250+ TOP MCQs on Renewable Resources and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Renewable Resources”.

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply

Answer: d
Clarification: Renewable energy often relies on the weather for its sources of power. Hydro generators need rain to fill dams and thereby provide electricity. Wind turbines need wind to turn the blades. Solar collectors need clear skies and sunshine.

2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect

Answer: a
Clarification: The photovoltaic effect was first discovered in 1839 by Edmond Becquerel. The hotovoltaic effect is a process that generates voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell when it is exposed to sunlight.

3. Wood is a renewable resource.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Wood is a renewable resource. Trees can be replanted and grown to maturity in place of those that are cut down. When the trees are replanted at the same rate as they are cut down, wood will be a renewable resource. Rainforests are said to be non-renewable because they take thousands of years to re-grow.

4. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power

Answer: a
Clarification: Dams are used for power generation. The reservoir water is stored at a higher level than the turbines, which are housed in a power station. The dam feed water directly to the turbines in the power station.

5. The main composition of biogas is _______________
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

Answer: a
Clarification: Biogas is one of the types of bio fuel that is produced from the decomposition of organic waste. Biogas is known as the environmentally-friendly energy source since it is converting organic waste into energy. The composition of biogas is as follows: – Methane 50-75%, Carbon dioxide 25-50%, Nitrogen 0-10%, Hydrogen 0-1%.

6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare

Answer: c
Clarification: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop renewable energy for supplementing the energy requirements of India. It is headquartered in Lodhi Road, New Delhi.

7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power

Answer: a
Clarification: Wind power having capacity 29000 MW holds 56.8%, Solar power having capacity 9500 MW holds 18.5%, Biomass power having capacity 8200 MW holds 16%, Small Hydro power having capacity 4400 MW holds 8.5%.

8. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________
a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra

Answer: a
Clarification: Cochin International airport, the fourth-largest airport in India in terms of international traffic, now runs entirely on solar power. Cochin International Airport became the world’s first fully solar powered airport on 18 August 2015.

9. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro

Answer: d
Clarification: According to a recent survey large hydro installed capacity was 44.41 GW. The large hydro is administered separately by the Ministry of Power and not included in Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

10. Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India?
a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra

Answer: b
Clarification: Muppandal Wind Farm produces 1500 MW of current capacity. Muppandal Wind Farm is the second largest onshore wind farm in the world. This Wind Farm supplies power to many regions in Tamil Nadu.

11. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: No, Nuclear Energy is not a Renewable Energy. Nuclear Energy is produced in Nuclear power plant. Nuclear power plant uses uranium as nuclear fuel to generate electricity during the nuclear fission reaction. Uranium is a finite resource, so we can’t consider the nuclear energy produced by uranium in a nuclear reactor as a renewable energy source.

12. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?
a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development

Answer:a
Clarification: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency established in 1987 as Non-Banking Financial Institution. It is engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects which are relating to new and renewable sources of energy.

250+ TOP MCQs on Energy Flow in the Ecosystem and Answers

Energy Management Interview Questions and Answers for freshers on “Energy Flow in the Ecosystem”.

1. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy?
a) Oxidation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Decomposition

Answer: c
Clarification: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste.

2. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Consumers
d) Herbivores

Answer: a
Clarification: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the food chain.

3. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Carbon
c) Monoxide
d) Nitrogen

Answer: a
Clarification: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of energy from the sun to make food.

4. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals?
a) Omnivore
b) Carnivore
c) Decomposers
d) Herbivore

Answer: a
Clarification: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters.

5. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem?
a) Because it flows in air medium
b) Because it is very particular
c) Because ecosystem is linear
d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one

Answer: d
Clarification: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step. This is according to 10% energy transfer law.

6. Energy flow is cyclic
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: Energy flow is a natural process that has energy associated with the movement. The energy is passed from one organism to another in the food chain but unlike water and few elements like nitrogen and carbon, energy doesn’t return in a cycle.

