Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Energy Management Question Paper on “Ecological Services”.

1. What is called for the benefits that nature provides to human beings?
a) Ecosystem services
b) Ecosystem conservation
c) Ecosystem degradation
d) Ecosystem pool
Answer: a
Clarification: Ecological services are the environmental benefits resulting from physical, chemical and biological functions of ecosystems. Ecological services include market goods produced from ecosystems and non material benefits.

2. Why are ecosystem services important for sustainable development?
a) Due to increase in population
b) Due to decrease in population
c) Due to increase in forest area
d) Due to increase in animals
Answer: a
Clarification: The human population is increasing day by day and it will become a greater demand for many natural resources. The limited natural resources from the ecosystem may not satisfy each and everyone desire. Thus ecosystem services are important for sustainable development.

3. How might ecosystem services save our life?
a) By providing energy
b) By expanding our wealth
c) By killing organisms
d) By causing damages to ecosystem
Answer: a
Clarification: Many ecosystem services provide food which is the basic thing for all organisms to sustain the life. This food which contributes food web and thus the energy keep on passing from producers to decomposers.

4. Which of the following natural capital provide food production?
a) Grasslands
b) Forests
c) Wetlands
d) Croplands
Answer: d
Clarification: Cropland is defined as a land that includes areas used for the production of adapted crops for harvest. Two subcategories of cropland are recognized, cultivated and noncultivated. Cropland is the natural capital which provides food production.

5. What is the main reason for the reduction of ecological services?
a) Excessive growth of forest
b) Unsustainable depletion of natural capital
c) Increase in the yield of food crops
d) Improper management
Answer: b
Clarification: Ecological services have been declining continually as landscapes and are converted from their natural states for human use. Unsustainable depletion of natural capital results in the reduction of ecological services.

6. Humans are completely depended on the natural forest for food.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Humans are not completely depends on natural forests for food. We grow many food items that are required in private croplands. This private cropland meets the dependence of food for both humans and as well as animals.

7. Which of the following factor help to conserve water quality?
a) Sunlight
b) Forest
c) Rock
d) Sand
Answer: b
Clarification: Forests helps to conserve water quality. Trees provide shade to keep water cool. Cool water maintains higher oxygen content when compared to warm water. Water temperature and sedimentation play an important role in maintaining water quality.

8. Which of the following helps to preserve biodiversity?
a) Private forests
b) Rocks
c) Seas
d) Sediments
Answer: a
Clarification: Private forests play an important role in providing habitant to wildlife and they preserve biodiversity. Private forest in particular makes an important contribution to the conservation of aquatic habitat.

9. Which of the following is the important pool of carbon?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Forest
d) Land
Answer: c
Clarification: Forests constitute an important pool of carbon. Trees take carbon out of the atmosphere through photosynthesis. This carbon is stored in the trees. Green wood of weight is about 25% carbon. Thus carbon plays an important role in ecosystem.

10. Which type of forest is widely used for outdoor recreation?
a) Natural forests
b) Private forests
c) Dead forests
d) Grassland forests
Answer: b
Clarification: Forest land together with another water bodies like lake and streams provide an excellent resource for outdoor recreation. Some of the outdoor recreation are swimming, fishing and hiking. Private forests are often used for recreation compared to other types of forests.

11. How did ecosystem services help for pollination of crops?
a) By the help of humans
b) By animals help
c) By natural calamities
d) By self germination
Answer: b
Clarification: Plants rely on animals or the wind to pollinate the crops. Animals such as bees, butterflies and moths pollinate plants. All this pollination occurs accidentally. Animals while getting food the sticky pollen made at the base of the pollen helps in the pollination process.

12. According to Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, how many percent of ecosystem services are used unsustainably?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Answer: b
Clarification: According to the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, biodiversity is a necessary underlying component of ecological goods and services. In 2005, they made a project and showed that 60% of ecosystem services are being degraded.

13. How many categories of service provide of ecosystem to humans according to ‘Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MEA)?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: In MEA scientist developed four basic categories of services provided by ecosystem to humans they are, 1. Providing services like wood, 2. Regulating services like flood regulations, 3. Supporting services like ecological processes, 4. Cultural services like aesthetic.

14. Ecosystem services are the benefits that humans freely gain from nature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Ecosystem services are providing by nature for free of cost to humans. But instead of using it in useful way humans degrading it. This leads to the improper use of ecological services. The term ‘Environmental Services’ was introduced in 1970.

To practice all questions papers on Energy Management,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Thermal Pollution”.

