Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Ecological Pyramids”.

1. Who developed ecological pyramids for the first time?
a) Charles Newton
b) Charles Elton
c) Charles Babbage
d) Charles Darwin
Answer: b
Clarification: Ecological pyramids were first developed by Charles Elton. Since he first developed ecological pyramid is also known as Eltonian pyramid. An ecological pyramid may be erect or inverted depending on the type of criterion and the ecosystem.

2. Where we can find the inverted pyramids of biomass?
a) Terrestrial ecosystem
b) Aquatic ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Desert ecosystem
Answer: b
Clarification: Aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids because there’s a high turnover rate of producers. This is stable because high rates of production keep up to consumption rates. Inverted food pyramid means that consumers are more than producers.

3. Which of the following shows the numbers of the producers, herbivores and the carnivores at their successive trophic levels?
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of numbers
Answer: d
Clarification: Pyramid of numbers is the number of organisms in a food chain can represent graphically in a pyramid. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each trophic level in the food chain. Hence pyramid of numbers represent the number of herbivores and the carnivores at their successive trophic levels.

4. How can we indicate the accurate energy passed at each trophic level?
a) By the help of pyramid of number
b) By the help of pyramid of biomass
c) By the help of pyramid of energy
d) By the help of pyramid of food web
Answer: b
Clarification: A pyramid of biomass is a more accurate indication of how much energy is passed at each trophic level. Biomass is the mass of living material in each organism multiplied by the total number of organisms in that trophic level.

5. Which of the following statement is true for pyramid of biomass?
a) The biomass in each trophic level is always more than the below trophic level
b) The biomass in each trophic level is always less than the below trophic level
c) The biomass in each trophic level is entirely different compared to below one
d) Trophic level don’t pass energy
Answer: b
Clarification: Biomass is a measure of the amount of food available. When animals eat only a small proportion of their food, it is converted into new tissue. This tissue is the food for the next trophic level organisms.

6. Pyramid of energy shows the relationship between energy and trophic level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Pyramid of energy depicts flow of energy in the ecosystem. Source of all energy in ecosystem is the sun. Producers are only organisms in an ecosystem that can trap the solar energy. So base of energy pyramid is always wide compare to others.

7. What is the significance of the shape of the pyramid of energy?
a) It shows decrease in energy
b) It shows increase in energy
c) It shows the direction of energy flow
d) It shows the trophic levels
Answer: a
Clarification: Pyramid of energy is always upright in shape, this is because as energy lost as heat along food chains either used in respiration or lost due to heat. So there will be decrease in energy. Energy transformation is just about 10% for higher trophic levels.

8. Why are the trophic levels is in the shape of pyramid?
a) Due to loss of energy between the trophic level
b) Due to good looking
c) Due to increase of energy between the trophic level
d) Due to stable energy between the trophic level
Answer: a
Clarification: The pyramid shape of the trophic level comes from the loss of energy between the levels. The chain grows only 10% of the energy supply to the proceeding animals, that energy loss will be used to produce new primary consumers.

9. Which pyramid is always upright apart from tree ecosystem?
a) Pyramid of Number
b) Pyramid of Biomass
c) Pyramid of Energy
d) Pyramid of Force
Answer: a
Clarification: Pyramid of a number represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level. It is always upright except in a tree ecosystem. In tree ecosystem pyramid of number is inverted. Usually, it contains four trophic levels.

10. What is the exception to the upright pyramid of biomass?
a) Temperate forests
b) Deserts
c) Aquatic ecosystems
d) Grassland ecosystems
Answer: c
Clarification: The pyramids of biomass represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of biomass. In aquatic ecosystem the producers are small organisms with least biomass and the biomass gradually increase towards the apex of the pyramid.

11. In an energy pyramid, which way does energy transfer occur?
a) From both top to bottom and bottom to top of pyramid
b) From middle of pyramid
c) From top to the bottom of pyramid
d) From bottom to the top of pyramid
Answer: d
Clarification: The largest source of energy for an ecosystem is the Sun. Energy and nutrients passed when one organism eats another. Usually producers are in large amount when compared to that of consumers.

12. Which of the following ecological pyramids is the most fundamental?
a) Pyramid of energy
b) Pyramid of numbers
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of force
Answer: a
Clarification: Pyramid of energy is a diagrammatic expression of the rates of flow of energy through the different trophic levels of an ecosystem. The pyramid reflects the rates of respiration and photosynthesis.

13. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three types of ecological pyramids are there, a) Pyramid of Number: It represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level. b) Pyramid of Biomass: It represents total weight of the organisms in each trophic level. c) Pyramid of Energy: It represents total energy of the organisms in each trophic level.

14. The pyramid of biomass is upright in aquatic ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Pyramid of Biomass is inverted in case of aquatic ecosystem because the producers in aquatic ecosystem are phytoplankton. This phytoplankton grows and reproduces rapidly. The pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the consumer biomass exceeding the producer biomass.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Marine Pollution”.

1. Which is the most input of waste causing marine pollution?
a) Pesticides
b) Pipes directly discharge waste into the sea
c) Death of aquatic organisms
d) Climatic conditions
Answer: b
Clarification: The most obvious input of waste for marine pollution is through pipes directly discharging waste into the sea. Very often, municipal waste and sewage waste from residences and industries in coastal towns are directly discharged into the sea.

2. Why ship accidents cause marine pollution?
a) Because if the ship carrying passengers to collapse it results in the death of many people
b) Because ship is very huge in its size
c) Dredged material which carries heavy metals cause marine pollution
d) Ship materials stuck inside the marine organisms
Answer: c
Clarification: Ship accidents and accidental spillages at sea damaging the marine environment. Shipping channels in estuaries and at the entrances to ports often require dredging to keep them open. This dredged material contains heavy metals which contaminates the water.

3. Which of the following is the greatest volume of waste discharge to water?
a) Spillage from oil pipelines
b) Sewage
c) Nuclear waste
d) Spillage from tankers
Answer: b
Clarification: The greatest volume of waste discharged to water is sewage, which is primarily organic in nature and is degraded by bacterial activity. Using the oxygen present in the water, these wastes are broken down into stable inorganic compounds.

4. When does the rate of aerobic oxidation reduced in the sewage that is reduced to the water?
a) When oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l
b) When oxygen concentration falls below 2.5 mg/l
c) When oxygen concentration falls below 3.5 mg/l
d) When oxygen concentration falls below 4.5 mg/l
Answer: a
Clarification: When the oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l, the rate of aerobic oxidation is reduced and replaced by anaerobic bacteria that can oxidizes the organic molecules without the use of oxygen.

5. Which of the following way is used to reduce the pollution load on marine water?
a) Manual cleaning of pollutants
b) Damping the pollutants during winter
c) Introducing sewage treatment plants
d) Ban the license of industries which are near to the sea
Answer: c
Clarification: One of the best ways of reducing the pollution load on marine waters is by introducing sewage treatment plants. This will reduce the biological oxygen demand (BOD) of the final product before it is discharged to water.

6. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill considered amongst the largest oil spills in history.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Deepwater Horizon oil spill, also known as the Gulf of Mexico oil spill occurred on 10 April 2010. It caused a catastrophic explosion on the Deepwater Horizon offshore oil drilling platform. Hundreds of millions of liters have been split to date. This affects the habitats of thousands of marine organisms.

7. What is the reason that oil pollution attracts the greatest attention?
a) Because of the volume
b) Because of the density
c) Because of the mass
d) Because of the visibility
Answer: d
Clarification: Oil pollution of the sea normally attracts the greatest attention because of its visibility. They visible to the greater range because the pollution spread to the longer distance within a few hours. This pollution cause damaging to the marine ecosystems.

8. The natural process of emulsification of oil in water can be accelerated through the use of chemical dispersants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A variety of slick-lickers in which a continuous belt of absorbent material dips through the oil slick and is passed through rollers to extract the oil have been designed. Rocks and harbour walls can be cleaned with high pressure steam or dispersants.

Energy and Environment Management online test on “Environmental Ethics : Issues and Possible Solutions”.

1. Environmental ethics belongs to which part?
a) Environmental science
b) Environmental chemistry
c) Environmental philosophy
d) Environmental studies
Answer: c
Clarification: Environmental ethics is the part of environmental philosophy. It considers extending the traditional boundaries of ethics from solely including humans to including environment which are of many organisms.