7. Flow of nutrients is___________________________
a) Unidirectional
b) Rectangular
c) Cyclic
d) Triangular

Answer: c
Clarification: Nutrients flows in a cyclic form. This is because to create a balance of nutrients in different resources of the environment. These nutrients even if used are restored by these biogeochemical cycles. The flow of nutrients from abiotic factor to biotic factors helped by biogeochemical cycles.

8. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them?
a) Because plants do not require energy
b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season
c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll
d) Because sunlight doesn’t fall on the leaves fully

Answer: d
Clarification: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy.

9. Which form of Sun’s energy is trapped by the producers in the energy flow?
a) Light energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Wind energy
d) Pressure energy

Answer: a
Clarification: The potential for light to perform work is called as light energy. Here light from sun enters the plants and there it creates energy with the help of chlorophyll. This chlorophyll is a green pigment present in all green plants to trap light energy.

10. How many percents of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%

Answer: a
Clarification: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost through heat as it transfers along each level. The reason for this is when energy is transferred energy is lost. This is according to second law of thermodynamics.

11. Into how many areas the energy that is received by organisms during energy transfer is converted?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: c
Clarification: The energy that is received during energy transfer which is received by organisms is converted onto three different areas. The three areas are, a)Net Consumer Productivity, b)Metabolic Energy, c) Organic Waste.

12. There is always a loss of some energy as heat during energy flows through an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: At each trophic level about 90% of the energy is lost. It is called as ‘Ten Percent Law’, which was introduced by Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, during the transfer of energy from organic food from one tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh.

250+ TOP MCQs on Causes of Water Pollution and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Causes of Water Pollution”.

1. Which of the following organisms found in human waste that cause water pollution?
a) Coliform bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Parasitic worms
Answer: a
Clarification: Humans waste contains concentrated populations of coliform bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis. These bacteria normally grow in the large intestine of the human body. Releasing of such wastes to water cause pollution in water bodies.

2. What is oxygen depleting waste?
a) Organic waste that can be decomposed by aerobic bacteria
b) Organic waste that can be decomposed by anaerobic bacteria
c) Organic waste that can be decomposed by aerobic viruses
d) Organic waste that can be decomposed by anaerobic viruses
Answer: a
Clarification: Oxygen depleting waste is organic that can be decomposed by aerobic bacteria. Large populations of bacteria use up the oxygen present in the water in order to degrade these wastes. This degrades the water quality as it uses up the oxygen.

3. What is the indicator of pollution in water?
a) Amount of oxygen
b) Amount of hydrogen
c) Amount of BOD
d) Amount of nitrogen
Answer: c
Clarification: The amount of oxygen required to break down a certain amount of organic matter is called the biological oxygen demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in water is an indicator of the level of pollution.

4. Why certain parts of water bodies contain more number of algae?
a) Due to favorable environment
b) Due to run-off excess fertilizers
c) Due to lack of fertilizers
d) Due to water pollution
Answer: b
Clarification: Inorganic plant nutrients found in fertilizers. Run-off carries excess fertilizers into nearby water bodies, causing high levels of plant nutrients which promote the excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants.

5. What are water soluble inorganic chemicals?
a) Compounds of pure metals
b) Compounds of non-metals
c) Compounds of synthetic metals
d) Compounds of toxic metals
Answer: d
Clarification: Water soluble inorganic chemicals are acids, salts and compounds of toxic metals such as mercury and lead. High levels of these chemicals can make the water unfit to drink and harm fish and other aquatic life.

6. There is only one class of common water pollutants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: There are several classes of common water pollutants. These classes of water pollutants harm the environment by polluting the water. Some of the classes of common water pollutants are Disease causing agents, oxygen depleting waste, inorganic plant nutrients etc.

7. Who sediment of suspended matter occurs?
a) When soil is eroded from the air
b) When soil is eroded from the land
c) When soil is eroded from the water
d) When soil is eroded from the rock
Answer: b
Clarification: Sediment of suspended matter occurs when the soil is eroded from the land. High levels of soil particles which are suspended in water interfere with the penetration of sunlight. This reduces the photosynthetic activity of aquatic plants and algae.

8. What is a sediment of suspended matter?
a) Insoluble particles of soil and other solids
b) Soluble particles of soil and other solids
c) Insoluble particles of water
d) Soluble particles of water
Answer: a
Clarification: Sediment of suspended matter is insoluble particles of soil and other solids that become suspended in water. When the velocity of water in streams and rivers decreases, the suspended particles settle down at the bottom as sediments.

9. Where we can find water soluble radioactive isotopes?
a) In radioactive reactor
b) In radioactive coolant
c) In radioactive shield
d) In radioactive waste
Answer: d
Clarification: Water soluble radioactive isotopes are contained in the radioactive waste. They can be concentrated in various tissues and organs as they pass through food chains and food web. The ionizing radiation can cause cancer and genetic damage.

10. What is the main reason for thermal pollution?
a) Increase in the temperature of the ecosystem
b) Increase in the chemical contains in water
c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
d) Pollution causing by vehicles
Answer: c
Clarification: The hot water released by power plants and industries that use large volumes of water to cool the plant. This result in a rise in temperature of the water bodies, due to this thermal pollution occurs.

11. Why thermal pollution causing the release of hot water by power plants is dangerous?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen
b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
c) They don’t dissolve oxygen
d) They dissolve nitrogen
Answer: b
Clarification: Hot water released by power plants and industries warm water bodies those which are connected to power plants and industries. This warm water decreases the solubility of oxygen and it changes the breeding cycles of various aquatic organisms.

12. How to minimize the pollution of water pollution due organic chemicals that release to water bodies?
a) To remove all the aquatic organisms from the water
b) To purify water manually after released to the water bodies
c) Purify the water before enter the water directly from industries
d) Leave the water bodies without using it
Answer: c
Clarification: Organic chemicals are harmful to aquatic life and human health. These include oil, gasoline, detergents and many other chemicals. They enter the water directly from industrial activity from improper handling of chemicals in industries.

13. The birds lay eggs with shells that are much thinner than normal is an example of_______________
a) Bioaccumulation
b) Mutation
c) DNA sequence
d) Mal nutrients
Answer: a
Clarification: The pesticides that eat by an organism keep on moving in an aquatic food chain. At each link in the food chain, these chemicals which do not pass out of the body get accumulated and cause bioaccumulation. High levels of pesticides such as DDT can cause thin shells in bird eggs.

14. Leakage of oil from underground tanks can pollute groundwater.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Oil is another chemical which can enter surface water bodies. The leakage from underground tanks can also pollute groundwater. Accidental oil spills from large transport tankers at sea have been causing significant environment pollution.

250+ TOP MCQs on Wildlife Conservation in India and Answers

Environment Management Questions and Answers for Aptitude test on “Wildlife Conservation in India”.

1. When did World Wild Fund for Nature-India (WWF-India) established?
a) 1956
b) 1969
c) 1976
d) 1997
Answer: b
Clarification: WWF-India is the Indian part of the WWF. WWF-India is one of India’s leading conservation organizations. It was established as a charitable trust in 1969, it has massed almost five decades of experience in the field.

2. Which of the following organization launched an Education for Sustainable Development program?
a) Indian Forest Department
b) Indian Environment Conservation
c) WWF-India
d) Indian Pollution Board
Answer: c
Clarification: WWF-India launched an Education for Sustainable Development program in June 2013. This program including a trainer kit with materials in six languages. The program was targeted at teacher training and educational bodies responsible for curriculum.

3. Which of the following is the most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife?
a) Afforestation
b) Controlling of pollution level
c) Destruction of the natural habitats
d) Stop hunting animals
Answer: c
Clarification: Destruction of the natural habitats is the most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife. Deforestation of the natural habitats of animals affects the species of complete area.

