710000 sq km
d) Around 750000 sq km
Answer: c
Clarification: Forest Survey of India published the statistics of forest area of various states a union territory in 2017. According to this statistics 708273 square kilometers of forest land is covered in the country.

4. Which community of Rajasthan Have religious belief for conservation of forest and wildlife?
a) Haddi
b) Bishnoi
c) Rajput
d) Thakur
Answer: b
Clarification: Bishnoi community was founded by Lord Jambheshwar, the preserver of all that’s created on earth. The Bishnois consider trees as sacred, they protect the entire ecosystem that exists in their village.

5. Which one of the following movement was carried out for the conservation of forests and the environment?
a) Forest movement
b) Ganaga Action Plan
c) Tehri Andolan
d) Chipko Andolan
Answer: d
Clarification: Chipko Andolan is a nonviolent social and ecological movement by rural villagers particularly women’s in India in the 1970s. It was aimed at protecting trees and forest slated for government-backed logging.

6. Forest management has various scopes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Forest management encompasses a very wide scope and is becoming more important due to climate change and global warming which are encountering today. India is very diverse in its natural resources and vegetation, hence forest management plays an important role.

7. Which of the following is not a principle of Chugach National Forest?
a) The forest service is governed by many existing laws
b) National Forest System lands are managed for multiple uses
c) It provides subsistence uses for rural residents of Alaska
d) It doesn’t collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes
Answer: d
Clarification: A set of fundamental principles will guide the management of the Chugach National Forest. It is actively collaborate with interested Native Alaskan tribes, state and federal agencies and individuals in the management of forests.

8. Which country leads in the producing and consuming of forest products?
a) Nepal
b) Kenya
c) India
d) United States
Answer: d
Clarification: The United States is the world’s leading producer and consumer of forest products, accounting for more than one-quarter of the world’s production and consumption of the forest products.

9. Which of the following is not the best way to fight a forest fire?
a) Evacuate from the forest surrounding places
b) Not using water as a fire suppression tool
c) Deploy suppressant foam
d) Create a fire line
Answer: b
Clarification: Water is the best tool to suppress the fire. When fire crews arrive at a forest fire, they st up power pumps at the closest water source that they can find, and then they run to suppresses the fire. Water can stops the spreading of forest fire and it suppresses the remaining fire.

10. What is the full form of JFM with related to Forest Management?
a) Joint Forest Management
b) Junior Forest Management
c) Jury Forest Management
d) Jharkhand Forest Management
Answer: a
Clarification: Joint Forest Management (JFM) seeks to secure the involvement of local communities in management of forests on which people depend to meet various needs like for fodder, firewood, grass and so on.

11. What is called for the practice of regulating forest resources to meet the needs of society and industry while preserving the forest’s health?
a) Environmental protection
b) Sustainable Forest Management
c) Forest policy framework
d) Unsustainable Forest Management
Answer: b
Clarification: Sustainable forest management, also known as sustainable forestry is always looking to strike a balance between the demand for the forest’s natural resources and the vitality of the forest ecosystem.

12. Which one of the following is a branch of forestry?
a) Protection Forestry
b) Deforestation
c) Forest Management
d) Restricted Forestry
Answer: c
Clarification: Forest Management is a branch of forestry concerned with overall administrative legal, economic, social aspects and technical aspects. Management can be based on conservation, economics or a mixture of the two.

13. Which one of the following is not the best way to stop deforestation?
a) Planting trees
b) Not encouraging for recycling the used products
c) Go paperless
d) Eat vegetarian meals as often as possible
Answer: b
Clarification: One of the easy ways to combat deforestation is to plant a tree. Using less paper or go for paperless is also an effective way to stop deforestation. Eat vegetarian meals also helps to stop for forestation. Recycle and buying recycled products helps to stop deforestation.

14. Forest management varies in intensity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Forest management varies in intensity from an alone to a highly intensive regime with silvicultural interventions. Forest Management is generally increased in its intensity to achieve either economic criteria or ecological critera.