2. On what Marshall’s category of conservation ethics valid?
a) Usefulness to all organisms
b) Usefulness to humans
c) Usefulness to the ecosystem
d) Non usefulness to humans
Answer: b
Clarification: Marshal’s category of conservation ethics is an extension of use value into the biological world. It only on the worth of the environment in terms of its usefulness or utility to humans only in this situation it is valid.

3. According to anthropocentrism who are more important?
a) Fishes
b) Lizards
c) Humans
d) Lions
Answer: c
Clarification: Anthropocentrism is the position that humans are the most important or critical element in any situation. According to anthropocentrism human race must always be its own primary concern apart from the rest.

4. Who distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism?
a) Aristotle
b) Michael Smith
c) Chris Lynn
d) Peter Vardy
Answer: d
Clarification: Peter Vardy distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism they are strong and weak anthropocentrism. Strong anthropocentrism argues that humans are at the center of reality. Weak anthropocentrism argues that reality can be only interpreted from a human point of view.

5. Who coined the term “Environmental Pragmatism”?
a) Smith harry
b) Henry willsion
c) David Walker
d) Bryan Norton
Answer: d
Clarification: Bryan Norton developed one of the essential actors of environmental ethics by launching environmental pragmatism. It refuses to take a stance in disputes between defenders of anthropocentrism and non-anthropocentrism ethics.

6. Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines including environmental law, environmental sociology, ecotheology, ecology, ecological economics and environmental geography.

7. Who is the dominant species in the planet according to human centered environmental worldviews?
a) Blue whale
b) Elephant
c) Giraffe
d) Human
Answer: d
Clarification: According to the human centered environmental worldviews, on the planet most important and dominant species are human. Humans can and should manage the planet mostly for own benefit. This creating imbalance in the environment.

8. Which one of the following is not an ethical guideline?
a) Developing respect for all life
b) Understanding how earth works
c) Considering humans as the predominant species
d) Seeking of environmental wisdom
Answer: c
Clarification: Apart from the humans as the predominant species all other options are important ethical guidelines known as Earth Ethics or Environmental Ethics. Considering humans as predominant leads to the long-term harmful for environmental and social consequences.

9. What is the main reason environmental destruction?
a) Due to consumption of the poor
b) Due to consumption of the rich
c) Due to no consumption
d) Due to consumption in certain interval of times
Answer: b
Clarification: Environmental destruction is largely caused by the consumption of the rich. The worst sufferers of environmental destruction are the poor, even among the poor the worst sufferers are the backward cultures and women.

10. What is the full form of GNP?
a) Gross Nation Product
b) Gross Nation Purchase
c) Gross Nation Premises
d) Grand Nation Product
Answer: a
Clarification: The Gross Nation Product (GNP) is the total amount of product produced in the entire nation. The GNP will be enhanced if we can stop and reverse the growing alienation between people and the resources.

11. When was first earth day celebrated?
a) December 23, 1956
b) May 21, 1965
c) April 22, 1970
d) July 24, 1976
Answer: c
Clarification: Understanding the serious implications of depletion of the natural resources, earth day was started observing from April 22, 1970 onwards. The purpose is to make people and government agencies aware of the importance of caring and preserving the environment.

12. Which one of the following is the major environmental issue?
a) Use of resources
b) Use of economy
c) Education
d) Employment
Answer: a
Clarification: Use of resources is one of the important environmental issues. Developed countries use a major part of natural resources. The developing county like India also overuses its natural resources for its large population.

13. The common property of rural communities has increasingly been used to supply the needs of the ______________
a) Forests
b) Urban
c) Deserts
d) Water bodies
Answer: b
Clarification: An urban-rural equity issue is of the major environmental ethics facing. The rural sector supplies food and part of the energy needs to most towns and cities in India. The common lands of the rural sector are being depleted of their resources.

14. Environmental ethics tells all the life forms on Earth have the right to live.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The environmental ethics brings out the fact that all the life forms on Earth have the right to live. By destroying nature we are denying the life forms. The food web clearly indicates that humans, plants and animals are closely linked with each other and everyone have the right to live.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Genetic Diversity”.

1. Into how many types of biodiversity are classified?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: Biodiversity is defined as “The variety and variability among all groups living organisms and the ecosystems in which they occur”. Biodiversity is classified into three types, a) Genetic diversity, b) Species diversity and c) Ecosystem diversity.

2. What is called for a species with different genetic characteristics?
a) Up-species
b) Sub-species
c) Down-species
d) By-species
Answer: b
Clarification: A species with different genetic characteristics is known as a sub-species or genera. Within individual species, there are varieties, which are slightly different from one other. These differences are mainly due to the difference in the combination of genes.

3. Which are the basic units of hereditary information transmitter from one generation to other?
a) Cells
b) Bones
c) Bloods
d) Genes
Answer: d
Clarification: Genes are the basic units of hereditary information transmitted from one generation to the other. Due to the difference in the combination of genes, individual species are slightly varieties from one another within individual species.

4. Rice variety is an example for which of the following biodiversity?
a) Genetic diversity
b) Species diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) Community diversity
Answer: a
Clarification: Rive varieties is an example for genetic diversity. All rice varieties belong to the species “oryzasativa”. However there are thousands of rice varieties that show variation at the genetic level in the form of different shape, size, nutrient content and color.

5. Which foundation in 2007 found that genetic diversity and biodiversity are dependent upon each other?
a) National Geographical Foundation
b) National Animal Foundation
c) National Ecosystem foundation
d) National Science Foundation
Answer: d
Clarification: A study conducted by the National Science Foundation in 2007 found that genetic diversity and biodiversity are dependent upon each other that diversity within a species is necessary to maintain diversity among species.

6. Genetic diversity serves as a way for populations to adapt to changing environments.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Genetic diversity with more variation, it is likely that some individuals in a population will possess variations of alleles that are perfectly suited for the environment. Those individuals are more likely to survive to produce offspring bearing that allele.

7. What happens if there is a change in genetic diversity?
a) It leads to the loss of biological diversity
b) It leads to the loss of only human species
c) It leads to the pollution
d) It leads to more population
Answer: a
Clarification: The interdependence between genetic and species diversity is very delicate. Change in genetic diversity, such as in loss of species leads to a loss of biological diversity. Thus genetic diversity plays an important role.

8. In how many fold we can divide the importance of genetic diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: We can divide the importance of genetic diversity into two fold. First, increased genetic diversity is directly attributed to the adaptive ability of a species and second, a population’s fitness is closely related to its common measure of genetic diversity.

9. Why genetic diversity plays an important role in the survival and adaptability of a species?
a) Ability of the population to adapt to the changing environment
b) Any population must remain same irrespective of the outer change in the environment
c) Environment remains same even if the population changes
d) Population inability to adapt to the changing environment
Answer: a
Clarification: When a population’s habitat changes, the population may have to adapt to survive the ability of the population to adapt to the changing environment will determine their ability to cope with an environmental challenge.

10. How genetic diversity helps in agriculture?
a) It makes crops to monocultures
b) It avoids monocultures of crops
c) It provides less yield
d) It provides diseases to crops
Answer: b
Clarification: Genetic diversity helps the crops to avoid the monocultures which are caused by the selective breeding of plants in the crop field. Little to no genetic diversity makes crops extremely susceptible to widespread diseases for crops.

11. When did the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture established?
a) 2007
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2010
Answer: a
Clarification: Commission of Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture was established in 2007. It provides a framework and guidelines for the management of animal genetic resources. Global Plan of Action for Animal Genetic Resources comes under Commission of Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.

12. If there is a threatened species in forest, what may be the reason for that?
a) Mutation
b) Diseases
c) Low genetic diversity
d) High genetic diversity
Answer: c
Clarification: Low genetic diversity is one of the reasons for the reason for threatened species. The natural world has several ways of preserving or increasing genetic diversity. Low genetic diversity and resulting poor sperm quality has made breeding and survivorship difficult for threatened species.

13. Which one of the following is a measure of genetic diversity?
a) Population
b) Environmental condition
c) Pollution
d) Nucleotide diversity
Answer: d
Clarification: Nucleotide diversity is the extent of nucleotide polymorphisms within a population. It is one of the measures for genetic diversity. It is commonly measured through molecular markers such as micro and mini satellite sequences.

14. Genetic diversity is not essential for a species to evolve.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Genetic diversity is essential for a species to evolve. With very little genetic diversity within the species, healthy reproduction becomes increasingly difficult and offspring are more likely to have problems resulting from inbreeding.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Dams”.

1. Based on the volume of fill which is the largest man made dam in the world?
a) Tarbela Dam
b) Fort Peck Dam
c) Ataturk Dam
d) Houtribdijk Dam
Answer: a
Clarification: Tarbela Dam is the largest man made dam in the world. This Tarbela Dam is located in Pakistan. The construction of a dam is completed in 1976. Fort Peck Dam, Ataturk Dam, Houtribdijk Dam are respectively second, third and fourth largest man made dams.

2. Temples of modern India was a term coined by ___________________
a) Subhas Chandra Bose
b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer: b
Clarification: Temples of modern India was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru while inaugurating Bhakra Nangal dam to describe dams, scientific research institutes, steel plants and power plants. According to Nehru, these four are the temples of modern India.

3. The largest dam in India is____________
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Hirakud
d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer: a
Clarification: Tehri dam is the largest dam in India. Tehri dam is located in Uttarakhand. The height of the dam is 260 mtrs. The length is 575 mtrs. Total capacity is 2,100,000(Acre Ft). The inflow water to Tehri dam is Bhagirathi.

4. Barrage dam is used for control the amount of water passing the dam.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A barrage dam is a special kind of dam which consists of a line of large gates that can be opened or closed for the purpose of control the amount of water passing the dam. One of the examples for barrage dam is Red Bluff Diversion dam in California.

5. The earliest known dam is______________
a) Jawa Dam
b) Sadd – el – Kafara Dam
c) Great Dam of Marib
d) Roman Dam
Answer: a
Clarification: Jawa Dam is the earliest known dam. Jawa dam which is in Jordan, 100 km away from the capital Amman. This earliest built dam Jawa is a gravity dam. This dam structure is dated to 3000 BC. This Jawa dam is still in use.

6. The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of which dam?
a) Hoover Dam
b) Tarbela Dam
c) Tehri Dam
d) Aswan Low Dam
Answer: d
Clarification: The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of the Aswan Low dam. This Aswan Low dam is located in Egypt in Africa continent. This dam is built in 1902. Its is gravity masonry buttress dam on the Nile river.

7. Arch dams are first built by ______________
a) Greeks
b) Romans
c) Portuguese
d) British
Answer: b
Clarification: The Romans were the first to build arch dams. In this arch dams the reaction force stabilizes the structure from the external hydrostatic pressure. Later in 19th century British Empire builds many arch dams.

8. The tallest dam in the world is______________
a) Jinping- l – Dam
b) Nurek Dam
c) Xiaowan Dam
d) Xiluodu Dam
Answer: a
Clarification: Jinping- l – dam is the tallest dam in the world. It’s is of 305m in height. It is a concrete arch type dam. It is situated in China and the river that flows in this dam is Yalong. Nurek Dam, Xiaowan Dam and Xiluodu Dam are second, third, fourth tallest dams respectively.

9. Which of the following types of dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial revolution?
a) Steel dams
b) Timber dams
c) Coffer dams
d) Check dams
Answer: b
Clarification: Timber dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial revolution. This is due to the ease and speed of construction. Two common variations of timber dams are a crib and the plank. Both these variations have different functions.

10. Which of the following is a natural dam?
a) Tailings dam
b) Diversionary dam
c) Saddle dam
d) Volcanic dam
Answer: d
Clarification: Volcanic dams is the example for natural dam. It is formed when lava flows, often basaltic, intercept the path of a stream or lake outlet, resulting in the creation of a natural impoundment. Uinkarat volcanic field in United States is the example for volcanic dam.

11. A dry dam is designed to control flooding.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: A dry dam is also known as a flood retarding structure. This dry dam is designed in such a way to control the flooding. This dry dams normally holds back no water and allows the channel to flow freely except during intense flow period.

12. The glacier blocks a river in the dam is known as________________
a) Ice dam
b) Blockage dam
c) Spilt dam
d) Isolated dam
Answer: a
Clarification: An Ice dam occurs when water builds behind a blockage of ice. Ice dams form either when ice chunks in a river and forms a lake or when ice chunks in a river are blocked by something and build up to form a dam.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Forest Ecosystems”.

1. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: A forest ecosystem has two parts they are, abiotic and biotic. Abiotic type of forest depends on abiotic conditions at the site, they are also called non-living aspects of the forest. Biotic type of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.

