Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Environment Management MCQs on “Effects and Control Measures of Marine Pollution”.

1. What is the first step in primary sewage treatment plants?
a) Fine screening
b) Course screening
c) Chlorination
d) Primary settling tank
Answer: b
Clarification: Sewage treatment is one of the efficient ways to reduce the pollution load happening on marine waters. The primary treatment first undergoes for course screening which then proceeds to other steps like fine screening and all.

2. What is called for the removal of sand, gravel in the primary treatment of sewage treatment plant?
a) Course screening
b) Fine screening
c) Grit removal
d) Chlorination
Answer: c
Clarification: The removal of sand and gravel from the sewage in the primary treatment of sewage plant is known as grit removal. This is the third step in primary treatment after course screening and fine screening.

3. What is called for the place where lighter, organic material settles in the primary treatment of sewage plant?
a) Primary settling tank
b) Secondary settling tank
c) Grit chamber
d) Coursing chamber
Answer: c
Clarification: The place where lighter and organic material settles in the primary treatment of sewage plant is called as grit chamber. This chamber comes after the screening of influent by removing the pollutants.

4. Where can we find rotating arm sprays in sewage treatment?
a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Secondary treatment of activated sludge process
d) Secondary process of oxidation pool
Answer: b
Clarification: Rotating arm sprays water over rocks can be seen in secondary treatment of trickling filter. Rotating arm is followed by a circular bed of first size rocks and filter. That treated wastewater along with slim goes to secondary settling tank, which treats the water.

5. In which secondary treatment of sewage treatment sludge is broken down in an anaerobic digester?
a) Oxidation pool
b) Activated sludge process
c) Trickling filter
d) Bed filter
Answer: b
Clarification: In sedimentation tank, during sludge treatment sludge is broken down in an anaerobic digester. The digester sludge is pumped onto sludge drying beds. The dried sludge is a good source of manure.

6. In sewage treatment of oxidation pond we can see the water up to 2 meters deep.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In oxidation pond of the secondary treatment of sewage treatment plants the influent is transferred into effluent. Partially treated sewage is directed to settle 2 meters deep in a vessel. This vessel settles the pollutants inside and floats the pollutant free water upwards.

7. In which of the following treatment of sewage plant we can find disinfection as a step?
a) Secondary process of oxidation pool
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Primary treatment
d) Advanced sewage treatment
Answer: d
Clarification: We can find disinfection as a step in advanced sewage treatment. Influent after primary and secondary treatment proceeds to chemical treatment and then to filtration and then to disinfection process after this effluent comes out.

8. How many percentage of BOD removes in primary treatment?
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 45%
Answer: c
Clarification: Primary treatment involves various processes like screening which is proceeding by sedimentation where pollutants are removed during sedimentation. Primary treatment normally removes about 35% of the BOD and 60% of the suspended particles.

9. What is the main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants?
a) To remove the suspended particles
b) To remove the contaminants
c) To remove the BOD
d) To remove the organic material
Answer: c
Clarification: The main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants is to remove most of the BOD. BOD decided the contamination of water pollutants. Secondary treatment of sewage treatment can remove at least 85% of the BOD.

10. How many common approaches are used in secondary treatment?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: Three commonly used approaches are used in the secondary treatment of sewage plants. The three commonly used approaches are trickling filters where we can see rotating arm, activated sludge process where we can see aeration tank and the last one is oxidation pond.

11. What is the meaning of ‘Tainting’ related to marine pollution?
a) Unpleasant flavor of seafood
b) Unpleasant flavor of water
c) Unpleasant flavor of soil
d) Unpleasant flavor of air
Answer: a
Clarification: Tainting imparts an unpleasant flavor to fish and seafood and is detectable even at extremely low levels of contamination. Thus, the economic loss from oil slicks on fish and shellfish happens.

12. When drill cutting dumped on the seabed which toxic is produced?
a) Toxic nitrites
b) Toxic fluorides
c) Toxic sulphides
d) Toxic hydrates
Answer: c
Clarification: When drill cuttings dumped on the seabed and it creates anoxic conditions. These anoxic conditions result in the production of toxic sulphides in the bottom sediment, thus eliminating the benthic fauna.

