Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Energy and Environment Management written test Questions & Answers on “Convention on Biological Diversity, India as a Mega Diversity Nation”.

1. How many main goals are there in the Convention on Biological Diversity?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) has three main goals including the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

2. In which year the Convention on Biological Diversity signed?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: The Convention on Biological Diversity signed on 5 June 1992. It was signed in Rio de Janeiro. As of now there are 196 parties and 168 signatories are there. Secretary General of the United Nations is the depositary.

3. Where did the 10th Conference of Parties (COP) which happened to the Convention on Biological Diversity take place?
a) India
b) China
c) Russia
d) Japan
Answer: d
Clarification: Though the Convention on Biodiversity signed in 1992, it entered into force on 29 December 1993. In 2010, the 10th Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity in October in Nagoya, Japan.

4. Which one of the following where the Convention on Biological Diversity dealt with?
a) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with the Contracting party
b) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with the enemy nation
c) Sharing the results of research of genetic resource with who offer high price
d) Never share the results of research of genetic resource
Answer: a
Clarification: The Convention on Biological Diversity dealt with the issue of sharing the results of research and development from the commercial of genetic resources with the Contracting Party providing such resources.

5. When did the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety adopted?
a) January 2000
b) March 2000
c) September 2000
d) December 2000
Answer: a
Clarification: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety which is also known as the Biosafety Protocol was adopted in January 2000. The Biosafety Protocol clearly said that products from new technologies must be based on the precautionary principle.

6. The first ordinary meeting of the parties of Convention on Biological Diversity took place in the year 1994. (COP).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The first ordinary meeting of the parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity took place in the months of November and December 1994, in Nassau, Bahamas. It is known as 1994 Conference of the parties (COP).

7. When did the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resource adopted?
a) 19 June 2010
b) 23 July 2010
c) 29 0ctober 2010
d) 31 December 2010
Answer: c
Clarification: The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. It entered into force on 12 October2014. Its objective is the equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.

8. Which event provided conditions for high levels of biological diversity in India?
a) Biological events in the atmosphere
b) Geological events in the rivers
c) Biological events in the rivers
d) Geological events in the landmass
Answer: d
Clarification: Geological events in the landmass have provided conditions for high levels of biological diversity in India. A split in the single continent around 70 million years ago led to the formation of northern and southern continents, with India as part of Gondwanaland along with other continents.

9. How can we say India as one of the bio-rich nations?
a) Because of its great variety of plants and animals
b) Because of its low variety of planets and animals
c) Because of the more population of humans
d) Because of more pollution
Answer: a
Clarification: India is one of the top countries in the bio-richness. This is because for its great variety of plants and animals. Many of the plants and animals are not found elsewhere. It is estimated that the number of unknown species found in India could be several times higher.

10. Into how many terms Whittaker described for measuring biodiversity over spatial scales?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: In 1972, Whittaker described three terms for measuring biodiversity over spatial scales. The three terms are alpha, beta, and gamma diversity. Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area.

11. Who introduced the term hotspot of diversity?
a) Darwin
b) McLean
c) Mike Housie
d) Myers
Answer: d
Clarification: In the year 1988, Myers introduced the term hotspot of biodiversity. Hotspots of biodiversity are areas which exhibit high species richness as well as high species endemism. To qualify as a hotspot a region must contain at least 1500 species of vascular plants and it should lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat.

12. How many mega diverse countries are there in the world?
a) 11
b) 17
c) 25
d) 34
Answer: b
Clarification: In 1998, Conservation International identified 17 mega diverse countries. The term mega diverse country refers to any one of the group of nations that contains the majority of Earth’s species and high number of endemic species.

13. India is one of the mega diverse countries among 17 nations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: India is one of the mega diverse countries. India contains majority of Earth’s species and high numbers of endemic species. India has the great variety of ecological conditions prevailing. India vast diversity helps it to become a mega diverse nation.

14. How many percent of the world’s species found in India?
a) Around 7.8%
b) Around 10.5%
c) Around 12.4%
d) Around 15.7%
Answer: a
Clarification: Biodiversity is not distributed evenly across the globe. India is one of country where biodiversity is not distributed evenly. India is a mega diverse country has only 2.4% of the land area of the worlds, but accounts around 7.8% of the species of the world.