2. On which factor forest type is mainly dependent?
a) Abiotic
b) Size of the forest
c) Shape of trees
d) Products from the trees
Answer: a
Clarification: The forest type mainly depends on abiotic factors such as the climate and soil characteristics of a region. It also depends on the nature of the tree species whether they are evergreen forest, deciduous, xerophytes or mangroves.

3. Where can we find coniferous forest in India?
a) Deserts
b) River deltas
c) Grassland
d) Himalayan
Answer: d
Clarification: Coniferous forests grow in the Himalayan mountain region. It requires low temperature. Forests dominated by conifers such as pine, hemlock, spruce and fir. Wildlife such as snow leopards, Himalayan tahrs and musk deer’s are found in this region.

4. Why most of the Sun light does not penetrate to the ground in evergreen forest?
a) Because of snowfall
b) Because of less temperature
c) Because of trees overlap with each other
d) Because of less rainfall
Answer: c
Clarification: Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees overlap with each other to form a continuous canopy. Thus, little light penetrates down to the forest floor. The forest is rich in orchids and ferns.

5. Which state in India has the maximum percentage of its area covered by forests?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland
Answer: b
Clarification: Mizoram has the highest percentage is covered by forests. The state is host to numerous species of birds, wildlife. This is followed by Lakshadweep. Mizoram covers about 88% of its land with forest.

6. Forest plays an important role in ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Forests hold importance for all inhabitants as well as for the overall health of planet. Forest protects from adverse climatic conditions. Forests are major contributors to the Earth’s ability to maintain its climate. Deforestation negates these benefits.

7. Where can we find thorn forest in India?
a) Semi-arid regions
b) Desert regions
c) Himalayan regions
d) Northeast regions
Answer: a
Clarification: Thorn forests are found in the semi-arid regions of India. The trees, which are sparsely distributed, are surrounded by open grassy area. Thorn forest trees have long or fibrous roots to enable them to reach water at great depths.

8. What is considered as lungs of nature?
a) Rock
b) Sun
c) Water
d) Trees
Answer: d
Clarification: Tress is considered as lungs of nature. Trees control pollutions by absorption and carbon dioxide and they release oxygen in return. This is similar to the respiration mechanism of lungs in humans where it takes oxygen by eliminating carbon dioxide.

9. How erosion controlled by forest?
a) By reducing in the sunlight penetration
b) By reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
c) By reducing the pressure
d) By increasing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
Answer: b
Clarification: Forest prevents erosion by reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface. Forest absorbing water and they do not allow it to flow directly run off. By this method, they prevent the removal of topsoil.

10. How forests increase the atmosphere’s humidity?
a) By transpiration
b) By inspiration
c) By expiration
d) By oxidation
Answer: a
Clarification: Forest release water vapor by transpiration which increases humidity. Forest contains many trees, these trees undergo photosynthesis. During this process, they released oxygen and water resulting in increase in humidity of atmosphere.

11. Which of the following type of forest important for watersheds?
a) Tropical Evergreen forest
b) Tropical Deciduous forest
c) Tropical Montane forests
d) Grassland forest
Answer: c
Clarification: Tropical Montane forests play an important role in watersheds. Watersheds are defined as an area of land that contains a common set of streams and rivers that all join into a single larger body of water. Tropical Montane forest is characterized by dense forest which helps in watershed.

12. How the tropical rain forest gets the name?
a) Due to less rain
b) Due to heavy rain
c) Due to moderate rain
d) Due to no rain required
Answer: b
Clarification: The tropical rain forest named so because they receive a lot of rain. They receive an average of 80 inches a year. Due to heavy rain temperature doesn’t change very much and it is always warm and muggy.

13. Where can we find the most feared spider in the world ‘Tarantulas’?
a) In deserts
b) In mountains
c) In tropical rain forests
d) In grassland forest
Answer: c
Clarification: ‘Tarantulas’ is one of the deadliest spiders found in tropical rain forest. Most species of tarantula have poisonous fangs for killing prey and to protect itself from other organisms. The tropical rain forest suits for this spider to survive.

14. The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants. It is normally expressed as dry weight per unit area. Biomass production in the forest is the rate at which biomass is accrued per unit area over a fixed interval of time in a forest.