Category: Energy Management Objective Questions

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Major International Environmental Conventions”.

1. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Basel Convention
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
Answer: a
Clarification: The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985. The main objectives are, parties to promote and cooperation by means of systematic observations, research and information exchange on the effects of human activities on the ozone layer.

2. How many years once the parties in the Vienna Convention meet to take a decision?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Clarification: The parties of the Vienna Convention meet once in three years in order to make decisions designed to administer the convention. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the first Convention of any kind to achieve universal ratification.

3. When did Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
Answer: c
Clarification: Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist on 17 May 2004. It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants and thus helps to maintain the health of humans and environment.

4. What are persistent organic pollutants?
a) Organic manure
b) Weed
c) Sand
d) Chemicals
Answer: d
Clarification: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods and become widely distributed geographically and accumulated in the fatty tissue of living organisms.

5. What is the main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants?
a) Eliminate dangerous POPs
b) Increase the usage of dangerous POPs
c) Developing strong chemicals
d) Increase in the production of POPs
Answer: a
Clarification: The main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants is to eliminate dangerous POPs starting with the 12 worst. Apart from this it also aims o support the transition to safer alternatives for POPs.

6. Rotterdam Convention is established to trade with hazardous chemicals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Rotterdam Convention is the prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This Rotterdam Convention came into force in February 24, 2004.

7. Basel Convention is mainly deals with_________________
a) Biological diversity
b) Hazardous wastes and their disposals
c) Persistent organic pollutants
d) Ozone depleting
Answer: b
Clarification: Basel Convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland. The main aim is to control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and its disposals.

8. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?
a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas
b) Increase of greenhouse gas
c) Increase of temperature
d) Stabilization of oxygen
Answer: a
Clarification: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came into exist in June 1992. The reason behind this is to achieve stabilization in greenhouse gases concentration in atmosphere.

9. Which convention came into exist for the use of ‘Transboundary water courses’?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Helsinki Convention
d) Bucharest Convention
Answer: c
Clarification: Foe the regulation of use of international watercourses Helsinki Convention came into exists in 1992. The main aim is to protect and use of Transboundary watercourses and international lakes seeks to established cooperative frameworks.

10. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?
a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
Answer: c
Clarification: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development met at the Rio de Janeiro Convention from 3rd to 14th June 1992. During this meeting they proclaimed 27 principles with the goal of establishing a new partnership.

11. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?
a) Rio de Janeiro Convention
b) Bonn Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Aarhus Convention
Answer: b
Clarification: Bonn Convention came into exist for the conservation of migratory species of wild animals. And also to conserve terrestrial species and marine species throughout their range was the objective of this convention.

12. When did the Washington Convention happen?
a) 1972
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1978
Answer: b
Clarification: Washington Convention is an international agreement between governments, drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1973 at the meeting held at International Union for Conservation of Nature.

13. What is the full form of ENMOD?
a) Environmental Middle Convention
b) Environmental Modification Convention
c) Environmental Middle Center
d) Environmental Modification Center
Answer: b
Clarification: The Environmental Modification Convention (ENMOD) is an international treaty for prohibiting the military or other hostile use of environmental modification techniques. It came into force on October 5th 1978.

14. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on Wetlands.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

Environment Management Puzzles on “Hazardous Waste”.

1. When can we classify waste as hazardous?
a) When waste won’t cause any mortality
b) When waste increase mortality
c) When waste decrease mortality
d) When waste decompose itself without any aid
Answer: b
Clarification: Waste is normally classified as hazardous when it causes an increase in mortality o an increase in series irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or the environment when improperly treated or disposed.

2. Based on how many primary characteristics we can classified waste as hazardous?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: Waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits any four primary characteristics based on the physical or chemical properties of toxicity, reactivity, ignitability and corrosivity. In addition to these waste products is also classified as hazardous.

3. What is a toxic waste?
a) Substances those are not poisonous
b) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in large quantity
c) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in small quantity
d) Substances which work as an antidote for toxic materials
Answer: c
Clarification: Toxic wastes are substances that are poisonous even in very small or trace amounts. Some may have an acute effect on humans causing death, others may have a chronic or long term effect, slowly causing irreparable harm to humans and other organisms.

4. Why chronic toxicity is difficult to determine?
a) Because there is no cure for that
b) Because it causes only little problems
c) Because effects can be seen immediately
d) Because effects may not be seen for years
Answer: d
Clarification: Chronic toxicity is much difficult to determine because the effects may not be seen for years. One of the examples of chronic toxicity is cancer which can’t find immediately. Certain toxic wastes are known to be carcinogenic and others may be mutagenic.

5. Which of the following have a tendency to react vigorously with water or air?
a) Toxic waste
b) Reactive waste
c) Corrosive waste
d) Infectious waste
Answer: b
Clarification: Reactive waste is that which has a tendency to react vigorously with air or water. It is unstable to shock or heat, generates toxic gases or explodes during routine management such as gunpowder.

6. Modern society doesn’t produce a large quantity of hazardous waste.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Modern society produces hazardous waste. It produces large quantities of hazardous waste generated by chemical manufacturing companies, petroleum refineries, paper mills, smelters and other industries.

7. What is an ignitable waste?
a) Waste which can burn relatively low temperatures
b) Waste which can burn relatively high temperatures
c) Waste which don’t burn
d) Waste which don’t produce temperature
Answer: a
Clarification: Ignitable waste is that which burns at relatively low temperatures say less than 60 Celsius. It is capable of spontaneous combustion during storage, transport or disposal gasoline, paint thinners and alcohol.

8. What kind of reactions happens in corrosive waste?
a) Physical
b) Electro-chemical
c) Biological
d) Chemical
Answer: d
Clarification: In corrosive waste the reaction that happens is chemical. Corrosive waste is that which destroys materials and living tissue by chemical reaction such as acid and bases and thus cause hazardous to organisms.

9. Where we can get radioactive wastes?
a) Small scale industries
b) Houses
c) Nuclear power plants
d) Vehicular wastes
Answer: c
Clarification: Nuclear power plants are the source for radioactive wastes. Radioactive waste is the output from nuclear power plants that can persist in the environment for thousands of years before it decays and cause hazardous to the environment.

10. Which of the following is a hazardous substance?
a) Gold
b) Lead
c) Copper
d) Iron
Answer: b
Clarification: Lead is a hazardous substance often referred to as heavy metals. Lead is abundant heavy metal and is relatively easy to obtain. Most of the lead absorbed by people and wildlife is stored in the bones.

11. How do PCBs impact on birds?
a) They decrease the memory
b) They cause reproductive failure
c) They cause bird flu
d) They cause indigestion
Answer: b
Clarification: PCBs is one of the hazardous waste that impact on greater extent to environment. These PCBs can cause reproductive failure in birds and mammals. Thus this kind of hazardous waste use must be use in limited quantity with precautionary measures.

12. Vinyl chloride is widely used in the manufacture of______________
a) Glass
b) Agricultural chemicals
c) Storage of aquatic foods
d) Plastics
Answer: d
Clarification: Vinyl chloride is a chemical that is widely used in the manufacture of plastic. A long continuous exposure in humans can cause deafness, vision problems and bone deformities. Vinyl chloride also causes birth defects.

13. In order to dispose hazardous waste where there are no abundant lands which method is used?
a) Land disposal
b) Burning
c) Floats in water bodies
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Clarification: The most common methods for disposing of hazardous waste are land disposal and incineration. In countries where there is abundant land available for disposal land disposal is used and countries where there is no abundant land incineration method is used.

14. The use of polyvinyl chloride can be lowered by reducing the use of plastic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Polyvinyl chloride use can lowered the use of plastics. In plastic PCBs is the essential substitute by using polyvinyl chloride we can reduce the use of plastic. By reducing waste, recycling and using products which are durable we can reduce the consumption of chemicals which are causing hazardous to the environment.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Human-Wildlife Conflicts, Threats and Conservation of Biodiversity”.

1. What is called for any interaction between humans and wildlife that result in negative impacts on cultural life or on the environment?
a) Human-wildlife interactions
b) Human-wildlife services
c) Human-wildlife adjustment
d) Human-wildlife conflict
Answer: d
Clarification: The above definition is given by the World Wide Funds for Nature (WWF). The conflicts take many forms ranging from loss of life or injury to humans, and animals competition for scarce. Human-wildlife conflict occurs when growing human population overlaps with established wildlife territory.

2. Which one of the following is the cause for man-wildlife conflicts?
a) Reduction in the availability of natural food resources
b) Increase in the forest area
c) Adequate rainfall
d) Curiosity of wildlife animals that leads for the invasion to outside the forest area
Answer: a
Clarification: Human population expands into wild animal habitats is one of the reasons for displaced of natural wildlife territory of wildlife. Reduction in the availability of natural prey leads to wild animals seeking alternate sources.

3. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
a) Damage to human property
b) Increase in the forest area
c) Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
d) Destruction of habitat
Answer: b
Clarification: Apart for the increase in the forest area, the above three options are the outcomes of man-wildlife conflict. Man-wildlife conflicts occur with various negative results. Due to these conflicts there is also the chance for the collapse of wildlife populations and reduction of geographic ranges.

4. The Jim Corbett National Park is famous for notable man-eaters _________________
a) Leopard
b) Tiger
c) Bear
d) Lion
Answer: a
Clarification: Jim Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand. In this National Park, Leopard of Panar, Leopard of Rudraprayag and Leopard of the Mulher Valley have claimed thousands of human and cattle lives.

5. How many types of management techniques of wildlife are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Clarification: Management techniques of wildlife are of two types. The first types are the traditional one. This traditional technique aims to stop or minimize the conflict by controlling animal population in different ways. Another technique includes translocation, preservation and regulation of animal populations.

6. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) playing an important role in reducing human-wildlife conflicts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: To reduce human-wildlife conflicts, World Wide Fund for Nature has partnered with a number of organizations to provide solutions for human-wildlife conflicts around the globe. Their solutions are tailored to the community and species involved.

7. Which one of the following is a way to reduce human-wildlife conflict?
a) Killing all the wild animals
b) Shifting all the wild animals from natural forests to zoo
c) Use of strobe lights
d) Kill the animals when they invade outside the forests
Answer: c
Clarification: Strobe lights help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife. Wary nocturnal have been shown to avoid such light signals. Half strobe light and half motion sensor, the machines flash beams of light randomly in all directions to mimic a farmer with a flashlight.

8. Which one of the following is the major threat for biodiversity?
a) Reduction in the cutting of trees
b) Increase in the number of trees
c) Climate change
d) Balance in the predator and prey in forests
Answer: c
Clarification: Climate change is one of the major threats for biodiversity. Climate is a major factor in the distribution of species across the globe, climate change forcers them to adjust. But many are not able to adjust and that cause them to die.

9. Habitat destruction which results in the threat to biodiversity is resulted due to__________________
a) Agricultural industries
b) Decrease in the human population
c) Adequate rainfall
d) Decrease in the human-wildlife conflicts
Answer: a
Clarification: The primary cause of loss of biodiversity is habitat destruction which is resulted due to commercial activities associated with agriculture, irrigation, fishing etc. Extra land is needed to grow more edible goods and more land has to be cleared to meet these needs.

10. How do invasive species affect the biodiversity?
a) It helps the native species to survive furthermore
b) It forms a close bond with the native species and protects the biodiversity
c) It threaten the survival of the native species
d) It stays for few days without harming the biodiversity
Answer: c
Clarification: Invasive species are the non-native species that invade healthy ecosystems and threaten the survival of the native species either by attacking them or competing with them for the habitat’s resources.

11. What does the acronym “HIPPO” full form, which describes the main causes for threats to biodiversity?
a) Habitat destruction, Invasion species, Pollution, Polarization, and Over-harvesting
b) Habitat destruction, Invasion species, Pollution, Population, and Over-harvesting
c) Habitat destruction, Increase in the species, Pollution, Population, and Ozone depletion
d) Human- wildlife conflict, Invasion species, Polarization, Population, and Over-harvesting
Answer: b
Clarification: Acronym “HIPPO” stands for Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, Population, and Over-harvesting. This acronym was proposed by Edward Osborne Wilson who is an American Biologist.

12. What is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
a) Unprotected areas
b) Depleted areas
c) Exploited areas
d) Protected areas
Answer: d
Clarification: In-situ conservation is one of the types of biodiversity conservation. In-situ conservation involves protection of flora and fauna within its natural habitat. The four types of protected areas are as follows, a) Biosphere reserves, b) National parks, c) Wildlife sanctuaries, d) Gene sanctuaries.

13. Gene bank is one of the ways for biodiversity conservation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Gene bank is one of the types which come under Ex-situ conservation of biodiversity. Genetic variability is preserved by gene bank normal growing conditions. These are cold storages where germ palm are kept under controlled temperature and humidity for storage.

14. Which one of the following is the way for conservation of biodiversity?
a) Increase in the pollution level in the ecosystem
b) Converting forest land into agricultural land in rapid way
c) Removal of exotic species
d) Overexploitation
Answer: c
Clarification: Removal of exotic species is one of the ways for conservation of biodiversity. It will allow the native species that they have negatively impacted to recover their ecological niches. Removal of exotic species is practical only given large groups of individuals due to the economic cost.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Land Resources”.

1. A continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________
a) Seashore
b) Beach
c) Landmass
d) Wetland
Answer: c
Clarification: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage ‘landmass’ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents. Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass.

2. How many major continuous landmass are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Clarification: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present.

3. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________
a) Domestic land
b) Arable land
c) Un arable land
d) Dry land
Answer: b
Clarification: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world’s arable land. India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%.

4. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation?
a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 225
Answer: b
Clarification: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree of degradation will affect the existing land resources.

5. Wearing away of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known as_____________
a) Wind erosion
b) Soil erosion
c) Water erosion
d) Sand erosion
Answer: b
Clarification: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is by water or wind.

6. The greater the intensity and duration of a rainstorm, the higher the erosion potential.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The impact of raindrops on the soil surfaces can break down soil aggregates and disperse the aggregate material. Lighter aggregate materials such as very fine sand, silt, clay and organic matter are easily removed by raindrops.

7. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each soil is known as__________________
a) Soil erodibility
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil potentiality
d) Soil neutrality
Answer: a
Clarification: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater resistance to erosion.

8. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known as_________________
a) Polder
b) Resign
c) Derelict
d) Catchment
Answer: a
Clarification: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains and the last one is marshes.

9. In Germany marshes separated from the surrounding water by a dike are known as______________
a) Delt
b) Koogs
c) Catchment
d) Flood plains
Answer: b
Clarification: A koog is one of the types of polder found on the North Sea West of Germany. Koog is established by the construction of dykes enclosing the land which is drained to form marshland. Koog is protected by embankments known as dykes.

10. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________
a) Water
b) Air
c) Soil
d) Sunlight
Answer: c
Clarification: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral nutrient solutions to feed the plants.

11. The land which is abandoned and declared as not good for cultivation anymore is known as_____________
a) Polder
b) Koogs
c) Derelict land
d) Catchment land
Answer: c
Clarification: Derelict land is the land that has become damaged by industrial or other development and beyond uses without any kind of treatment. The treatments that is given for derelict land are demolition and levelling.

12. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called as_______________
a) Mineral
b) Soil
c) Sand
d) Chemical fertilizers
Answer: b
Clarification: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic and inorganic material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem.

13. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain is known as__________________
a) Landform
b) Landslide
c) Deforestation
d) Deformation
Answer: b
Clarification: During landslides huge masses of land slide down destroying anything in its path. Various development activities like construction of dams, reservoirs, roads require large space which results in deforestation. This activity increases chances of landslides.

14. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known as________________
a) Deforestation
b) Deformation
c) Landform
d) Desertification
Answer: d
Clarification: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to 25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a 50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water.

Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Major International Environmental Protocols”.

1. When did the Montreal protocol come into force?
a) 1985
b) 1987
c) 1989
d) 1991
Answer: c
Clarification: Montreal protocol on substances that deplete ozone layer came into force in 1989. The protocol settargete for reducing the consumption and production of a range of ozone depleting substances.

2. When did India accepted Montreal protocol?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
Answer: c
Clarification: Though Montreal protocol came into force in 1989, India accepted this protocol with its London Amendment in September 1992. The Ministry of Environment and Forest has established an ozone cell for this.

3. When did Kyoto protocol adopted?
a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2007
Answer: b
Clarification: The Kyoto protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on December 1997. It entered int force on 16 February 2005. It is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change.

4. For the convention on Biological Diversity which protocol was adopted?
a) Kyoto
b) Montreal
c) The Nagoya Protocol
d) The Cartagena protocol
Answer: d
Clarification: The Cartagena protocol on biosafety was adapted to the convention on Biological Diversity. It is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms.

5. Which protocol aims to sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources?
a) The Nagoya Protocol
b) The Cartagena protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Montreal Protocol
Answer: a
Clarification: The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefits-sharing is an international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. It came into force on 12th October 2014.

6. Protocol and conventions are the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A protocol to the convention is an agreement that diplomatic negotiators formulate and sign as the basis for a final convention where the parties set specific aims. Usually, when a major provision is to be incorporated a protocol is called among the countries.

7. Which protocol helps to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons?
a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) The Cartagena Protocol
d) The Nagoya Protocol
Answer: a
Clarification: Hydro-fluorocarbons are greenhouse gases with a significantly higher warming potential than carbon dioxide. More than 170 countries have reached a historic deal to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons after years of protracted.

8. How many parties are there in the Nagoya Protocol?
a) 91
b) 93
c) 95
d) 97
Answer: b
Clarification: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Presently there are 93 parties are there. Secretary General of the United Nations worked as a depository for the Nagoya protocol.

9. When did the Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol come into force?
a) 2011
b) 2015
c) 2017
d) 2018
Answer: d
Clarification: The Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol is the recent added protocol. This protocol is majorly on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. This protocol came into force on 5 March 2018.

10. The international committee came into force for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The international committee for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (ICC) was established in decision EM-1/3 adoption the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to undertake the preparations necessary for the first meeting of the parties to the protocol.