Category: Engineering Geology Objective Questions

Tricky Engineering Geology Questions and Answers on “Rocks as Materials for Construction – 02”.

1. Granites have poor fire resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Many otherwise sound building stones like granites and other coarse grained igneous rocks are poor in fire resistance. These may become unsuitable for use in heat intensive situations.

2. Ease with which stone can be extracted and dressed is called __________
a) Consistency
b) Workability
c) Easability
d) Permeability
Answer: b
Clarification: By workability of a stone is understood the ease in the effort and the economy with which it can be extracted from its natural place of occurrence and finally given a proper shape called dressing.

3. Which of the following is not true about granite?
a) Very high crushing strength
b) Low absorption values
c) Takes good polish
d) High absorption values
Answer: d
Clarification: Granites show very high crushing strength, low absorption value, least porosity, interlocking texture, variety of appealing colours and capacity to get brilliant polish.

4. Limestone can be used as facing stones at situations where __________
a) Air is polluted with industrial gases
b) Along sea coasts where sea water-rich winds can attack them
c) Less chemical exposure and mild weather
d) The place has very harsh weather
Answer: c
Clarification: Use of limestone as facing stones, even if quite strong, should be avoided in situations where- the air is polluted with industrial gases, such as in industrial towns; along sea coasts where sea-water-rich winds can attack them directly.

5. The resistance offered by a stone against rubbing action is called __________
a) Rubbing resistance
b) Abrasive resistance
c) Frictional resistance
d) Shear resistance
Answer: b
Clarification: Abrasive is more a qualitative than quantitative property and may be broadly defined as the resistance, which a stone offers to rubbing action of one kind or another.

6. Which of the following is not a desirable of a road stone?
a) Hydrophobic in nature
b) Sufficient hardness and toughness
c) Durability at the place of use
d) Hydrophilic in nature
Answer: d
Clarification: Following are most important properties a good road stone should possess- sufficient hardness and toughness; durability at the place of use; cementation capacity; non-swelling or hydrophobic property.

7. The property which defines the resistance of stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic is called __________
a) Abrasive resistance
b) Crushing resistance
c) Hardness
d) Specific gravity
Answer: c
Clarification: Hardness is defined as the resistance of stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic as also due to mutual attrition. It is known that the aggregates of roads and pavements undergo repeated shaking movements under the traffic load.

8. Marble does not take polish.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Marbles have sufficient strength to beam building loads and at the same time can be given any desirable shape because of their low hardness. Marble can take a brilliant polish.

9. Common bitumen is generally of which nature?
a) Anionic
b) Cationic
c) Neutral charge
d) No charge
Answer: a
Clarification: Common bitumen is generally anionic in character. Any aggregate having electrolytic property will behave as hydrophobic or water repelling and vice-versa. This holds well in aggregates.

10. The basic igneous rock which is dark coloured and has been extensively used as road materials is __________
a) Granite
b) Gabbro
c) Basalt
d) Syenite
Answer: c
Clarification: Basalts are dark coloured basic igneous rocks that have been extensively used as road materials in areas of their occurrence. The rock is generally characterised with a crushing strength between 2000-3000 kg/cm2 and also with great toughness.

11. The test which is conducted by an indirect method usually is __________
a) Compressive strength test
b) Shear strength test
c) Bending strength test
d) Tensile strength test
Answer: d
Clarification: The tensile strength of rock samples may be determined directly or indirectly. The direct method would require elaborate means to avoid bending while applying tensile forces. Hence usually indirect methods are used to find out the tensile strength of the stones.

To practice Tricky questions and answers on all areas of Engineering Geology,

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Geological Work of Atmosphere-01”.

1. Which of the following about weathering is not true?
a) It is a natural process
b) Mechanical disintegration is involved
c) Chemical decomposition is involved
d) It is a rapid process
Answer: d
Clarification: Weathering is defined as, a natural process of in-situ mechanical disintegration and or chemical decomposition of the rocks of the crust of the Earth by certain physical and chemical agencies of the atmosphere. It is a very slow process.

2. The process that is not considered under mechanical weathering is _______
a) Carbonation
b) Temperature variation
c) Unloading
d) Insolation
Answer: a
Clarification: Carbonation is a chemical weathering process whereas the rest viz., temperature variation, unloading, insolation are processes of mechanical weathering.

3. What is the change in volume when water freezes?
a) 10% decrease
b) 20% increase
c) 20% decrease
d) 10% increase
Answer: d
Clarification: It is said that water on freezing undergoes an increase in its volume by about ten per cent. This is expansion is accompanied by the exertion of pressure.

4. The form of rock not found by freezing-thawing cycle is ________
a) Angular
b) Sub angular
c) Spherical
d) Irregular
Answer: c
Clarification: The frost formed fragments are angular, sub angular, irregular in outline and remain spread over the parent rock having flat surface or flat slopes. Spherical form or outline of rock doesn’t come into picture here.

5. The processes by which Scree deposits are formed are ________
a) Chemical attack
b) Exposure to sunlight
c) Water movement
d) Heaving and rolling
Answer: d
Clarification: If the original surface forms a significant slope, as is commonly the case in the hilly and mountainous regions, the frost fragments get heaved up from the crevices and cavities and then roll down the slope under the influence of gravity. Finally, the fragments accumulate at the base as heaps commonly called as Scree deposits.

6. What are the slopes covered by Scree called?
a) Scree slope
b) Frost slope
c) Talus slope
d) Trist slope
Answer: c
Clarification: The slopes covered by frost formed scree are often referred to as Talus slopes.

7. Where can one find the process of exudation occur?
a) Plains
b) Seashore
c) Hills
d) Waterfalls
Answer: b
Clarification: Exudation is a process similar to frost action but in this case disintegration takes place due to the formation of sodium chloride etc., within the cavities of rocks thereby causing disintegration. This process is seen in good measure in porous rocks near seashore.

8. The stress developed in the top layers of the rocks which disintegrate due to repeated variations in temperatures is ________
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
Answer: a
Clarification: Repeated variations in temperature experienced by a body of rock gradually break it into smaller pieces, especially in the top layers, by development of tensile stresses developing from alternate expansion and contraction.

9. Which of the following facts about Exfoliation is false?
a) It is the phenomenon of peeling off of curved shells from rocks
b) The change is accompanied by chemical weathering
c) