250+ TOP MCQs on Mineral Resources of India and Answers

Energy Management Questions & Answers for Exams on “Mineral Resources of India”.

1. Which Indian state is the largest producer of gold?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
Answer: a
Clarification: Karnataka is the largest producer of gold in India. The Kolar Gold Fields which is located in Kolar which was one of the largest producers of gold in India was shut down. Presently there are two main gold mines located in Karnataka they are Hutti and Raichur gold mines which produce almost 84% of India’s gold.

2. For the policy level guidelines for mineral sector, which policy is formed?
a) National Resources Policy
b) National Mineral Policy
c) National Regulation Policy
d) National Legislation Policy
Answer: b
Clarification: National Mineral Policy was started in 1993. The main aim of this policy is liberalization of the mining sector and to encouraging the flow of investment especially in private investment and mining. In the 2008 reform it address in the areas of mining sector.

3. According to 2012 survey India is the largest producer of _____________
a) Iron ore
b) Bauxite
c) Sheet mica
d) Manganese ore
Answer: c
Clarification: The largest producer of sheet mica is India. India is the third largest producer of iron ore. India is the fifth largest producer of bauxite in the world. India is the seventh largest producer of manganese ore in the world.

4. India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: India is the largest producer and exporter of mica. India accounts for almost 60% of the net mica production in the whole world. India export mica to many countries like Japan, United States of America, United Kingdom and many more countries.

5. Which state in India is the largest producer of diamond ores?
a) Karnataka
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: d
Clarification: Madhya Pradesh is the only state in India which produce diamond. The unit used to measure diamond is Carats. Diamond is classified under non-metallic mineral. The largest project of diamond in India is the Bunder project which is located in Madhya Pradesh.

6. The copper production in India to that of world’s production is about_________%
a) 10%
b) 2%
c) 0.5%
d) 0.2%
Answer: d
Clarification: Copper production in India is just about 0.2% in the world. But still, in the production rate it is still within the top 20 countries in the world. Copper mining production is about 0.2% but refined copper production is 4% of word’s production.

7. The state which is having largest deposit of thorium in India is_________
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Jharkhand
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: d
Clarification: In India thorium is located in a contiguous belt of eastern coastal states. Andhra Pradesh accounts 31% of total thorium occurrence, whereas Tamil Nadu has 21%, Kerala has 16%, and Jharkhand has 2% of total thorium occurrence in India.

8. Which state is largest producer of chromite ore in India?
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Orissa
Answer: d
Clarification: India accounts 18% of the world’s chromite resources. In India largest resources of chromite is found in the Orissa state. Orissa has above 95% of the total chromite ore resource found in India. Karnataka is the second largest producer of chromite in India.

9. The term ‘Rat hole mining’ is used in which mining?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Coal
d) Copper
Answer: c
Clarification: Rat hole mining is used in coal mining because of the sizes of holes. This type of mining is carried out in the state Meghalaya. In this type, mining is done by digging small holes into the ground like holes dug by rats. This type of mining is generally done illegal.

10. The position of India in terms of production of Aluminium is________
a) 4th
b) 3rd
c) 2nd
d) 1st
Answer: a
Clarification: India stands 4th position in the aluminium production in the world. China stands 1st position in the aluminium production in the world. Russia in 2nd place. Canada stands in 3rd place. The aluminium production in India is around 2750 tonnes.

11. Steel is a mineral.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: No, Steel is not a mineral. Minerals are the naturally occurring substances which are usually solid or inorganic which is obtained from mining. But steel is an alloy of iron and other elements and steel don’t exist in natural rock.

12. Kudremukh hills which is known for iron ore deposit is situated in ____________
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Goa
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b
Clarification: Kudremukh which is known as an iron ore mining town is located in Chikkamagaluru district in Karnataka state. The government runs an iron ore company known as Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd(KIOCL).

To practice all exam questions on Energy Management,

250+ TOP MCQs on Food Chains and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Food Chains”.

1. What is a food chain?
a) A long chain made of food
b) Process of preparing food
c) Food where locked by chain
d) Pathway that energy and nutrients flow through the ecosystem

Answer: d
Clarification: Energy living organisms need food to get energy and thus to survive. The food chain describes who eats whom in the wild. Different habitats and ecosystems provide many possible food chains that make up a food web.

2. Why organisms in food chains are grouped into categories?
a) To form community
b) To share the energy
c) To form trophic levels
d) To get more energy

Answer: c
Clarification: Trophic levels are the levels within the food chain where an organism obtains its energy. This energy depends on whether the organism is producers, consumers or decomposers. The number of trophic levels in food chains varies from three to five.

3. What role human plays in food chains?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Humans do not involve in food chains
d) Decomposers

Answer: b
Clarification: Humans are consumers in the food chain. Humans depend on other organisms or plants for energy and they can’t generate own energy. Humans eat both plants and animals. Humans can be classified into both primary and secondary consumers based on food chain.

4. Why do all food chains start with plants?
a) Because plants are easily grown
b) Because plants are nutritious
c) Because plants can produce its own energy
d) Because plants do not require energy

Answer: c
Clarification: The whole food chain depends on the producers. Plants are the only producers. The plants are autotrophs, as they produce their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Food is the source of energy in living being, thus plants are required to start food chains.

5. How many types of ecological models are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: b
Clarification: There are two major types of ecological models which are used they are, analytic models and computational models. Analytic models are simple systems where computational models use numerical techniques to solve problems.

6. Food chains are often used in ecological modeling.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Ecological model is a mathematical representation of an ecological system includes individual population and ecological community which are studied to better understand the real system. Ecosystem models provide a description of climate and stand metrics.

7. Which of the following food chain correctly describes the flow of energy in an ecosystem?
a) Grass->lion->human
b) Cow->grass->lion
c) Grass->goat->human
d) Leaf->bird->lizard

Answer: c
Clarification: Usually energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level. In the above answer, grass is the lowest trophic level and it is a producer. Goat eats grass to get energy. Goat is a primary consumer. Human eat goat for energy and human belongs to the secondary consumer.

8. If there is a shortage of deer in forest, what tiger might do?
a) Eat grassland leaves
b) Die due to starvation
c) Hunt for other animals
d) Fasting until they find deer

Answer: c
Clarification: In any food chain, one particular animal do not depend on another particular animal. Consumers depend on the producers for energy but that producer may not be particular for consumers all the time.

9. In the food relationship, where the tiger eats the deer and the deer eats plants. Which of the following conditions is true?
a) The tiger is the prey
b) The tiger is the primary consumer
c) The deer is the predator
d) The deer is the prey

Answer: d
Clarification: In the above relationship of food chain of the tiger and deer, the tiger is the predator and the deer is the prey. In other words, the tiger is the secondary consumer and the deer is the primary consumer.

10. Which of the following condition is true about food chain?
a) Provide more energy for next trophic level
b) Provides food for succeeding organisms
c) Consume energy from next trophic level
d) Do not pass energy to next trophic level

Answer: b
Clarification: In a food chain, the organisms provide food for succeeding organisms irrespective whether they are producers or consumers. Plants which are producer gives energy to the primary consumers like deer and this deer gives energy to secondary consumer say carnivores.

11. Carrot->rabbit->fox is an example of_______________________
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food cycle
d) Food round

Answer: b
Clarification: Food chain is a linear sequence of links in a food web starting from producers to apex predators. In the above example carrot is a producer. Rabbit is primary consumer which eats producer and fox is secondary consumer which eats primary consumer.

12. Which of the following factor diminishing as food chain proceeds?
a) Pressure
b) Energy
c) Nutrition
d) Temperature

Answer: b
Clarification: During the transfer of energy of organic food from one trophic level to the next, only about 10% of the energy from organic matter is stored as flesh. The remaining is lost during transfer, broken down in respiration or due to incomplete digestion by higher trophic levels.

13. Which of the following organisms begins marine food chains?
a) Phytoplankton
b) Fishes
c) Zooplankton
d) Corals

Answer: a
Clarification: Marine food chain begins with phytoplankton. Phytoplankton is microscopic marine algae. Phytoplankton provides the foundation of the sea’s food chain in a balanced system. This phytoplankton captures the sun’s energy through photosynthesis.

14. We can find a marine ecosystem on a beach shore.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Marine ecosystems are distinguished from freshwater ecosystem by the presence of dissolved compounds like salts. A beach shore is subject to the actions of the tide which is covered by salty sea water. Shores are considered intertidal zones of the marine ecosystem.

250+ TOP MCQs on The State of India’s Rivers and Answers

Environment Management Problems on “The State of India’s Rivers”.

1. How many percentage of pollution accounts by sewage and municipal effluents?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Answer: c
Clarification: Scientifically competent studies conducted by the CPCB says that sewage and municipal effluents accounts for 75% of the pollution load in rivers while the remaining 25% is from industrial effluents and non-point pollution sources.

2. When did India launched the Ganga Action plan (GAP)?
a) In 1983
b) In 1984
c) In 1985
d) In 1986
Answer: c
Clarification: In 1985, India launched the Ganga Action plan, the largest ever river cleanup operation in the country. GAP Phase-2 was launched in 1991 included cleaning operations for the tributaries of Ganga, the Yamuna, Gomati and Damodar.

3. What is the full form of NRCP?
a) National Railway Corporation Pipeline
b) National Rivers Cleaning Phase
c) National Roads Cleaning Phase
d) National River Conservation Plan
Answer: d
Clarification: National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) was launched in 1995. Under this plan all the rivers in India were taken up for cleanup operations. In most of these plans, attempts have been made to tap drains and divert sewage to treatment plants, before letting them out into rivers.

4. How many rivers do the National River Conservation Plan covered?
a) 13
b) 15
c) 16
d) 18
Answer: d
Clarification: National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) covers 18 rivers in 10 states including 46 towns. The cost is bore entirely by the Central Government and the Ministry of Environment and Forests. The main activities of the plan are to treat the pollution load from sewer systems of towns and cities.

5. To strengthen the ongoing NRCP, which new initiative was taken?
a) National Yamuna Basin Authority
b) National Narmada Basin Authority
c) National Ganga River Basin Authority
d) National Brahmaputra River Basin Authority
Answer: c
Clarification: National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was formed to strengthen the ongoing NRCP in 2009. The first meeting of the NGRBA Resolved to make the Ganga pollution free by 2020. This pledge to make Ganga free from pollution.

6. River water is used to a maximum extent.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: River water is used to a maximum extent because of its common reach to the biotic community. Maximum economic activities concentrate around rivers. About 50% of the population of the world resides in 250 river basins.

7. When did a model bill to regulate and control of groundwater come into force?
a) 1993
b) 1994
c) 1995
d) 1996
Answer: d
Clarification: Ministry of Water Resources prepared a model bill to regulate and control the development of groundwater in 1996. It provides the details of the definitions and the process of implementation of the bill.

8. To which of the following subjects ‘Repair, Renovation and Restoration’ (RRR) comes under?
a) Buildings
b) Soil structures
c) Water bodies
d) Forests
Answer: c
Clarification: This is implemented by the Government of India, Ministry of Water Resources. ‘Repair, Renovation and Restoration’ comes to water body scheme that has been launched by the Ministry under the state sector.

9. Which plan was launched by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) to restoring the water quality and ecology of the lakes?
a) National Water Conserved Plan
b) National Lake Conservation Plan
c) National River Ceremony Plan
d) National Water Conservation Plan
Answer: b
Clarification: National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP), launched by the Government of India aims at restoring the water quality and ecology of the lakes in different parts of the country. Thus it protects the rivers that flow to the lakes.

10. Which of the following have no rivers in it?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Karnataka
c) Andaman and Nicobar
d) Lakshadweep
Answer: d
Clarification: Every single state has at least one river flowing in it. Only the Union Territory of Lakshadweep has no rivers in it. Lakshadweep is a bunch of really small islands so there is no river flow in it.

11. According to NRGBA which is the national river of India?
a) Yamuna
b) Brahmaputra
c) Krishna
d) Ganges
Answer: d
Clarification: NRGBA was established by the Central Government of India on 20 February 2009 under Environment Protection Act, 1986. The chair includes the Prime Minister of India and Chief Minister of states through which Ganges flows. It declared the Ganges as the National River of India.

12. Which is the Longest River in India?
a) Ganges
b) Indus
c) Brahmaputra
d) Godavari
Answer: a
Clarification: Ganges is considered to be the longest river in India with a total length of 2,640 km. Indus and Brahmaputra both has length of 2,900 km but they are not called longest river because most of the part of river lies outside the Indian Territory.

13. Which is the most polluted river in India?
a) Ganges
b) Yamuna
c) Sabarmati
d) Godavari
Answer: b
Clarification: Yamuna tops the list of the most polluted rivers in India. It is also one of the top 10 dirtiest rivers in the world. The second most polluted river in India is the Ganges. Sabarmati is the third most polluted river in India.

14. All the rivers in India are female.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Most of the rivers are female in India as Ganges, Yamuna, Godavari etc, but not all rivers are female as opposed to general opinion. There are many male rivers, to name a few male rivers are Damodar, Ajay, Sankosh, Bhima, Krishna and many more.

Environment Management Problems,

250+ TOP MCQs on Public Policy and PILs and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Public Policy and PILs”.

1. Which one of the following issues Environmental Policy is mainly concerned?
a) Political issues
b) Crime issues
c) Environmental issues
d) Personal issues
Answer: c
Clarification: Environmental Policy mainly concerns with environmental issues. These issues include air and water pollution, waste management, maintenance of biodiversity, waste management, the protection of wildlife and endangered species.

2. When did Indian Forest Act established?
a) 1911
b) 1914
c) 1925
d) 1927
Answer: d
Clarification: Indian Forest Act is established in 1927 under British rule. Under this Act developed procedures for setting up and protection of forests which are reserved, protected forests and village forests are the protected area.

3. In 1972 which Act formed in India to protect the wildlife of India?
a) Indian Forest Act
b) Wildlife Protection Act
c) Environmental Act
d) Natural Protection Act
Answer: b
Clarification: Wildlife Protection Act was established in 1972 in India to protect the wildlife. Apart from this, there are many things this Act looks like formalization of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservational reserves and community reserves.

4. Which is the only state in India where Wildlife protection Act, 1972 not applicable?
a) Karnataka
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
Answer: b
Clarification: Wildlife Protection Act provides for the protection of wildlife animals, birds and plants. This Act extends to whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act known as “The Jammu and Kashmir Wildlife Act”.

5. Under which domain 7th five year plan helped in the protection of environment?
a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
c) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
d) National Forest Policy, 1988
Answer: a
Clarification: Under the domain of Environmental Protection Act, 1986 7th five year plan helped in the protection of environment. It is a legislation which signifies the central governments determination to take effective steps to protect the environment.

6. PIL helps the environmental NGOs and social activists to file number of cases for the effective enforcement of environmental laws.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: PIL helps in the protecting citizen’s right to healthy environment. The Supreme Court of India has not only ensured fundamental right of citizen to healthy environment but also has contributed immensely to the evolution of new principles in environmental jurisprudence.

7. What is the full form of PIL?
a) Private Interest Litigation
b) Public Interest Limited
c) Public Interest Litigation
d) Public Initiative Litigation
Answer: c
Clarification: Public Interest Litigation is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court. It is a new legal horizon in which court of law can initiate and enforce action to serve and secure significant public interest.

8. When did Wildlife Conservation Strategy established?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Answer: c
Clarification: Wildlife Conservation Strategy established in 2002. According to this policy wildlife and forests shall be declared priority sector at the national level for which funds be earmarked and it also deals with no commercial mono-culture to replace natural forests.

9. To which government the Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency?
a) To the State Government
b) To the Central Government
c) To United Nations
d) To Union Territories
Answer: b
Clarification: The Ministry Of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency in the administrative structure of the Central Government. It works for the planning, promotion, co-ordination and overseeing the implementation of environmental and forestry programs.

10. When did the “Policy Statement for Abatement of Pollution” adopted?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: The Policy Statement for Abatement of Pollution adopted in 1992. The objective is to integrate environmental considerations into decision-making at all levels. To achieve these steps to be taken to prevent pollution at source, encourage, develop and apply the best available practicable technical solutions.

11. Who adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases in India?
a) Indian Parliament
b) Indian Army
c) Indian Civil Services
d) Indian judiciary
Answer: d
Clarification: The Indian judiciary adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases. The Supreme Court & High Courts shaded the inhibitions against refusing strangers to present the petitions on behalf of poor and ignorant individuals.

12. What is the result of PIL that is applied in Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State of U.P?
a) The Supreme Court prohibited the continuance of mining operations
b) The Supreme Court allows continuance of mining operations
c) The Supreme Court withheld the judgment to 2020
d) The Supreme Court asked the opinion of Central Government
Answer: a
Clarification: In the area of environmental protection, PIL has proved to be an effective tool. In Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra vs. State of Uttar Pradesh. The Supreme Court prohibited the continuance of mining operations terming it to be adversely affecting the environment.

13. The decision of the Supreme Court in the PIL of Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar is _______________
a) Approved
b) Denied
c) Pending
d) Formed jury panel
Answer: b
Clarification: The judiciary has used the tool of PIL quite effectively for the cause of environmental protection. But the judiciary has shown wisdom in denying false petitions seeking to advance private interests through PIL as evident from the decision of the Supreme Court in Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar.

14. PIL can be filed against individuals also.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: PIL can be filed against government only. A PIL may be filed against state government, central government, municipal authority not any private party. But, private person may be included in PIL as Respondent, after concerned of state authority.

250+ TOP MCQs on Environment and Human Health and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Environment and Human Health”.

1. What is called for the chemicals which emit with vinyl floors?
a) Pathogens
b) Vinyl oxidize
c) Phthalates
d) Chorines
Answer: c
Clarification: Due to the addition of contaminates to the environment, it is discovered that children who lives in homes with vinyl floors which can emit hazardous chemicals called phthalates. It develops signs of autism in kids.

2. Which one of the following organization dedicated to protecting human health from environmental harms?
a) Environment and Human Health
b) Environmental and Scientific Science
c) Ecological Protection Organization
d) Ecological Science and Solutions
Answer: a
Clarification: Environmental and Human Health (EHHI) is dedicated to protecting human health from environmental harms through education, research and the promotion of public policies. Environmental and Human Health is increasingly concerned about health hazards.

3. Which one of the following cause harm to human health?
a) Organic farming
b) Using of pesticides
c) Using solar vehicles
d) Protecting forests
Answer: b
Clarification: Pesticides can harm to human health if they use in excess proportion in the environment. Pesticides are intentionally toxic substances linked to various diseases like cancer, birth defects, mutations and other health problems.

4. How many types of health hazards are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The three types of health hazards are physical hazards, chemical hazards and biological hazards. Physical hazards are global warming, UV radiations, Radioactive etc. Chemical hazards are combustion of fossil fuels, pesticides, heavy metals etc. Biological hazards are bacteria, viruses etc.

5. What is the other name for infectious diseases?
a) Non-communicable diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Non-transmissible diseases
d) Heredity diseases
Answer: b
Clarification: Infectious diseases also known as transmissible diseases or communicable diseases comprise clinically illness resulting from the infection, presence and growth of pathogenic biological agents.

6. Human health can be divided into internal factors and external factors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The two factors affecting human health are internal factors and external factors. The factors such as malfunctioning of the body parts, malfunctioning of immune system and genetic disorders, which exist within the human body, are called internal factors. Heart attack, Kidney failure etc are few examples of external factors.

7. What is called the term which refers to an unhealthful intake of dietary nutrients?
a) Healthy food
b) Foul food
c) Malnutrition
d) Nutritious food
Answer: c
Clarification: The term malnutrition refers to an unhealthful intake of dietary nutrients. Malnutrition may arise with inadequate or overabundant food intake, an imbalance of dietary nutrients or utilize the food we eat.

8. Which one of the following is a result of high exposure of radiation?
a) Loss of white blood cells
b) Hair loss
c) Tooth decay
d) Leg fracture
Answer: a
Clarification: High doses of radiation can be harmful or even it cause fatal to humans and it also damages environment. Doses above 100 rems usually cause the first signs of radiation. Loss of white blood cells happens due to more exposure to radiation.

9. How do pollutants reach humans?
a) By external factors
b) By internal factors
c) Pollutants never reach to humans
d) There is nothing called pollutants
Answer: a
Clarification: Pollutants reach humans through the food we eat, the water we drink, and the air we breathe and endanger our health in both immediate and long lasting ways. This pollutants cause various problems to human’s health and also to environment.

10. How many percentage of water approximately present in human body?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Answer: c
Clarification: The human body is mostly consists of 70% of water. Only 2.5% of water on the planet is drinkable and it becomes clear since our body consist of 70% water protecting our water supply is so important.

11. The current rates of disease are increasing at alarming speeds and most are closely linked with known____________________
a) Carcinogens
b) Invigorating
c) Organic farming
d) Balanced diet
Answer: a
Clarification: The current rates of disease are increasing at alarming speeds and they are linked with carcinogens. Carcinogens have become abundant in our environment in the last several decades. It consists of pesticides, artificial hormone etc.

12. Which one of the following is an effect due to environmental pollution for human health?
a) Increase in the male fertility
b) Decrease in the carcinogen cells
c) Decrease in the mental stress
d) Decrease in the male fertility
Answer: d
Clarification: Male infertility has been linked to pesticides, air pollution, exposure to lead, household flame-retardant, surfactants and water pollution. Continuous exposure for such environmental pollution will lower the sperm amounts in males.

13. Which one of the following can cause breast cancer in women?
a) Breastfeeding
b) Being physically fit
c) Using antiperspirant
d) Eating healthy food
Answer: c
Clarification: Antiperspirants are applied near the breast and contain potentially harmful ingredients. Breast cancer can be caused by using antiperspirant, a decrease in the occurrence and duration of breastfeeding and synthetic hormones found in food production.

14. There is a link between the environment and human health.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: There is a direct link between the environment and human health. We harm our environment I many ways, it comes back to haunt us in the form of sickness and death. The more we cause trouble and disturb the environment the more we suffer from diseases.

250+ TOP MCQs on Energy Production & Consumption and Answers

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Energy Production & Consumption”.

1. Where does India stand on solar energy production?
a) First
b) Third
c) Fifth
d) Seventh
Answer: d
Clarification: Based on total PV installed capacity India ranks seventh in the solar production which is stated by International Energy Agency (IEA). First position is taken by China, third by Germany, fifth by Italy and seventh by India with the total production of 9000 MW.

2. India’s position in the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) is_________
a) fourth
b) third
c) second
d) first
Answer: a
Clarification: According to Global Wind Energy Council in 2016 India ranked fourth in the Global Wind Power Installed Capacity Index with cumulative installed wind power generation. This gives the capacity of 28700 MW with the world’s share of around 6%.

3. Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?
a) United States of America
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Argentina
Answer: a
Clarification: The United States is the largest producer of biofuel in the world, accounting to 42% of global biofuel production. The United States produced 31 metric tons of oil equivalents, while Brazil which stands second in the production of biofuel produced 18 million metric tons of oil equivalents.

4. India is placed within the top 25 nations, in terms of oil production in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: India stands in the 24th position in terms of oil production in the world. The total amount of oil produced in India is 734,180 Barrel per day (bbl/day). Whereas the first three place go to Russia, Saudi Arabia and United States respectively.

5. The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are known for the production of ___________
a) Coal
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Petroleum
Answer: d
Clarification: The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are the seven states in Arab which border the Persian Gulf, namely Iraq, Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE. All these Arab states have significant production of petroleum. There GDP is highly depending on the production of petroleum.

6. India stands in the first position, in the production of coal in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: India stands second position in the production of coal in the world. China stands in the first position in the production of coal in the world. According to 2016 survey India produces 3,411 million tons of coal, whereas China produces 7,461 million tons of coal.

7. Which country produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: b
Clarification: France produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power. France accounts 75% of total electricity produced by nuclear power. India stands in the 27TH position with 306% of total electricity produced by nuclear power.

8. Total primary energy consumption of fuel in the world is lead by ___________
a) Coal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Oil
Answer: d
Clarification: Consumption of primary energy of fuel in the world is lead by oil with the consumption of 33%. The consumption of coal is 30%. The consumption of Nuclear is 4%. The consumption of hydro is 7%.

9. India’s energy consumption growth in 2016 is_________
a) 3.6%
b) 4.6%
c) 2.9%
d) 1.5%
Answer: b
Clarification: Many countries energy consumption has seriously slowed overed few years. But India is managed to increased its consumption growth. One of the main reason for the increase in energy consumption growth in India is the decision took for continued to support world energy consumption.

10. Which is the world’s biggest oil consuming country?
a) United States of America
b) Japan
c) India
d) China
Answer: a
Clarification: The United States is the largest consumer of oil in the world, accounting 20% of global oil production. The United States consumed 18.5 million barrels of oil per day, while Japan stands third, India in fourth place and China in second place.

11. State true or false. Nordic countries consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Nordic countries are the countries which are situated in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. The Nordic countries generate only moderate emission levels of greenhouse gases compared to other developed countries. This is related to their lower dependency on fossil fuels. However, their consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.

12. The world’s top consuming country of domestically produced hydroelectricity is ___________
a) India
b) Brazil
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: c
Clarification: China is the largest consumption of hydroelectricity in the world. It consumed 163 million tonnes of oil-equivalent(mtoe) which is of 6.7% of its total energy consumption. India consumes 25 mtoe, Brazil consumes 90 mtoe, Japan consumes 19 mtoe.

13. India stands first position in the consumption of electricity in the world.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: India stands third position in the consumption of electricity in the world. China stands in the first position in the consumption of electricity in the world. According to 2016 survey India consumes 1,408,624,400,000 KiloWatt Hours per year(kW-h/yr).

14. India’s total primary energy consumption is ____________
a) 24.3 BTU
b) 19.01 BTU
c) 120 BTU
d) 30.1 BTU
Answer: a
Clarification: According to 2014 estimation India’s total primary energy consumption is 24.3 BTU, China consumes 120 BTU, Japan consumes 19.01 BTU, Russia consumes 30.1 BTU. India’s energy consumption is increasing exponentially due to the large population of the country.