To practice all written questions on Energy and Environment Management,

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Food Security”.

1. When did the word food security came into exist?
a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
Answer: c
Clarification: At 1974 ‘World Food Conference’ held at Rome the term food security came into existence. It was defined with an emphasis a supply. Food security is defined as an availability at the times of adequate world food supplies of basic food stuffs to sustain a steady expansion of food.

2. Coping Strategies Index is related to_______________
a) Financial statement
b) Food security measurement
c) Banking sector
d) Sales
Answer: b
Clarification: Coping Strategies Index(CSI) assesses household behavior based on a set of varied established behaviors on how households cope with food shortages. CSI was developed in Uganda, Ghana and Kenya but has now been used for early warning and food security monitoring and assessment.

3. MSP stands for_________________
a) Maximum support price
b) Minimum support price
c) Marginal support price
d) Main support price
Answer: b
Clarification: Minimum support price is the price at which government purchase crops from the farmers, whatever may be the price for the crops. MSP helps to incentivize the farmers and thus ensures adequate food grains production in the country.

4. Annapurna scheme provide food requirements of____________
a) Children
b) Women
c) Senior citizens
d) Students
Answer: c
Clarification: Annapurna scheme aims at providing food security to meet the requirement for senior citizens. The Annapurna scheme has been launched with effect from 1st of April in the year 2000 to provide food to senior citizens.

5. The official document entitling the holder to a ration of food issued by the government of India is known as____________
a) Ration card
b) Food card
c) Health card
d) Insurance card
Answer: a
Clarification: Ration card is primarily used when purchasing subsidized food stuffs. This ration card has been used since second world war. India is public distribution system is based on the ration card. This ration card is used to establish identity, eligibility and entitlement.

6. The color of Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme card is______________
a) Pink
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Yellow
Answer: d
Clarification: Antyodaya Anna Yojana is a government of India sponsored scheme to provide highly subsidized food to millions of the poorest families. Antyodaya ration card also called by the name PDS yellow card because of it’s yellow color.

7. In which state ration shops are run by co-operatives in large extend?
a) Assam
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Goa
Answer: c
Clarification: Out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by the co-operatives. The co-operatives are playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country.

8. For grain banks in different regions which society is established?
a) Academy of Development Science
b) Kissan
c) Amul
d) Food research center
Answer: a
Clarification: Academy of Development Science (ADS) has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks in different regions. Because of ADS grain banks are slowly taking shape in different parts of Maharashtra and in the borders of Karnataka.

9. Where can we find seasonal hunger?
a) Urban
b) Metro cities
c) Forest
d) Rural areas
Answer: d
Clarification: Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agriculture activities. It occurs in a community or society at only certain times of the year.

10. Buffer stock scheme purpose is______________
a) To save food grains from pest attack
b) To stop price fluctuations
c) To transport the food
d) To deliver the food
Answer: b
Clarification: A buffer stock scheme is an attempt to use commodity storage for the purpose of stabilizing prices in an entire economy. For example, the United States ‘Strategic Petroleum Reserve’ stores 727 million barrels of crude petroleum, which is sold during shortages.

11. Goats are the solution to global food security.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Goats are an important part of the solution to global food security because they are fairly low maintenance and easy to raise and farm when compare to other animals. The trinomial name of goat is ‘Capraaegagrus hircus’. Female goats referred as ‘does’.

12. How many pillars are there in food security according to WHO?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: According to WHO there are three pillars that determine food security. They are food availability, food access and food use. In addition to WHO, the world summit on food security stated that there are four pillars namely food availability, food access, food utilization and food stabiltity.

13. In which state of India Amul headquarter situated?
a) Kerala
b) Bihar
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
Answer: c
Clarification: Amul is an Indian dairy co-operative based at Anand in the state of Gujarat. It is founded in 1946 by Tribhuvandas Patel. Amul abbreviation stands for Anand Milk Union Limited. Amul created India’s white revolution.

14. F.C.I stands for__________________
a) Food Center of India
b) Food Center of Investigation
c) Food Complex of Integrity
d) Food Corporation of India
Answer: d
Clarification: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was setup under ‘Food Corporation Act 1964’. It established in order to fulfill the objectives of the food policy. Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management oriented food security into a stable system.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Aquatic Ecosystems”.

1. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: There are two important aquatic ecosystems are there. One is fresh water ecosystem and one more is marine ecosystem. Again these two ecosystems are further divided into various categories. Marine includes sea whereas fresh water includes lakes, rivers and wetlands.

2. Where plants and animals live in aquatic ecosystems?
a) Water
b) Land
c) Air
d) Fire
Answer: a
Clarification: In aquatic ecosystems, plants and animals live in water. These species which are live in water adapted themselves for a different type of aquatic habitats. From breeding to all mechanisms take place inside the water only.

3. What made organisms to build their ecosystem in quatic?
a) Curiosity
b) Evolution
c) Force from other organisms
d) Increase in water level
Answer: b
Clarification: According to scientists Earth’s first cellular life arose primordial in oceans. Later as evolution takes place many animals from aquatic ecosystem came to land and adopt themselves to live in the condition of land.

4. Where can we find both running water as well as stagnant water?
a) Marine ecosystems
b) Wetlands
c) Coral reefs
d) Freshwater ecosystems
Answer: d
Clarification: The freshwater ecosystems that have running water as streams and rivers. Ponds, tanks and lakes are ecosystems where water doesn’t flow. So in freshwater we can find both running water as well as stagnant water.

5. In which of the following we can see fluctuation in the water level dramatically in different season?
a) Coral reefs
b) Brackish water
c) Wetlands
d) Deep oceans
Answer: c
Clarification: Wetlands are special ecosystems in which the water level fluctuates dramatically in different seasons. They have expanses of shallow water with aquatic vegetation form an ideal habitat for fish and water birds.

6. Sea is salty.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Water flows down rivers and streams from mountains and usually there is no outflows from seas and oceans. Thus all the minerals and salts that are collected as water travels down rivers and lakes are collected in sea. Hence sea is salty.

7. Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?
a) Desert
b) Forest
c) Grassland
d) Oceans
Answer: d
Clarification: Ocean is the largest ecosystem on Earth. When we see the Earth from space we can only see blue color. That is due to water, seventy percent of Earth’s surface is covered by water, Water is vital for the survival of all living things.

8. Where can we see coral reefs?
a) In pond
b) In desert
c) In shallow trophical seas
d) In dense tropical forest
Answer: c
Clarification: Coral reefs come under Marine ecosystems. Marine ecosystems are highly saline water. Coral reefs are very rich in species and are found only in shallow trophical seas. The coral reefs in India are around the Andaman and Nicobar islands and found in the Gulf of Kutch.

9. Which of the following is among the world’s most productive ecosystems in terms of biomass production?
a) Pond ecosystems
b) Lake ecosystems
c) Brackish water ecosystems
d) River ecosystems
Answer: c
Clarification: Brackish water ecosystems in river deltas are covered by mangrove forests and are among the world’s most productive ecosystems in biomass production. Sunderbans in a delta of Ganges river is one of the example.

10. Which is the simplest aquatic ecosystem?
a) Pond
b) Stream
c) Lake
d) Marine
Answer: a
Clarification: Pond is the simplest aquatic ecosystems. Most ponds become dry after the rain over and are covered by terrestrial plants for the rest of the year. When the ponds fills in the monsoon season, a large number of food chains formed in the pond ecosystems.

11. Which ecosystem is known as giant permanent pond?
a) Lake ecosystem
b) Pond ecosystem
c) Seashore ecosystem
d) Marine ecosystem
Answer: a
Clarification: A lake ecosystem functions like a giant permanent pond. A large amount of its plant material is algae. Algae derives its energy directly from sun, this energy is transferred to microscopic animals which feeds on algae.

12. How many oceans constitute the marine ecosystems around peninsular India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal constitute the marine ecosystems around peninsular India. In the coastal areas, the sea is shallow while further away it is deep. Peninsular shape helps India to protect from neighboring countries.

13. Beach is classified into which ecosystem?
a) Lake ecosystem
b) Seashore ecosystem
c) Pond ecosystem
d) River ecosystem
Answer: b
Clarification: Beaches can be sandy, rocky, shell covered. On each of these different types several species have evolved to occupy a separate them. There is a presence of crustaceans as crabs that make holes in the sand.

