250+ TOP MCQs on Nuclear Hazards and Accidents and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Nuclear Hazards and Accidents”.

1. Where was the first use of nuclear bombs which cause death to the millions of lives?
a) Karachi
b) Melbourne and Sydney
c) Hiroshima and Nagasaki
d) Tokyo
Answer: c
Clarification: The first nuclear bomb bombard to the twin cities of Japan Hiroshima and Nagasaki. The devastation that nuclear bombs caused to Hiroshima and Nagasaki is terrible. The radioactive waste from nuclear energy has caused, and continues to cause serious environmental damages.

2. Where was the first control fission of an atom carried out?
a) India
b) Japan
c) Russia
d) Germany
Answer: d
Clarification: The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in 1938. Nuclear fission is the splitting of the nucleus of the atom. This splitting of the nucleus results in energy that can be used for various purposes.

3. Which was the first country to develop an atomic bomb?
a) Russia
b) United States
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: b
Clarification: Though Germany is the first country where first controlled fission of an atom was carried, United State was the first country to develop an atomic bomb, which was subsequently dropped on the Japanese cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

4. Who made the famous “Atoms for Peace” speech?
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dwight D Eisenhower
d) Parker Chewier
Answer: c
Clarification: The 34th United States President in December 1953 gave a famous speech called “Atoms for Peace”. The speech figures out the production of electricity through nuclear reactors. It also says Atoms will provide a safe, clean and dependable source of electricity.

5. How many percentage of fissionable U-235 occurring in uranium?
a) 0.1%
b) 0.5%
c) 0.7%
d) 1.5%
Answer: c
Clarification: Naturally occurring uranium contains only 0.7% of fissionable U-235, which is not enough for most types of rectors. It is necessary to increase the amount of U-235 by enrichment, although it is a difficult and expensive process.

6. Nuclear energy is only harmful.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Nuclear energy can be both beneficial and harmful, depending on the way in which it is used. For example X-rays which are used to examine bone fracture is useful. Nuclear bombs are harmful for both organisms and environment.

7. When did Chernobyl disaster occurred?
a) 1976
b) 1986
c) 1996
d) 2000
Answer: b
Clarification: Chernobyl disaster occurred in 1986. Chernobyl is a small city in Ukraine. On 25 April 1986 the explosion blew the 1000 metric ton concrete roof from the reactor and the reactor caught fire. This results in the world’s worst nuclear accident.

8. Which State in India nuclear accident took place?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
Answer: a
Clarification: A small amount of nuclear accident observed in the villages and towns around the Kalpakkam Nuclear Station, south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu, in an ongoing study by Pugazhendi. It was took place in January 2003.

9. Which one of the following medical condition caused by the high exposure of radiation?
a) Kidney stone
b) AIDS
c) Mutation
d) Blood pressure
Answer: c
Clarification: Excessive exposure to the radiations leads to mutation, which are changes in the genetic makeup of the cells. Mutations can occur in the tissues of the body and may manifest themselves as abnormal tissue growth known as cancer.

10. What is the main purpose of nuclear energy?
a) To kill the enemy nation
b) To waste the excessive energy
c) To use it as an alternate source of energy
d) To cause mutation for people who are working
Answer: c
Clarification: Nuclear energy was developed by man as an alternate source of clean and cheap energy when compared to fossil fuels. Along with the benefits of nuclear energy, there have been a number of accidents which harm many lives.

11. Approximately how many percentage of electricity produced by nuclear power in the world?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: c
Clarification: Approximately 17% of electricity produced by nuclear power in the world. Nuclear power is being used worldwide for the generations of electricity. With numerous harm effects of nuclear power the main advantage is to produce electricity from nuclear power.

12. Which is the main source of nuclear radiations?
a) Nuclear power plant
b) Sunlight
c) Atmospheric air
d) Volcanoes
Answer: a
Clarification: The main source of radiation is nuclear power plant and particularly from the core ad coolant of the reactor. The fission products produced during normal operations remain within the fuel element an also in nuclear wastes.

13. Which radioactive cause cancer in thyroid gland?
a) U-235
b) U-238
c) I-132
d) C-12
Answer: c
Clarification: Damage caused by different types of radiations depends on the penetration power and presence of source inside or outside the body. Radioactive iodine (I-131) accumulates in thyroid gland and causes cancer.

14. The use of nuclear energy in the war had devastating effects on humans and on the earth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: During war nuclear power is used only once so far. The United States dropped two atomic bombs over the Japanese towns of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945. These two atomic bombs killed thousands of people.

250+ TOP MCQs on Producers and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Producers”.

1. Consumer for food that feeds on producers are known as_____________________
a) Carnivores
b) Consumers
c) Herbivores
d) Producers
Answer: c
Clarification: Animals that eat only plants are called as herbivores. Plants are called producers because they are able to use light energy from the sun to produce food from carbon dioxide and water. Herbivores are also known as primary consumers.

2. The food chain from grass to hawk and again it comes back to grass with the help of fungi. In the above explain food chain, what is grass?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Energy source
Answer: a
Clarification: Green is a producer. It is a self sustaining organism that obtains its energy directly from sun. In the process, grass introduces few new organic substances into the food chain and grass plays a key role for consumers.

3. The process in which green plants and few organisms use sunlight to synthesize nutrients is known_________________
a) Chemosynthesis
b) Photosynthesis
c) Food chain
d) Food web
Answer: b
Clarification: Photoautotroph’s are the organisms involves in photosynthesis. It uses energy from sun to convert water from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air into glucose. Glucose provides energy to plants and is used to make cellulose which is used to build cell walls.

4. The process of making food by certain microbes create energy by some chemical reactions is known as_______________________
a) Photosynthesis
b) Food chain
c) Chemosynthesis
d) Hetrosynthesis
Answer: c
Clarification: Chemoautotrophy is the organism which produces chemosynthesis. It uses energy from chemical reactions to make food. The chemical reactions are usually between methane with oxygen. Carbon dioxide is the main source of carbon for chemoautotrophy.

5. The grass is a produces.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Grass is a producer because it generates its own food and gets energy from the sun. Grass photosynthesizes and acts as food to other animals. It is also produced and takes in carbon dioxide by releasing oxygen.

6. The food chain level in autotrophy is_____________
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Answer: a
Clarification: All food chains start with autotrophy which is a producer. Autotrophs are eaten by herbivores, organisms that consume plants. Herbivores are the second tropic level. Carnivores and omnivores are secondary consumers.

7. Autotrophic bacteria that produce food through chemosynthesis have also been found at places on the seafloor called_____________________
a) Cold seeps
b) Hot seeps
c) Coral seeps
d) Warm seeps
Answer: a
Clarification: A cold seep also called as cold vent. It is an area of the ocean floor where hydrogen sulfide, methane and other liquids leak out of the earth’s crust in the form of brine pool. Cold seeps form a biome which supporting several native species.

8. Most types of algae are classified as producers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Most of the algae are classified as producers within an ecosystem because they are able to produce their own food. Any plant or organism that can produce its own food through inorganic compounds is known as producers.

9. What makes plant producers?
a) Plants produce their own food
b) Plants depend on other organisms for food
c) Plants are decomposers
d) Plants do not require any energy
Answer: a
Clarification: Plants produce their own food. They do this by using light energy from the sun, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce food in the form of glucose. The overall process is called as photosynthesis.

10. The producers within an underwater ecosystem are called as_____________________
a) Phytoplankton
b) Autoplankton
c) Hectoplankton
d) Semiplankton
Answer: a
Clarification: Phytoplankton is like any other type of plant who changes the sun’s energy into food and they also provide oxygen to their fish friends. Along with phytoplankton seaweed and kelp are also ocean producers.

250+ TOP MCQs on Major Environmental Problems Associated with Selected Industry Sector and Answers

Energy and Environment Management Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people on “Major Environmental Problems Associated with Selected Industry Sector”.

1. Why aviation causing environmental problems?
a) Due to demand and continually growing of aviation
b) Due to not proper growing of aviation
c) Due to decrease in the aviation
d) Due to pilot’s negligence
Answer: a
Clarification: Demand for air transport is continually growing and if this demand is to be met with all the attendant benefits, society must also accept the costs which includes noise, pollution, climate change, risk and resource use etc.

2. How computer industry causing environmental problems?
a) By not providing jobs to humans
b) By modern technologies like IOT, block chains
c) By printing unnecessary large amount of files
d) By making people lazy
Answer: c
Clarification: Computer are also causing environmental problems, when we print unnecessary large amounts of files from internal which wastes paper and harm trees. More use of computers wastes electricity that could have been saved and reduce the amount of burning of fossil fuel.

3. Why lead harmful for children?
a) Because it don’t give any nutritional values
b) Because it cause indigestion
c) Because it interferes with development of the nervous system
d) Because children become addict to this
Answer: c
Clarification: Lead is harmful to children because it interferes with development of the nervous system. It is a neurotoxin that can harm the kidneys and reproductive systems. Even low levels of lead and be harmful to a children mental development.

4. Apart from printing papers and electricity computers causing environmental problems by__________________
a) Making people lazy
b) Electronic wastes
c) Causing soil pollution
d) Causing noise pollution
Answer: b
Clarification: Computers are made of heavy metals and dangerous chemicals. Heavy metals like lead, mercury, beryllium and PVC. These metal and chemicals contribute to global warming and causing pollution.

5. What is the impact of food processing on the environment?
a) Create loss in the vegetation
b) Create disposal problems
c) Create forest fire
d) Create deforestation
Answer: b
Clarification: The highly diversified nature of the food industry, various food processing, handling and packaging operations create wastes of different quality and quantity. If we don’t treat that could lead to increase disposal problems and severe pollution problems.

6. Industrialization causing urbanization.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Industrialization needs people to work in factories. People move from rural areas to cities. They are spread out to industrialized cities. A higher population puts added pressure on the local environment and cause environmental problems.

7. What step taken in mines to limit the environmental damages?
a) Construction of artificial mines
b) Construction of dams
c) Construction of heat processor
d) Construction of storage center
Answer: b
Clarification: To limit the environmental damage, mines often construct dams and place the toxic water inside. These dams do not necessarily prevent contamination of the surrounding environment, toxic waste can easily seep into soil and groundwater.

8. What is the main reason for acid mine drainage?
a) Dirty gold mining
b) Ground water
c) Soil erosion
d) Granite mining
Answer: a
Clarification: Dirty gold mining often leads to a persistent problem known as acid mine drainage. The problem results when underground rock disturbed by mining is newly exposed to air and water. Acidic water draining from mine sites is more concentrated than acid rain.

9. Which of the following is a liquid metal?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Oxygen
d) Mercury
Answer: d
Clarification: Mercury is a liquid metal. It is used in artisanal and small scale gold mining to extract gold from rock and sediment. Mercury reaches rivers, atmosphere, lakes and oceans. The use of mercury in gold mining is causing a global health and environmental crisis.

10. Mercury is extremely good to human health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Mercury is bad for human health. The amount of vapor released by mining activities has been proven to damage kidneys, liver, brain, heart, lungs and immune system. In children and developing fetuses, mercury can impair neurological development.

11. What is the main reason of releasing of mercury into the Amazon’s water?
a) Soil erosion
b) Earth quake
c) Nuclear wastes
d) Gold mining
Answer: d
Clarification: Gold mining is the main responsible for the release of large amounts of mercury into the Amazon’s air and water. The mercury is poisoning plants, animals, fish and people. As gold mining increases, forests are coming down.

12. What is the main cause of industrial pollution?
a) Lack of polices to control pollution
b) Use of modern technologies
c) Planned industrial growth
d) Efficient waste disposal
Answer: a
Clarification: Lack of effective policies and poor enforcement drive allowed many industries to pass certain laws made by the pollution control board which resulted in mass scale pollution that affected lives of many people.

13. What is the term used for the use of resources for industrialization?
a) Pollution
b) Urbanization
c) Extraction
d) Waste material
Answer: c
Clarification: Industrialization makes use of resources from the land, water, wood, plants, fossil fuels, etc. This has an effect on the environment. Since demand goes up, more quantities of minerals and ores are extracted from the land.

Energy and Environment Management for Interviews,

250+ TOP MCQs on Ganga Action Plans(GAP) and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Ganga Action Plans(GAP)”.

1. Who prepared the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Department of Pollution
b) Department of Environment
c) Department of Rivers
d) Department of Industries
Answer: b
Clarification: Department of Environment prepared an action plan for an immediate reduction of pollution load on the river Ganga. The Cabinet approved the Ganga Action Plan as a 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme.

2. When did the Ganga Action Plan launched?
a) 1980
b) 1982
c) 1984
d) 1986
Answer: d
Clarification: The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) was launched on 14 January 1986 by the then Prime Minister of India Rajeev Gandhi. The main objective of GAP is pollution abatement of the river Ganga and to improve the water quality by interception.

3. What is the authority constituted by Government of India for the implementation of the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Central River Authority
b) Central Ganga Authority
c) Ganga Implantation Scheme
d) State Ganga Authority
Answer: b
Clarification: For the implementation of the Ganga Action Plan and to lay down policies and programmes and maintenance of the Ganga Action Plan, Government of India constituted the Central Ganga Authority (CGA) in February 1985.

4. When did the National River Conservation Directorate established?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: d
Clarification: Ganga Action Plan undergoes various changes in its implementation. First Central Ganga Authority later it is renamed as the National River Conservation Authority. The Government constituted the National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) in June 1994.

5. When did Phase-2 of Ganga Action Plan started?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: c
Clarification: Phased-2 of Ganga Action Plan began from 1993 with the States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Delhi and Haryana were to implement the Phase-2 by treating 1912 mld (Million liters per day) still Ganga Action Plan didn’t complete its target.

6. Ganga Action Plan’s only objective is to clean Ganga water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Ganga Action Plan has various plans. The ultimate objective of the GAP is to have an approach of integrated river basin management considering abiotic and biotic ecosystems. To make resource recovery options.

7. Which is the top board in the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Standing Committee
b) National River Conservation Authority
c) Monitoring Committee
d) National River Conservation Directorate
Answer: b
Clarification: National River Conservation Authority is the top level board in Ganga Action Plan, it forms policies and sanctioned approvals. It is followed by Standing Committee, Monitoring Committee and National River Conservation Directorate.

8. Which state has the highest number of towns selected for Ganga Action Plan 1?
a) West Bengal
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) Haryana
Answer: a
Clarification: West Bengal has the highest number of selected towns for Ganga Action Plan with 15 towns. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar have 6 and 4 towns as directives from the Supreme Court. 6 towns in Haryana taken upon for GAP 1 as per as the direction of the Supreme Court.

9. For interception and diversion under GAP-2, how many schemes are sanctioned?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: The NRCD sanctioned 4 schemes of interception and diversion under the GAP-2. The implementing agencies could complete non till 2000, though stipulated dates for 3 schemes were already over.

10. Which authority laid sewer liner under GAP-2 in West Bengal?
a) Calcutta Municipality Development Authority
b) Bengal Municipality Development Authority
c) Calcutta Metropolitan Development Authority
d) Bengal Metropolitan Development Authority
Answer: c
Clarification: Calcutta Metropolitan Development Authority (CMDA) laid sewer lines under the GAP-2. The CMDA entrusted the work of construction of 3 pumping stations at Cossipore-Chitpur, West Bengal to a contractor in 1988.

11. How many interception and diversion schemes are sanctioned by NRCD in Uttar Pradesh?
a) 25
b) 28
c) 41
d) 51
Answer: d
Clarification: The NRCD sanctioned 51 interception and diversion schemes under the GAP-2. The Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam could complete only 30 out of 51 by March 2000. Stipulated dates of 17 of the remaining 21 schemes were over.

12. Which of the following is not an objective of the Ganga Action Plan?
a) Improve the water quality by interception
b) Treatment of domestic sewage
c) Pollution abatement
d) Increase the water content
Answer: d
Clarification: Among the above four options increase the water content is not an objective of Ganga Action Plan. All the remaining three options are the main objectives of Ganga Action Plan. Apart from the above three there are many more objectives are there.

13. In how many cities Rajiv Gandhi launched the creation of Ganga Action Plan when he was The Prime Minister of India.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Answer: b
Clarification: Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India announced the creation of CGA. Rajiv Gandhi launched GAP in 5 major cities along the rivers. These cities included Kanpur, Haridwar, Varanasi and Allahabad.

14. The Ganga Action Plan is a successful scheme.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The Ganga Action Plan is a failure scheme. It was launched by the Government of India has failed miserably in its objectives. The pollution levels in Ganga are either same or even higher. The relationship between the quantity and quality, inflow and outflow, renewable energy and pollutant have not been understood, this led to the failure of the Ganga Action Plan.

250+ MCQs on Need for Public Awareness & Institutions in Environment

Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers on “Need for Public Awareness and Institutions in Environment”.

1. How can we achieve the prevention of environmental degradation?
a) By relying on the government to do all the jobs
b) By killing all animals in the forest
c) By creating public awareness among people about the importance of environment
d) By causing more and more pollution

Answer: c
Clarification: By making public to aware about the environmental importance we can achieve the prevention of environmental degradation. Prevention of environmental degradation must become a part of all our lives.

2. In which of the following way we can create awareness among people about environment efficiently?
a) By the help of mass media shows the importance of environment
b) By spreading through mouths
c) By forcefully insisting people to protecting environment
d) By making treaties with other countries

Answer: a
Clarification: Environmental management can only be possible through public awareness. Mass media such as newspaper, radio and television strongly influence public opinion. Through this mass media, we can create awareness for people about the importance of environment.

3. Which one of the following is the best way to protect environment by individuals?
a) By simply talking about environment
b) By killing organisms and cutting trees
c) By joining NGOs and involve themselves in environmental protection works
d) By simply sitting in a home

Answer: c
Clarification: There are several Governmental and Non-Governmental Organizations working towards environmental protection in our country. An individual can join an NGO that supports conservation and protect the environment.

4. What is the best way to educate school kids about the environment?
a) Teaching theory about environment in classes
b) Showing pictures and videos of environment in projector screen
c) Taking kids to national parks or sanctuaries
d) Taking kids to amusement parks

Answer: c
Clarification: The best way to educate school kids about the environment is by taking kids to national parks or sanctuaries. Kids get to know more about the environment when they directly spend some time in natural habitat and thus they come to know the importance of the environment.

5. When we will celebrate World Forestry Day?
a) 21 March
b) 22 April
c) 05 June
d) 11 July

Answer: a
Clarification: World Forestry Day is celebrated worldwide every year on 21st March at the international level in order to increase public awareness among communities about the contribution of forests to balance the life cycle on earth.

6. Individuals can play a major role in environment management.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Individuals can reduce wastage of natural resources and they can put pressure on Government about forming strong policies to protect the environment and they can minimize the use of sources that lead to pollution and degradation.

7. In India when we will celebrate Wildlife Week?
a) Between April 1 and 8
b) Between July 1 and 8
c) Between August 1 and 8
d) Between October 1 and 8

Answer: d
Clarification: Wildlife Week is celebrated every year in India between October 1 and 8. It was first started in the year 1952 with the great vision of saving the life of the Indians animals by taking some critical steps.

8. When did the Bombay Natural History Society started?
a) 1883
b) 1894
c) 1903
d) 1916

Answer: a
Clarification: The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) began as a small society of six members in 1883. Its influence on wildlife policy building, research, popular publication’s and peoples action has been a unique feature of the multifaceted society.

9. Which is the India’s oldest conservation research based NGO?
a) Botanical Survey of India
b) Bombay Natural History Society
c) Centre for Environmental Education
d) Madras Crocodile Bank Trust

Answer: b
Clarification: Bombay Natural History Society is the India’s oldest conservation research based NGO and one that has been at the forefront of the battle for preservation of species and ecosystems. Its major contribution has been in the field of wildlife research.

10. Which is the first crocodile conservation breeding centre in Asia?
a) Madras Crocodile Bank Trust
b) Bombay Crocodile Bank Trust
c) Kolkata Crocodile Bank Trust
d) Mangalore Crocodile Bank Trust

Answer: a
Clarification: Madras Crocodile Bank Trust (MCBT) is the first crocodile conservation breeding centre in Asia. It was founded in 1976 to conserve Indian crocodiles and establish program for the conservation of other species of endangered reptiles.

11. Where we can see State Department of Environment?
a) State where there is no danger for environment
b) State where there is danger for environment
c) State where there is no adequate environment
d) In all States of India

Answer: d
Clarification: State Department of Environment is present in every state of India. It is responsible for improving the overall environmental quality within the state. The Department actively engages in environmental assessment.

12. Where is the head quarter of Wildlife Institute of India located?
a) New Delhi
b) Mysore
c) Dehradun
d) Bhopal

Answer: c
Clarification: The head quarter of Wildlife Institute of India located in Dehradun. It is a major training establishment for Forest Officials and for research in Wildlife Management. The organization added an enormous amount of information on India’s biological wealth.