1. What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated water to its source?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution
Answer: d
Clarification: Thermal pollution occurs when an industry removes water from a source, uses the water for cooling purposes, and then returns the heated water to its source such as lakes, rivers and even oceans.

2. Which one of the following can cause thermal pollution?
a) Residential houses
b) Power plants
c) Death of marine organisms
d) Oil spill
Answer: b
Clarification: Power plants can cause thermal pollution. Thermal pollution refers to the degradation of water quality as a result of any process that changes the ambient water temperature. Power plants discharge heated water, which is at least 15 Celsius higher than the normal and it is back into a water body.

3. What is the effect of warmer temperature to the fishes?
a) Increase the metabolism
b) Decrease the metabolism
c) Stabilize the metabolism
d) Increase the solubility of oxygen
Answer: a
Clarification: The warmer temperature decreases the solubility of oxygen and increase the metabolism of fish. This changes the ecological balance of the river. Within certain limits, thermal additions can promote the certain fish and fish catch may be high in the vicinity of a power plant.

4. What is the disadvantage of control measures of thermal pollution by passing the heated water?
a) Water is lost due to leakage
b) Water is lost due to absorption
c) Water is lost due to dilution
d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Answer: d
Clarification: Thermal pollution can be controlled by passing the heated water through a large shallow cooling pond into which hot water is pumped and a cooling tower after it leaves the condenser. In both the cases large amounts of water are lost to evaporation.

5. Which one of the following cause thermal pollution?
a) Release of cold water
b) Organic manures
c) Purified water
d) More number of trees
Answer: a
Clarification: Release of cold water caused thermal pollution apart for that none of the above given options contribute for thermal pollution. Many industries liberate very cool water from their reservoirs. This water when mixed up with warm water rivers it creates a misbalance in the water bodies.

6. Growing industrial activities is one of the reasons for thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Growing industrial activities gives a repenting feeling to know that thermal pollutants are increasing day by day because of the growing industrial activities. Therefore, thermal pollution is also growing.

7. How does soil erosion cause thermal pollution?
a) By making natural water bodies to hold in its normal level
b) By polluting the water bodies
c) By avoiding sunlight to fall on the water bodies
d) By making natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level
Answer: d
Clarification: Soil erosion is one of the main causes of thermal pollution. Soil erosion makes natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level. Thus, they get more exposed to sunlight and cause thermal pollution.

8. What is a thermal shock?
a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
b) Sudden cooling of temperature to abnormal level
c) Temperature don’t change
d) Temperature change only due to environmental factors
Answer: a
Clarification: Thermal shock resulting in a rise in temperature of water bodies. When industries and factories dispose the water into water bodies the temperature suddenly raises to an abnormal level. This acts as a thermal shock for aquatic life.

9. What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
d) They don’t cause any affect in solubility of oxygen to the water bodies
Answer: c
Clarification: One of the main effects of thermal pollution is they reduced the solubility of oxygen in water bodies. This less solubility of oxygen in water mainly affects the metabolism of water animals and thus it leads to death of aquatic animals.

10. Which of the following is the main reason for thermal pollution?
a) Bio fuels
b) Organic farming
c) Eco friendly vehicles
d) Power plants
Answer: d
Clarification: Power plants are the main reasons behind growing thermal pollution. Because power plants use water as a cooling agent for cooling down their machines. This used water is in high temperature and it is released back to the water bodies and cause thermal pollution.

11. How does an artificial lake help in solving thermal pollution?
a) It stores heated water
b) It gives a good aesthetic view
c) It helps to breed fishes
d) It is used during the summer season where water scarcity cause
Answer: a
Clarification: Artificial lakes help in preventing thermal pollution. In artificial lakes, heated water can be stored easily. These lakes are very helpful for normalizing the temperature of the hot water. Hot water will not disposed back to the natural water bodies.

12. What is called for the useless heat from hot water recycled by industries?
a) Cooling towers
b) Recycling
c) Heat pump
d) Co-generation
Answer: d
Clarification: Co-generation can be helpful to combat thermal pollution. In the process of co-generation, the useless heat from hot water can be recycled and used smartly in many tasks by industries. Thus this process prevents thermal pollution.

13. Generally how many types of cooling towers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Generally the cooling towers are of two types they are, wet cooling tower and the dry cooling tower. In wet cooling tower, the heated water gets spread upon the flow directing panels. In the dry cooling tower, the heated water is made to flow in circular elongated pipes.