14. Humans are dependent on aquatic ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Humans use aquatic ecosystems for clean freshwater on which human life depends. Water is usually impounded by large dams to ensure supply throughout the year. Agriculture and industry are highly dependent on water.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Legal Acts of Noise Pollution”.

1. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2007
Answer: a
Clarification: The Noise Pollution Rules established in 2000. They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the official gazette. In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires, ‘Act’, ‘Area’, ‘Authority’, ‘Person’ and ‘State Government’.

2. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am
b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am
d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
Answer: d
Clarification: A loud speaker or a public address system shall not be used between 10:00 pm to 6:00 am, except in closed premises or communication within auditoria, conference rooms, community halls and banquet halls, etc.

3. When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
Answer: a
Clarification: A person can complaint to the authority if the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 10 dB or more given in the corresponding columns against any area, make a complaint to the authority.

4. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
Answer: b
Clarification: Silence zone is defined as an area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals, education institutes and courts. The silence zones are zones which are declared as such by the competent authority.

5. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930
b) 1947
c) 1948
d) 1956
Answer: c
Clarification: The Factories Act is constituted in 1948 in India. Section 11 (1) of the Act stipulates that every factory shall be kept clean, without having any nuisance. The word nuisance may include noise and thus it regulates the workers safety.

6. The State Government shall take measures for abatement of noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The State Government shall take measures for abatement of noise including noise emanating from vehicular movements and ensures that the existing noise levels do not exceed the ambient air quality standards.

7. Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires
b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Answer: d
Clarification: A draft of Noise Pollution Rules was published under the notification of the Government of India in 1999 under the Ministry of Environment and Forests vide number S.O. 528 (E). This Act maintaining noise pollution.

8. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983
b) 1984
c) 1988
d) 1990
Answer: c
Clarification: The Motor Vehicles Act through various sections empowers a state government to frame rules for the upkeep of motor vehicles and control of noise produced by them. Strong implementation of this Act will reduce the noise pollution efficiently.

9. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is__________________
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas
Answer: d
Clarification: The Aircrafts Act has many provisions but none for the control of noise. In this regard it is suggested that aerodromes be constructed far away from the residential areas of a city in order to protect residents from the noise of aircrafts.

10. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12
b) Section 15
c) Section 18
d) Section 19
Answer: b
Clarification: Any person who violating the noise pollution rules will be liable for penalty under the Act. Section 15 of the Act provides that any person contravening the provisions of the Act be punishable with imprisonment or fine.

11. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70
b) 75
c) 77
d) 80
Answer: d
Clarification: Decibel (db) is the unit of noise. There are different noise limits for vehicles as well depending upon the capacity of their engines. 80 db is the standard noise limit which has been accepted by Government of India for heavy vehicles.

12. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db
b) 80 db
c) 85 db
d) 100 db
Answer: a
Clarification: Ambient air quality standards in respect to noise various from one zone to another and it also various for day time and also for night time. The ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time are 75 db and during night it is 70 db.

13. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974
b) 1981
c) 1988
d) 1994
Answer: b
Clarification: Noise though not defined in any statute but it is included as environmental pollutants in Section (a) of the Air Act 1981. After this included noise is recognized as a kind of air pollution and steps are taken to control it efficiently.

14. Loud speakers cause noise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Extensive use of loud speakers whether for political meetings, religious functions, marriages, musical nights, etc are most disturbing source of noise to the urban dwellers in particular and strong action must be take regarding this.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Greenhouse Effects”.

1. When do greenhouse gases cause global warming?
a) When their concentration is enhanced
b) When their concentration is decreased
c) When there are no greenhouse gases
d) When greenhouse gas released in balance way
Answer: a
Clarification: Greenhouse gases cause global warming which in the long run threatens the existence of life on Earth. This is the case only when their concentration is enhanced, but these gases are also essential to survive on this planet.

2. How much percent of energy is absorbs from the Sun to Earth?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
Answer: b
Clarification: When the Earth receives energy from the Sun, the surface of the Earth only absorbs 50% of it. The radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is radiated again in all direction some radiated towards space and radiated back to the surface of the Earth.

3. What is called for the phenomenon when the radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is re-radiated towards the surface of the Earth?
a) Smog
b) Newton effect
c) Darwin effect
d) Greenhouse effect
Answer: d
Clarification: Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon that helps in keeping the temperature at the surface warm and balanced, which is suitable for all organisms. Because of greenhouse gas, the radiations are re-radiated.

4. Which of the following result obtain due to cutting down of trees?
a) Providing more fresh oxygen
b) Providing more pure water
c) Cause greenhouse effect
d) Cause increase in the rain
Answer: c
Clarification: Forest which plays an important role in maintaining the balance of nature by absorbing the excess carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere. Cutting down of trees increase in carbon dioxide level, eventually, cause greenhouse effect.

5. Which is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: b
Clarification: Water vapor is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas. It constituting around 35-70% of all the gases contributing to greenhouse effect. Increase in temperature results in a relatively high presence of water vapor in the atmosphere.

6. Population growth indirectly contributes for greenhouse effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Population growth is an indirect contributor and one of the major causes of the greenhouse effect. Due to increase in population there is an increase in deforestation and increasing in industrial processes. This results in the increase of greenhouse gas which thereby causes greenhouse effect.

7. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Ethane
Answer: d
Clarification: Ethane is not a greenhouse gas among the above options. Water vapor is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas with consti9tute around 35-70%, carbon dioxide constitutes around 9-26% and methane constitute around 4-9%.

8. When did greenhouse effect discovered?
a) 1814
b) 1824
c) 1854
d) 1884
Answer: c
Clarification: The greenhouse effect was first discovered by Joseph Fourier in 1924. The greenhouse effect is a natural process that is thousands of years old. Apart from Joseph Fourier it is experimentally verified by John Tyndall in 1861 and quantified in the year 1894 BY Svante Arrhenius.

9. Why the temperature inside the car is much warmer than the outside temperature when the car that has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours?
a) Due to air pollution
b) Due to smog
c) Due to sudden climate change
d) Due to greenhouse effect
Answer: d
Clarification: When we opened we open the door of a car that has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours, we notice that the temperature inside the car is much warmer than outside. This is due to greenhouse effect.

10. Taking the example of a car parked in the sun for a few hours, which of the following action takes place?
a) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into heat
b) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into electricity
c) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is completely absorbed by the car
d) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into wind energy
Answer: a
Clarification: The windows of the car allow the sunlight to enter into the car. This light is then partially converted into heat. However, these same windows do not allow the heat inside the car to pass through as easily as light.

11. For greenhouse effect greenhouse gases interacts with which one of the following options?
a) Wind’s energy
b) Sun’s energy
c) Atmosphere pressure
d) Pollution in the atmosphere
Answer: b
Clarification: The greenhouse effect is caused due to the interaction of the sun’s energy with greenhouse gases such as methane, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide and fluorinated gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. The greenhouse effect increases the temperature of the Earth.

12. Which is the main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect?
a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: a
Clarification: The main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect is water vapor. Water vapor is a highly active component of the climate system that responds rapidly to changes in conditions. Thus the impact of the greenhouse effect is primarily circulated through water vapor and it acts as a fast feedback.

13. Greenhouse is made up of_______________
a) Bricks
b) Glass
c) Steel
d) Copper
Answer: b
Clarification: A greenhouse is a house that is made up of glass. It has many doors and roof which are made up of glass. A greenhouse remains warm during the winter. It is used by the people in colder regions where it is difficult to grow plants under extreme cold temperature.

14. Greenhouse effect occurs to bodies other than Earth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The greenhouse effect on Titan has an anti-greenhouse effect. The greenhouse effect on Venus is large because its dense atmosphere consists mainly of carbon dioxide. Because of the evaporation of nitrogen, Pluto is colder than expected.

Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers for Entrance exams on “Endemic and Endangered Species of India”.

1. In terms of the number of threatened mammals, what is India’s rank in the world?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: d
Clarification: In India there are 410 species of mammals. Which are spread over 13 orders out of which nearly 89 species are listed as threatened in the International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources Red List of Threatened Animals. Indonesia stands in first place with 185 threatened mammal species.

2. Which is the only surviving member used to be considered of an amphibian family called the Nasikabatrachidae until 2006?
a) Indian yellow frog
b) Indian white frog
c) Indian green frog
d) Indian purple frog
Answer: d
Clarification: The Indian purple frog used to be considered as the only surviving member of an ancient amphibian family called the Nasikabatrachidae until 2006. In 2006, this family was incorporated into the Sooglossidae.

3. Which one of the following endemic species of tarantula found only in a small area in India?
a) Gooty tarantula
b) Cobalt blue tarantula
c) Pink toe tarantula
d) Chilean rose tarantula
Answer: a
Clarification: Gooty tarantula is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 square kilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.

4. In which part of India we can found fan-throated lizard?
a) Northern India
b) Western India
c) Southern India
d) Eastern India
Answer: c
Clarification: The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in Southern India. One of the specialties of male fan-throated lizard is dewlap which is used to woo a would-be partner by puffing it into a fan.

5. Which is the only representative of artiodactyls mammals Porcula?
a) Pygmy hog
b) Red river hog
c) Giant forest hog
d) Bearded hog
Answer: a
Clarification: The pygmy hog is the sole representative of Porcula. This conservation of endangered species is important because its extinction would result in the loss of a unique evolutionary branch of pigs. Presently there are only found in Assam with less than 150 individuals.

6. There is no difference between endangered and endemic species.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: There are differences between endangered and endemic species. Endangered species are that thought to be in danger of extinction, implying that there are so few remaining of their kind. Endemic species are plants and creatures that exist just in one geographic area.

7. In which tiger reserve we can find more number of brown palm civet animals?
a) Periyar tiger reserve
b) Sunderban tiger reserve
c) Jim Corbett tiger reserve
d) Kalakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
Answer: d
Clarification: Brown palm civet is one of the endemic species of India. Brown palm civets are nocturnal and solitary. It is endemic to the rain forests of the Western Ghats in South India, mostly appear in Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

8. Which of the following was listed as one of the vulnerable species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature?
a) Elephants
b) The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros
c) Pink-headed duck
d) Sumatran Rhinoceros
Answer: b
Clarification: A Vulnerable species is a species of animals or plants which are likely to become endangered unless something changes. The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros are listed as one of the vulnerable species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature. Poaching of horns is an important reason for the decline in the number.

9. Which is the state animal of Tamil Nadu which is also one of the most endangered species in India?
a) Blackbuck
b) Indian elephant
c) Nilgiri tahr
d) Indian giant squirrel
Answer: c
Clarification: The Nilgiri tahr is one of the endangered species in India. It has a stocky coat with a bristly mane, curved horns and short fur. It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Continuous poaching activities and Eucalyptus cultivation are the reasons for its decrease in the numbers.

10. Which one of the following is the national animal for two countries and also the endangered species of India?
a) Fennec fox
b) Baird’s tapir
c) Bengal tiger
d) Komodo dragon
Answer: c
Clarification: Bengal tiger is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh. Bengal tigers are fast vanishing due to human interference and poaching cases. Because of this it is one of the most endangered species found in India.

11. Which state in India is the home to a large population of one of the endangered species in India Asiatic Lion?
a) Karnataka
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Gujarat
Answer: d
Clarification: Gujarat in India is home to a large population of Asiatic Lion. As per the facts presented by World Wildlife fund, the Asiatic Lion can be only found in India. The Asiatic Lions are renowned as the second largest feline species in the world after the tigers.

12. Who discovered a critically endangered species of tarantula Rameshwaram parachute spider?
a) James Scottish
b) Andrew Smith
c) Nicholas Anderson
d) Leonardo Thomson
Answer: b
Clarification: Rameshwaram parachute spider was discovered by Andrew Smith in 2004 from a sacred grove in Rameshwaram. It was named after the Indian island of Rameshwaram. It is a critically endangered species of tarantula.

13. Blackbuck is one of the endangered species found in India.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Various activities like hunting, poaching, and overgrazing and habitat destruction have led to a drastic downfall in the blackbuck population. One more important reason for immensely decreasing in blackbuck population is the large-scale conversion of their habitats into agriculture fields. Because of these many reason blackbuck is one of the endangered species found in India.

Energy and Environment Management for Entrance exams,