13. What happens if liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage?
a) Birds bone become week
b) Birds lost its memory
c) Birds digestive system becomes weak
d) Birds lost its water-repellent properties
Answer: d
Clarification: If liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage, its water-repellant properties are lost. Water then penetrates the plumage and displaces the air trapped between the feathers and skin. With this, the plumage becomes water-logged and the birds may sink and drown.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Species and Ecosystem Diversity”.

1. What is called for a discrete group of organisms of the same kind?
a) Genes
b) Community
c) Species
d) Column
Answer: c
Clarification: Species means discrete groups of organisms of the same kind. Species diversity is the diversity between different species. The sum of varieties of all living organisms at the species level is known as species diversity.

2. Approximately, how many species are assigned with scientific names?
a) Around 1 million
b) Around 1.5 million
c) Around 2 million
d) Around 2.5 million
Answer: b
Clarification: Scientific names are very important for identifying the characteristics of any species. The total number of species living on earth is approximately more than 2 million. However, only around 1.5 million are found and assigned scientific names.

3. What is the significance of spices diversity?
a) Species interacts with its environment and thus perform certain functions
b) Species minimize interaction with its environment and thus perform certain functions
c) Species never interacts with environment
d) Though species interacts with the environment it do no perform any functions
Answer: a
Clarification: The species interacts with its environment and thus performs certain functions. In a natural state, these interactions and consequently the system is in balance. The loss of one species affects many other species and causes imbalance.

4. How do human activities affect species diversity?
a) Due to over-exploitation of humans
b) Due to conserving the forests
c) Due to a decline in population growth in humans
d) Due to decrease in the pollution causing by industries
Answer: a
Clarification: Over-exploitation is one of the main threats to species diversity. They cause a gradual loss of species on local, regional and global levels. Additionally, over population and habitat conservation destroys natural balance.

5. How many components are there in species diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three components in species diversity. They are species richness, taxonomic diversity and species evenness. Species richness is a simple count of species, taxonomic diversity is the genetic relationship between different groups of species, and species evenness quantifies how equal the abundances of the species.

6. We cannot calculate species diversity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: We can calculate species diversity. Species diversity in a dataset can be calculated by first taking the weighted average of species proportional abundances in the dataset, and then taking the inverse of this.

7. How will increasing species diversity affect ecosystem?
a) It increase the efficiency and productivity of an ecosystem
b) It increase only the efficiency and not productivity of an ecosystem
c) It do not increase the efficiency and productivity of an ecosystem
d) It only increase the productivity of an ecosystem
Answer: a
Clarification: By increasing species diversity in an ecosystem, both the efficiency and the productivity of an ecosystem will increase. A greater species richness and diversity may cause ecosystems to function more efficiently and productively by making more resources available for other species.

8. How many types of species are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: There are three types of species. The three types of species are endemic species, exotic species and cosmopolitan species. Cosmopolitan distributions can be observed both in extinct and extant species.

9. What is called for the evolutionary process by which new biological species arise?
a) Speciation
b) Condensation
c) Evaporation
d) Admiration
Answer: a
Clarification: Speciation is the evolutionary process by which new biological species arise. There are four modes in speciation namely, a) Allopatric, Parapatric, Peripatric and Sympatric. Peripatric means formation of new species through evolution.

10. Which is the largest scale of biodiversity?
a) Species diversity
b) Genetic diversity
c) Cell diversity
d) Ecological diversity
Answer: d
Clarification: Ecological diversity is the largest scale of biodiversity. It includes the variation in both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Ecological diversity is the variation in the ecosystems found in a region in ecosystems over the whole planet.

11. Which one of the following diversity boosts the availability of oxygen?
a) Species diversity
b) Ecosystem diversity
c) Genetic diversity
d) Cell diversity
Answer: b
Clarification: Ecosystem diversity boosts the availability of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis amongst plant organisms. Since Ecosystem diversity provide many useful things it is significant to human existence.

12. Which of the following is an example of ecosystem diversity?
a) Earth
b) Sun
c) River
d) Glass
Answer: c
Clarification: River ecosystem is an example of Ecosystem diversity. Rivers include fish, mussels, aquatic insects and a variety of planets. Ecosystem diversity explains the interaction between living organisms and physical environment in an ecosystem.

13. Apart from reduction of gene flow, what is the one more reason for speciation?
a) Morphological insulation
b) Geographical isolation
c) Area distribution
d) Mutation
Answer: b
Clarification: Geographic isolation is one of the reasons for speciation. Due to geographic isolation populations were prevented from interbreeding. Because of geographic isolation, rivers change course, mountains rise, continents drift, organisms migrate.

14. Forests are the only example of Ecosystem diversity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Forests are one of the examples of Ecosystem diversity and it is not the only example for Ecosystem diversity. Apart from forests, deserts, marine ecosystem, tundra, coral reefs, old growth forests and many more examples are there for Ecosystem diversity.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Water Resources”.

1. Which is the first state in India to make roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all the houses?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
Answer: a
Clarification: Tamil Nadu is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. If anyone failed to obey this, there are legal provisions to punish the defaulters. This method helps to save rain water.

2. The name given to the diversion channels of the western Himalayas is__________________
a) Phalodi
b) Johads
c) Guls or Kuls
d) Khadins
Answer: c
Clarification: The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as Guls or Kuls. In hills and mountains, people built diversion channels for irrigational purposes, which are called Guls and Kuls. It is mainly used in the western Himalayas for harvesting water.

3. What is Palar pani?
a) Spring
b) Milk
c) River water
d) Rain water
Answer: d
Clarification: Palar Pani is the commonly used name for rain water. This term is mainly used in Rajasthan. In Rajasthan Palar Pani means “Meetha Panni” which mainly stored and used for household works like working and drinking.

4. Mattur dam is located across Krishna river.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Mettur dam which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river. This Mettur dam provides irrigation and drinking water facilities for more than 10 districts of Tamil Nadu. Hence it plays a vital role in the farmers life.

5. Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is available in India?
a) Ocean water
b) River water
c) Pond water
d) Ground water
Answer: d
Clarification: Ground water is the major source of fresh water in India. Ground water can’t see or can’t access easily. The important role of ground water sources play in the water cycle is that they are the primary sources for human consumption.

6. Narmada Bachao Andolan is related to____________
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Sardar Sarovar
d) Rihand
Answer: c
Clarification: Narmada Bachao Andolan is a social movement against the large dams built across the Narmada river at Sardar Sarovar dam in Gujarat. Sardar Sarovar dam is the first focal point of the movement.

7. At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India?
a) 4 P.M.
b) 6 P.M.
c) 8 P.M.
d) 10 P.M.
Answer: c
Clarification: We can record the amount of rainfall by the device called as a rain gauge. The usual time of recording for rainfall is 8 A.M in Indian time. Different countries have different rainfall recording timings. The some total of all the measurements during the previous 24 hours is register at 8 A.M in the morning.

8. The total surface of water in the earth surface is_________________
a) 65%
b) 69%
c) 71%
d) 75%
Answer: c
Clarification: The total surface of the water in the earth surface is 71%, while the other 29% consists of Continents and Islands. The oceans hold about 96.5% of all Earth’s water. The remaining 3.5% of water is stored in other water bodies.

9. Which planet is also known as blue planet?
a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Earth
d) Mars
Answer: c
Clarification: About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered in water, which appears blue from space. Earth is known as blue planet because of its blue visibility when we see it from outer space. No other planet is having such a large amount of water this is also the reason for its blue color.

10. The rank of India in terms of water availability per person p.a in the world is_______________
a) 130th
b) 131st
c) 132nd
d) 133rd
Answer: d
Clarification: The per capita water availability in the country is reducing due to the increase in population. According to 2011 census, the average annual per capita availability of water in the country is 1545 cubic meters.

11. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Krishna Raja Sagara was popularly known as KRS. The kind of dam built is gravity dam. This dam is situated in Karnataka. The total surface area of the dam is 129 km². The water released from KRS dam flows to Mettur dam which is in Tamil Nadu district.

12. Ground water is accessed by______________
a) Drilling wells
b) Drip irrigation
c) Check bunds
d) Constructing canals
Answer: a
Clarification: Ground water is commonly accessed either through a bore or well. A well is a vertical shaft which is dug into the ground. In order to drill a well we need to have a permission from the government. Government provide ‘take and use license’ in most cases.

Basic Energy Management Questions and Answers on “Grassland Ecosystems”.