14. Runoff from paved surfaces can cause thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Urban runoff discharged to surface likes roads and parking lots can make the water warmer. During summer seasons, the pavement gets quite hot, which creates warm runoff that gets into the sewer systems and water bodies and causes thermal pollution.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Global Warming “.

1. Which one of the following cause global warming?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Clarification: About 75% of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by the earth’s surface the rest of the heat radiate back to the atmosphere. Some of the heat is trapped by greenhouse gases as carbon dioxide which is released by various human activities.

2. How many percent of carbon dioxide increased in the atmosphere since pre-industrial times?
a) About 10%
b) About 20%
c) About 30%
d) About 40%
Answer: c
Clarification: The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased about 30% since pre-industrial times. It causing more heat to trapped in the lower atmosphere. Human activities, industrialization and population growth are the main reasons.

3. What is the full form of UNFCC with respect to global warming convention?
a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
b) United Nations Federation Convention on Climate Change
c) United Nations Framework Center on Climate Change
d) United Nations Federation Center on Climate Change
Answer: a
Clarification: In order to control the continuous increase in the carbon dioxide level many countries have signed a convention to reduce greenhouse gas under the United Nationals Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC).

4. Who measures the global warming rate?
a) Astrologers
b) Physicist
c) Philosopher
d) Climatologist
Answer: d
Clarification: Global warming is usually calculated by climatologist. Global warming is accelerating faster than that calculated by climatologists. It was predicted in 1995 that in 21st century there would be raise in temperature by 3.5 to 10 degree Celsius.

5. Which one of the following result takes place due to global warming?
a) Maintaining steady temperature
b) Changes in the rainfall
c) Pleasant environment
d) Causing less pollution
Answer: b
Clarification: Global warming leads to changes in temperature and also changes the amount of rainfall and causes various problems. These fluctuations in rainfall cause various problems and leading to either floods or droughts.

6. Human activities cause global warming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Human activities during the last few decades of industrialization and population growth have seriously polluted the atmosphere to the extent that it has begun to seriously affect the vegetation and organisms in the environment.

7. Which one of the following cause global warming?
a) Radiative forcing
b) Earth gravitation force
c) Oxygen
d) Centripetal force
Answer: a
Clarification: Radiative forcing is a measure of the influence of a given climatic factor that has an amount of downward directed radiant energy. Global warming is cause through a change in the fraction of the radiation reaching the surface of the earth.

8. How human activity has influenced global warming?
a) By planting more trees
b) By causing changing in gravitational force
c) By changing the radiative balance governing the Earth
d) By protecting environment
Answer: c
Clarification: Human activity has influenced global surface temperature by changing the radiative balance governing the Earth on various timescales. Introduction of greenhouse gases to environment results in greater damage to the environment.

9. Which one of the following is the anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate?
a) Aerosols
b) Cement
c) Paper
d) Glass
Answer: a
Clarification: Aerosols represents an important anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate. Collectively, aerosols block reflect and absorb a portion of income solar radiation. This also creates negative radiative forcing.

10. Which one of the following land use causes global warming?
a) Increase in the fertility of soil
b) Surface reflectance
c) Forestation
d) Adopting organic farming
Answer: b
Clarification: The most direct way in which changes in land use can influence global warming is surface reflectance or Earth albedo. For example for surface reflectance is replacement of forest by setting cropland.

11. Changes in the composition of the atmosphere is an example of____________________
a) Internal forcing
b) External forcing
c) Mid forcing
d) Gravitational forcing
Answer: b
Clarification: The climate system generate random changes in global temperature for years to decades at a time, but long terms changes emanate only from external forcing. Increased in the concentration of greenhouse gases is an example of external forcing including changes in the composition of the atmosphere.

12. What is the main reason for melting of ice sheets?
a) Increase in the oxygen content
b) Global warming
c) Decrease in carbon dioxide content
d) Noise pollution
Answer: b
Clarification: Global warming is affecting various places around the world. It is a accelerated the melting of ice sheets, permafrost and glaciers which there by causing rise in the average sea levels to greater extent continuously.

13. Which one of the following is the effect of global warming?
a) Maintaining sea level
b) Proper rainfall
c) Desertification
d) Afforestation
Answer: c
Clarification: Desertification is one of the effects of global warming. Causing water shortages and an intense amount of distress in the dry regions which are degraded into forest. This process is called desertification.

14. Soot only warm Earth’s climate system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Soot either cool or warm Earth’s climate system, depending on whether it is airborne or deposited. Atmospheric soot which directly absorbs solar radiations, which heats the atmosphere and cools the surface.

Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Campus interviews on “Biogeographic Classification of India”.