4. How can we preserve viable material of endangered species?
a) By mutation
b) By cloning
c) By gene bank
d) By gene pool
Answer: c
Clarification: Viable materials of any endangered species can be preserved by a gene bank. Gene bank is an institute that maintains stocks of seed banks, tissue culture and frozen germplasm with certain precautionary measures.

5. Which of the following vertebrates have the highest number of endangered species?
a) Fishes
b) Birds
c) Reptiles
d) Mammals
Answer: d
Clarification: Mammals group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species. One in four of the world’s mammal species face extinction, according to a new conservation report card. Marine mammals face even steeper odds, with one in three species at risk of extinction.

6. Some of the most threatened species are found in Asia.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Asia is a region undergoing rapid human population and economic growth. Some of the most threatened species are found in Asia. Currently, 79 percent of Asia’s primate species face extinction.

7. Which year Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India?
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973
Answer: c
Clarification: The Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972. It is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted for protection of plants and animals species. The Act established schedules of protected plant and animal species.

8. In which of the following states Nagarhole National Park located?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: a
Clarification: Nagarhole National Park is located in Kodagu District and Mysore district in Karnataka. It is established in 1988. This park was declared the 37th ‘Project Tiger’ Tiger reserves of India in the year 1999.

9. Which is the natural habitat of Indian lion?
a) Western Ghats
b) Sunderban delta
c) Gir forest
d) Himalayas
Answer: c
Clarification: Natural habitat of Indian lion is Gir forest, Gujarat. Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary established in 1965. According to 2015 census there were 523 lions situated in Gir Forest National Park.

10. What is called for a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity?
a) Biosphere
b) Bio-reserve
c) Biotechnology
d) Bio-ecology
Answer: b
Clarification: Bio-reserve is a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity. The central area preserves the flora and fauna. The surrounding zone is utilized for research and experiments regarding conserve bio-diversity.

11. Which of the following is a step taken by the government to protect the wildlife?
a) Control the population of animals in forest
b) Proper food facilities to the animals in forest
c) Deforestation to provide space for urbanization
d) Various Project to protect animals in forest
Answer: d
Clarification: The Government of India took various steps to the wildlife. The major among them is establishing of various projects in order to protect the wildlife. Some of the projects are Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many more.

12. Which type of wildlife is found in Ganga-Brahmaputra delta?
a) Lions
b) Yak
c) Royal Bengal
d) Sheep
Answer: c
Clarification: Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is a natural habitat for many animals. Prominent natural habitat in Ganga-Brahmaputra delta is Royal Bengal Tiger. Some of the other organisms are turtles, snakes, crocodiles and so on.

13. Which lake in Northeast India has the world’s only floating National Park?
a) Dal Lake
b) Loktak Lake
c) Lake Tsomgo
d) Shilloi Lake
Answer: b
Clarification: Loktak Lake in Manipur has the worlds only floating National Park. It is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India. Keibul Lamjao National Park located at the south western part of the Loktak Lake is the world’s only floating National Park.

14. The Indian government is undertaking many efforts for conservation of its wildlife.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Coast Guard Act, Wildlife Protection Act, Environmental Protection Act and Biological Diversity Act are some of the biggest undertaking of the Indian government towards the conservation of wildlife.

Environment Management for Aptitude test,

250+ TOP MCQs on Human Rights and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Human Rights”.

1. Which of the following are moral principles that describe certain standards of human behavior and are regularly protected as legal rights?
a) National rights
b) Human rights
c) Women rights
d) Men rights
Answer: b
Clarification: Human rights are rights inherent to human beings, whatever our place of residence, origin, nationality, sex, religion, language or any other status. These rights are all interrelated, interdependent and indivisible.

2. When did the Universal Declaration of Human Rights created?
a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Answer: b
Clarification: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly at its third session on 10 December 1948. It was adopted as Resolution 217 at the Palais de Chaillot in Paris, France.