1. What is the predominate vegetation in grassland ecosystem?
a) Sand
b) Land
c) Rock
d) Grass
Answer: d
Clarification: Grassland ecosystem includes a wide range of landscapes in which the vegetation is predominantly grass and small annual plants specifically adapted to India’s climatic conditions. Due to the high presence of grass vegetation it got its name as Grassland ecosystem.

2. In grassland area how much amount of rainfall is required?
a) Low rainfall
b) High rainfall
c) Moderate rainfall
d) They don’t require any rainfall
Answer: a
Clarification: Grasslands cover areas where rainfall is low. The area of grassland ecosystem has soil depth and its quality is poor. The low rainfall prevents the growth of a large number of trees and shrubs. It is sufficient to support the growth of grass cover during the monsoon.

3. How humans use grassland?
a) To cultivate the land
b) To feed livestock
c) To grow thick forests
d) Grassland is not at all useful for humans
Answer: b
Clarification: Humans use grassland to feed various livestock. Grassland mainly consists of grass, animals such as cow, buffalo, sheep and various other animals depend eat grass as their main food. Thus by raring cattle humans many products from livestock.

4. Which of the following ecosystem shows varieties in his vegetation?
a) Aquatic ecosystem
b) Desert ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: c
Clarification: Grasslands form a variety of ecosystems located in different climatic conditions. It ranges from near desert conditions to patches of shoal grasslands that occur on hill-slopes. In the Himalayas, there are high cold pastures.

5. Where we can find tracts of tall elephant grass?
a) Terai belt
b) Deccan belt
c) Himalayan pasture belt
d) Gangs belt
Answer: a
Clarification: Tracts of tall elephant grass present in the low lying terai belt south of the Himalayan foothills. This is one of the types of grassland which is found in India. They form variety of ecosystems based on climatic conditions.

6. Himalayan wildlife requires both forest and grassland ecosystems.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Himalayan Wildlife requires both ecosystems. They want forest as well as grassland ecosystem as vital parts of their habitat. The animal migrates up into the high altitude grasslands in the summer season. In winter they move downwards.

7. What is the type of grassland ecosystem which is found at Western India, Central India and the Deccan?
a) The semi-arid plains
b) The terai
c) The Himalayan pasture belt
d) The shola
Answer: a
Clarification: The semi-arid plains of Western India, Central India and the Deccan are covered by grassland tracts with patches of thorn forest. Several mammals such as blackbuck, chinkara and birds such as bustards and floricans are adapted to this condition.

8. Which of the following consist of patches on hill slopes?
a) The shola grassland
b) Desert
c) Himalayan region
d) Deccan pasture land
Answer: a
Clarification: The shola grasslands consist of patches on hill slopes that occur alongside the shola forests on the Western Ghats and the Anamalai ranges. These form patchworks of grassland on the slopes and forest habitats along the streams.

9. Which ecosystem are the grazing areas of many rural communities?
a) Tropical evergreen
b) Tropical deciduous
c) Grassland
d) Desert
Answer: c
Clarification: Farmers who keep cattle or goats and shepherds are highly dependent on grasslands to supply food for their livestock. Many rural people use grassland for grazing purpose. The grass is also to thatch houses and farm-sheds.

10. What is stored to feed cattle if there is no grass during summer to cattle?
a) Vegetables
b) Chemical manures
c) Fodder
d) Water
Answer: c
Clarification: Grassland is used to graze cattle. Fodder is collected and stored to feed cattle when there is no grass left for them to graze in summer. Sometimes grassland ecosystem won’t give healthy grass due to climatic changes.

11. How grassland converted into flat stubs?
a) By over grazing
b) By less grazing
c) By climatic changes
d) By less water
Answer: a
Clarification: When animals over graze, the grasses are converted into flat stubs with very little green matter left in the land. Degraded grasslands have fewer grass species as the nutritious species which are used by the large number of domestic animals.

12. How many percent of grassland covered in terms of permanent pastures in India?
a) 2.7%
b) 3.7%
c) 4.7%
d) 5.5%
Answer: b
Clarification: According to 2002 report given by the ‘Food and Agriculture Organization’, the grassland cover in the country, in terms of permanent pastures is only 3.7% of the total land which includes all types of ecosystem.