13. When did the Zoological Survey of India established?
a) 1900
b) 1909
c) 1916
d) 1920

Answer: c
Clarification: The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established in 1916. Its mandate was to do a systematic survey of the fauna in India. It has done an enormous amount of work on taxonomy and ecology.

14. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) founded by Salim Ali.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: SACON was Salim Ali’s dream but it became a reality only after his demise. Initially, this institution conceived as being a wing of the Bombay Natural History Society, it later evolved into an independent organization based at Coimbatore in 1990.

250+ TOP MCQs on Consumers and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Consumers”.

1. What does a primary consumer eat?
a) Plants
b) Decomposers
c) Small animals
d) Large animals
Answer: a
Clarification: Primary consumers are always herbivores, or organisms that only eat autotrophic plants. This primary consumer gets energy by eating plants. For example, rabbit which is a primary consumer eat grass and other herbivorous plants to get energy.

2. On what category consumers are classified into?
a) Herbivore
b) Carnivore
c) Omnivore
d) Herbivore, carnivore, omnivore and scavenger
Answer: d
Clarification: Consumers can be classified into herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and as well as a scavenger. Most of the primary consumer is herbivore, secondary and tertiary consumers are carnivore. Quaternary are omnivores.

3. What is called for an organism that feeds on other organisms?
a) Insects
b) Consumer
c) Producer
d) Herbivore
Answer: b
Clarification: Consumers feed on producers or other consumers to gain their energy. The consumers are the animals that receive energy from the producers. Consumers are who feed on the lower level in the food chain.

4. How many types of consumers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three types of consumers they are, primary followed by secondary and tertiary. Primary consumers consume primary producers. Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Tertiary consumers are the top predators of an ecosystem.

5. To which category ‘Hawk’ can be classified?
a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) Quaternary consumer
Answer: c
Clarification: Tertiary consumer is a third level consumer. It is at the third level of energy transfer. An example for this is hawk. Lizard which are primary consumer. This lizard is eat by deer and this deer is eaten by hawk. Hence hawk is a tertiary consumer.

6. All plants are herbivores.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: There are few carnivorous or insectivorous plants. Carnivorous plants have the adoptions to low nutrient environments. These plants obtain some nutrients by trapping and digesting various invertebrates.

7. To which classification predators are classified?
a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) Tertiary producer
Answer: c
Clarification: A predator is an animal that eats other animals and the prey is an animal that gets eaten by the predator. Example for predator is hawk. Hawk which eats frog, frog which eats grasshopper and grasshopper which eats grass.

8. What is another name for tertiary consumers?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Herbivores
d) Apex predators
Answer: d
Clarification: Apex predators are usually stood at the top in the food chain. It is capable of feeding on secondary consumers and primary consumers. Apex predators affect prey species population dynamics. Thus tertiary consumers sometimes also known as apex predators.

9. How many types of secondary consumers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Secondary consumers are sorted into two groups namely, carnivores and omnivores. Carnivores only eat meat or other animals flesh. Snakes are the examples of carnivorous secondary consumers. Omnivores eat both plants as well as animals, example is bear.

10. What is the food habitant of secondary consumers?
a) Feed on primary consumers
b) Depends on tertiary consumers
c) Produce their own energy
d) Eat dead animals
Answer: a
Clarification: Secondary consumers eat primary consumers for energy. It can’t generate its own energy. Tertiary consumers depend on secondary consumers for energy and thereby secondary consumer is the source for tertiary consumers.

11. In the following tropic levels of plants followed by rabbit flowed by fox. Here fox belongs to______________
a) Primary producer
b) Primary consumers
c) Secondary producers
d) Secondary consumers
Answer: d
Clarification: In the above tropic levels plants are primary producers and it belongs to first tropic level. Rabbit eat primary producers and it belongs to the second tropic level which is primary consumers. Fox which eat rabbit is secondary consumer.

12. A consumer that feeds on other animals are known as carnivores.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A carnivore us an animal that gets food by killing other animals. Carnivores generally eat flesh meat. Carnivores along with omnivores are important is ecosystem because, they keep other herbivorous species from getting over population in a particular area.