1. How many biogeographic zones are there in India?
a) Five
b) Ten
c) Fifteen
d) Twenty
Answer: b
Clarification: There are ten biogeographic zones in India. They are as follows, a) Trans Himalayan zone, b) Himalayan zone, c) Desert zone, d) Semiarid zone, e) Western ghat zone, f) Deccan plateau zone, g) Gangetic plain zone, h) North east zone, i) Coastal zone, j) Islands present near the shore line.

2. What is Trans Himalayas?
a) The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
b) The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
c) The Himalayan ranges immediately east of the Great Himalayan range
d) The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
Answer: a
Clarification: The Trans Himalayan region consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world. We can also find one of the endangered species snow leopard here.

3. Into how many ranges Trans Himalayas divided?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: Trans Himalayas are divided into four ranges namely, a) Ladakh range, b) Zaskar Range, c) Karakoram Range, and d) Kailash range. The Trans Himalaya was named by Swedish explorer Sven Hedin.

4. Into how many ranged Himalayas are divided?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: Himalayas are divided into three ranges namely, a) Siwalik or Outer Himalayas, b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas, c) Himadri or Greater Himalayas. The Himalayas form a mountain range in Asia. It separates the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.

5. What is called for the transitional zone between the desert and the denser forests of the Western Ghats?
a) Deccan Plateau
b) North-West Desert Regions
c) North-East India
d) Semi-Arid Areas
Answer: d
Clarification: Semi-Arid Areas are the transitional zone between the desert and the denser forests of the Western Ghats. The natural vegetation of the Semi-Arid Areas is thorn forest. Leopards, snakes, jackals and many more animals are found in this region.

6. India is called as a mega diversity country.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: India has different climate and topography in different parts and its biogeographic classification various in different parts and hence India is termed as a mega diversity country. India stands 10th position among plant rich countries of the world.

7. Among the ten different biogeographic zones in India, which zone is the largest biogeographic region?
a) Himalayas
b) Desert
c) Semi-Arid
d) Deccan plateau
Answer: d
Clarification: Deccan Plateau zone is India’s largest biogeographic region. It accounts 42% of the total geographical area in India. Deccan Plateau zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.

8. How many levels of planning are used for the biogeographical classification in India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: In India, the biogeographical classification uses four levels of planning. The four levels of planning are as follows, a) The Biogeography Zone, b) The Biotic Province, c) The Land Region, and d) The Biome.

9. Which one of the following is the ecological problems being faced by the semi-arid zones in India?
a) Organic farming
b) Rural development
c) Animals conflict
d) Desertification
Answer: d
Clarification: Desertification is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone. The continuous expansion of deserts, into the previously semi-arid regions is indeed a serious manifestation of the effects of land degradation and intensive soil erosion.

10. Which biogeographic zone is considered as one of the 25 biodiversity hot-spots globally?
a) Deccan plateau
b) Western Ghats
c) Deserts
d) Himalayas
Answer: b
Clarification: The Western Ghats are considered as one of the 25 biodiversity hot-spots present globally. In Western Ghats, the varied climate and diverse topography create a wide array of habitats that support unique sets of plant and animal species.

11. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet each other at which hills?
a) Ananthagiri hills
b) Coonoor hills
c) Biligiriranga hills
d) Munnar hills
Answer: c
Clarification: The Biligiriranga hills links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats. It run east from the Western Ghats to the River Kaveri and forms a forested ecological corridor that connects the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.

12. Which is the largest unit of the Great Plain of India?
a) Brahmaputra plain
b) Punjab-Haryana plain
c) Gangetic plain
d) Godavari plain
Answer: c
Clarification: Gangetic plain is the largest unit of the Great Plain of India. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the Ganga and the Brahmaputra which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.

13. In India, how many groups of islands are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: There are two groups of islands found in India. The two groups of islands are the Arabian Sea Islands and Bay Islands. The Arabian Sea Islands are of subsequent coral formations. The Bay Islands lay only about 220 km.

14. The Indian coasts do not vary on their characteristics and structures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The Indian coasts vary in their characteristics and structure. For example, the west coast is narrow except around the Gulf of Cambay and the Gulf of Kutch. In the south, it is wider along the south Sahyadri.

Energy and Environment Management for Campus Interviews,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Energy Resources”.

1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
Answer: c
Clarification: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned. They are fossil fuels because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions of years ago. Some of the examples of fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.

2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes breathing problems for living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which is emitted from oil also causes acid rain.

3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
Answer: c
Clarification: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear fuels like Uranium do not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear reactor.