13. Why rotational grazing pattern established?
a) To preserve grassland ecosystem
b) To destroy grassland ecosystem
c) To graze in the tropical rain forests
d) To grow grass in grassland ecosystem
Answer: a
Clarification: In order to close a part of the grassland in an area every year, the rotational grazing pattern is established. Grasslands should be over grazed and some areas should be closed for grazing the live stock.

14. Human activities such as fires affect grassland adversely.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: When fires are lit in the grasslands in summer, the burnt grass gets a fresh flush of small green shoots which the domestic animals graze on. In this is done too frequently, the grassland begins to deteriorate and grassland becomes bare.

To practice basic questions and answers on all areas of Energy Management,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Noise Pollution and its Effects”.

1. What is noise?
a) Desirable sound
b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound
d) Undesirable and wanted sound
Answer: c
Clarification: Noise is defined as an undesirable and unwanted sound. Noise pollution affects human health and can contribute o a general deterioration of environmental quality. Several sources of noise pollution contribute to both indoor and outdoor noise pollution.

2. In which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer
b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel
Answer: d
Clarification: Noise pollution is measured in terms of decibel (dB). This parameter depends on the various environmental conditions. If the decibel level increased than the threshold it causes problems to humans and other organisms.

3. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) Soil pollution
Answer: b
Clarification: Noise pollution can cause various health impacts on humans and other organisms. This health impacts leads to various issues like reduced in the mental health, hearing loss either temporary or permanent, loss in efficiency and many more.

4. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100
Answer: a
Clarification: Decibel of the threshold of hearing is 0, for the rustle of leaves the dB is 10, for broadcasting studio dB is 20 and for Bedroom at night the dB is 30. This dB various based on the noise and the environmental conditions.

5. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
a) 100
b) 110
c) 120
d) 146
Answer: d
Clarification: Threshold of pain is described as the maximum level in which one can sustain the noise after this the noise and cause several health related issues and it even damage the hearing capacity permanently or temporarily.

6. All sound is noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Not all sound is noise. Sound is the voice below of the threshold of pain where organisms can listen to the voice without any struggle. But noise is the disturbance that arises in the sound and cause problems to organisms.

7. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 146
d) 150
Answer: d
Clarification: Instantaneous rapture of the membrane occurs at the decibel of 150. Threshold of pain is caused at the decibel of 146. If the noise level increased to 150 decibels than within no time there will be an instantaneous rupture of membrane occurs.

8. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB
b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB
d) 55 dB
Answer: b
Clarification: The ambient noise level in residential zone during night period is 45 dB. During day time the ambient noise levels in the residential area are 55 dB. Ambient noise levels are different for commercial zone and industrial zones.

9. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain
b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift
d) Temporary hearing shift
Answer: c
Clarification: Temporary hearing loss is often called a ‘temporary threshold shift’. People suffering from this condition are unable to detect weak sounds. If a person got this problem, hearing ability is usually recovered within a month of exposure.

10. What is the permissible noise limit of 120 db?
a) 30 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 1 minute
d) 30 seconds
Answer: d
Clarification: One can hear 120 db for a duration of 30 seconds. For 30 seconds the permissible noise limits is 120 db. If someone hear more than this duration there are high chances of hearing loss and other mental health issues.

11. At what level a sound becomes physical pain?
a) Above 50 dB
b) Above 70 dB
c) Above 80 dB
d) Above 100 dB
Answer: c
Clarification: Sound is measured in terms of decibels (db). World Health Organization prescribed optimum noise level as 45 db during day time and 35 db during night time. Anything above 80 db is hazardous.

12. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery
b) Transportation equipment
c) Loud noise
d) Music
Answer: d
Clarification: Among the above options music is the only sound which pleasant our ears rest of the sounds cause irritation by its unpleasant noise and cause damage to the hearing permanently or temporarily.

13. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals dependent on_______________
a) Noise
b) Sound
c) Actions
d) Behavior
Answer: b
Clarification: Animals develop a better sense of hearing than us since their survival depends on it. Wildlife faces far more problems than humans because wildlife depends on sound to protect themselves from enemies more than humans.

14. The degree of hearing loss depends on the duration as well as the intensity of the noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: For example, one hour of exposure to a 100 db sound level can produce a temporary threshold shift that may last for about one day. In factories workers subjected to high sounds for several hours in a day. It will cause hearing loss and other mental issues.