3. Which is the world’s first charter of human rights?
a) The Cyrus Cylinder
b) The Constitution of Media
c) Bill of Rights
d) The Magna Carta
Answer: a
Clarification: The Cyrus Cylinder which was created by King Cyrus the Great, it is the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

4. Which one of the following played an important role in international human rights law?
a) World war
b) Economic summit
c) The United Nations
d) Treaty of Baskerville
Answer: c
Clarification: The United Nations has played an important role in international human-rights law since its creation in 1945 at Yalta Conference. The allied powers agreed to create a new body to supplant the League’s role.

5. In which century human rights became a central concern over the issue of slavery?
a) 15th
b) 17th
c) 19th
d) 21th
Answer: c
Clarification: In the 19th century, human rights became a central concern over the issue of slavery. This was achieved across the British Empire by the Slave Trade Act 1807. This Slave Trade Act was enforced internationally by the Royal Navy under treaties Britain negotiated with other nations.

6. Ancient peoples have the same modern day conception of universal human rights.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Ancient peoples did not have the same modern day conception of universal human rights. The true forerunner of human rights discourse was the concept of natural rights which appeared as part of the medieval natural law.

7. When did the Cairo Declaration on Human Rights in Islam adopted?
a) 1985
b) 1990
c) 1995
d) 2000
Answer: b
Clarification: The Cairo Declaration on Human Rights in Islam is a declaration of the member states of the Organization of Islamic Cooperation adopted at Cairo in Egypt on 5 August 1990. It provides an overview on the Islamic perspective on human rights.

8. In which country ‘Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen’ was adopted?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Denmark
Answer: b
Clarification: After French Revolution, in 1789 the ‘Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen’ was adopted by the National Constituent Assembly as the first step toward writing a constitution for the Republic of France.

9. When did the first Geneva Convention took place?
a) 1756
b) 1864
c) 1958
d) 2006
Answer: b
Clarification: The first Geneva Convention took place in 1864. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the treatment of wounded soldiers in brutal combat. This saves thousands of lives.

10. Under whose chairmanship The United Declaration of Human Rights was adopted?
a) Eleanor Roosevelt
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Adolf Hitler
d) Queen Elizabeth
Answer: a
Clarification: In 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations. It was adopted under the dynamic chairmanship of Eleanor Roosevelt. Roosevelt, credited with its inspiration, referred to the Declaration as the international Magna Carta for all mankind.

11. How many articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: c
Clarification: There are 30 articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights which was adopted in 1948. This Universal Declaration of Human Rights is essential to promote the development of friendly relations between nations.

12. Which of the following Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights tells the right of nationality is depends on ones wish?
a) Article 10
b) Article 15
c) Article 20
d) Article 25
Answer: b
Clarification: There are 30 articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights which was adopted on December 10, 1948. Article 15 tells that, “Everyone has the right to a nationality” and “No one shall be arbitrary neither deprived of his nationality nor denied the right to change his nationality”.

13. When did the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India constituted?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: d
Clarification: The National Human Rights Commission of India was constituted on 12 October 1993. It is an autonomous public body. It was constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance in 1993.

14. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Human rights and civil rights are different. Human rights are usually agreed upon rights that people of various groups believe all people regardless of gender, religion or any other status. Civil rights deal more with the agreed upon obligation on government owes to its people.

250+ TOP MCQs on Non Renewable Resources and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Non Renewable Resources”.

1. A non-renewable resource is a finite resource.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A non-renewable resource does not renew itself or which can’t be regenerated after it is used. If we have used it once, we will not be able to reuse or recycle it for the second time. Some of the examples of non-renewable resources are Earth minerals, fossil fuels etc.

2. Which of the below theory is related to non-renewable resources?
a) Game Theory
b) Phlogiston Theory
c) Big Bang Theory
d) Hotelling’s Theory
Answer: d
Clarification: This theory is proposed by Harold Hotelling. This theory states that owners of non-renewable resources will only produce a supply of their product if it will yield more value when compared to other financial instruments available to them on market like bonds and interest bearing securities.