4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________
a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
Answer: a
Clarification: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind turbine. Wind turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are connected to a nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.

5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
Answer: b
Clarification: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave machines use the Kinetic energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave energy also known as ocean energy. Wave energy is essentially power drawn from waves.

6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
Answer: b
Clarification: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic energy in the moving water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each day because of the tides. The barrage contains electricity generators.

7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
Answer: b
Clarification: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the water comes from behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam contains potential energy.

8. Solar panels generate electricity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external electricity connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the building where they can receive heat energy directly from the sun.

9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
Answer: c
Clarification: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree of the economy. In the PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy storage technology from manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.

10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas. They formed from organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil and natural gas by exposure to heat and the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of years.

11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing by the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
Answer: d
Clarification: Fossil fuels are not environmental friendly. Burning of fossil fuels result in pollution and can cause serious environmental concerns. According to WHO, 7 million premature deaths annually linked to air pollution by the fossil fuels burning.

12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________
a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
Answer: c
Clarification: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a large amount of energy. The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic transfers of heat and pressure in weather patterns and ocean currents.

13. SI unit for energy is_____________
a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
Answer: d
Clarification: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal to a force of one Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to 0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of work, energy and heat.

14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
Answer: c
Clarification: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable. Resources of geothermal energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term geothermal originates from the Greek words.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Major International Environmental Conventions”.

1. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Basel Convention
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
Answer: a
Clarification: The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985. The main objectives are, parties to promote and cooperation by means of systematic observations, research and information exchange on the effects of human activities on the ozone layer.

2. How many years once the parties in the Vienna Convention meet to take a decision?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The parties of the Vienna Convention meet once in three years in order to make decisions designed to administer the convention. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the first Convention of any kind to achieve universal ratification.

3. When did Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
Answer: c
Clarification: Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist on 17 May 2004. It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants and thus helps to maintain the health of humans and environment.

4. What are persistent organic pollutants?
a) Organic manure
b) Weed
c) Sand
d) Chemicals
Answer: d
Clarification: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods and become widely distributed geographically and accumulated in the fatty tissue of living organisms.

5. What is the main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants?
a) Eliminate dangerous POPs
b) Increase the usage of dangerous POPs
c) Developing strong chemicals
d) Increase in the production of POPs
Answer: a
Clarification: The main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants is to eliminate dangerous POPs starting with the 12 worst. Apart from this it also aims o support the transition to safer alternatives for POPs.

6. Rotterdam Convention is established to trade with hazardous chemicals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Rotterdam Convention is the prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This Rotterdam Convention came into force in February 24, 2004.

7. Basel Convention is mainly deals with_________________
a) Biological diversity
b) Hazardous wastes and their disposals
c) Persistent organic pollutants
d) Ozone depleting
Answer: b
Clarification: Basel Convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland. The main aim is to control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and its disposals.

8. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?
a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas
b) Increase of greenhouse gas
c) Increase of temperature
d) Stabilization of oxygen
Answer: a
Clarification: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came into exist in June 1992. The reason behind this is to achieve stabilization in greenhouse gases concentration in atmosphere.

9. Which convention came into exist for the use of ‘Transboundary water courses’?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Helsinki Convention
d) Bucharest Convention
Answer: c
Clarification: Foe the regulation of use of international watercourses Helsinki Convention came into exists in 1992. The main aim is to protect and use of Transboundary watercourses and international lakes seeks to established cooperative frameworks.

10. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?
a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
Answer: c
Clarification: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development met at the Rio de Janeiro Convention from 3rd to 14th June 1992. During this meeting they proclaimed 27 principles with the goal of establishing a new partnership.

11. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?
a) Rio de Janeiro Convention
b) Bonn Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Aarhus Convention
Answer: b
Clarification: Bonn Convention came into exist for the conservation of migratory species of wild animals. And also to conserve terrestrial species and marine species throughout their range was the objective of this convention.

12. When did the Washington Convention happen?
a) 1972
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1978
Answer: b
Clarification: Washington Convention is an international agreement between governments, drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1973 at the meeting held at International Union for Conservation of Nature.

13. What is the full form of ENMOD?
a) Environmental Middle Convention
b) Environmental Modification Convention
c) Environmental Middle Center
d) Environmental Modification Center
Answer: b
Clarification: The Environmental Modification Convention (ENMOD) is an international treaty for prohibiting the military or other hostile use of environmental modification techniques. It came into force on October 5th 1978.

14. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on Wetlands.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.