3. Bill Gates, Chairman of the Board for Terra Power Company is associated in which of the following non-renewable resources?
a) Earth minerals
b) Fossil fuels
c) Nuclear energy
d) Metal ores
Answer: c
Clarification: Terra Power is a nuclear energy technology company based in Bellevue, Washington. It works to raise global living standards by creating new forms of energy. The primary technology of this company is Traveling wave reactor. It activities are in the fields of nuclear energy and related sciences, which are yielding significant innovations in the safety and economics of nuclear power and hybrid-energy.

4. The below schematic diagram represents which life cycle?
energy-management-questions-answers-non-renewable-resources-q4
a) Carbon Life Cycle
b) Earth minerals Life Cycle
c) Phosphorus Life Cycle
d) Fossil Fuel Life Cycle
Answer: d
Clarification: In the Fossil Fuel Life Cycle various processes take place. Raw material, its discovery and extraction followed by the combustion of the raw material in order to generate necessary energy. While generating energy many harmful particles release to the atmosphere causing pollution.

5. The primary composition of coal is _______________
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b
Clarification: Coal is a naturally found fossil fuel formed by the anaerobic decay of plant life taking place over millions of years. It is extracted from the underground by coal mining. The primary composition of coal is carbon while nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen comes under secondary composition.

6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for refining, distribution, import, export of petroleum products and natural gas in India?
a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
b) Ministry of Fossil Fuel
c) Ministry of Non-Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Oil
Answer: a
Clarification: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry is working to develop the exploration and exploitation of petroleum resources for supplementing the energy requirements of India. At present the ministry is headed by the Cabinet Minister Dharmendra Pradhan (2014-Incumbent).

7. Where is the first oil well drilled in Asia?
a) Karachi, Pakistan
b) Assam, India
c) Tokyo, Japan
d) Kandy, Sri Lanka
Answer: b
Clarification: Oil deposits were first discovered in Assam-Arrakan Basin at Digboi in 1889. In 1901, Asia’s first oil refinery was set at Digboi in Assam. Digboi is the oldest oil well operating in India. In order to look after the oil business in this area, Assam Oil Company was formed in 1899.

8. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________
a) Coal
b) Natural Gas
c) Petroleum
d) Oil
Answer: a
Clarification: Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. There are different forms of coal available they are, 1) Peat: Peat is produced by the decaying of plants in swamps. 2) Bituminous: It derives its name after liquid called bitumen. 3) Lignite: This form is used to produce electricity. 4) Anthracite: It has more than 90% carbon content per kg and it is the best quality coal.

9. Which of the following nonrenewable energy is not classified under a fossil fuel?
a) Nuclear
b) Petroleum
c) Oil
d) Natural gas
Answer: a
Clarification: Nuclear energy is not a fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are based on materials that, a very long time ago were living animal or trees. Uranium used as fuel in nuclear power plants was never a living thing, thus Nuclear energy is not classified under fossil fuel.

10. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is___________
a) Coal
b) Petroleum and other liquids
c) Natural gas
d) Nuclear
Answer: a
Clarification: Around 50% of India’s commercial energy demand is met through the country’s vast coal reserves. Coal is cheaper than petroleum. For industrial progress cheap energy is necessity for this coal comes into picture. Due to huge presence of coal reserve it remains as the most important source of energy usage in India.

11. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Yes, natural gas is a non-renewable energy. It takes millions of years to form once it is converted into energy. Natural gas is used as a fuel for vehicles. It is found in deep underground rock and some of them are found in coal beds.

12. How many Nuclear power stations are there in India?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: c
Clarification: There are 7 nuclear power stations are here in India they are, 1) Tarapur having total capacity of 1400 MW, 2) Rawatbhata having total capacity of 1180 MW, 3) Kudankulam having total capacity of 2000MW, 4) Kaiga having total capacity of 880 MW, 5) Kakrapar having total capacity of 440 MW, 6) Kalpakkam having total capacity of 440 MW, 7) Narora having total capacity of 440 MW.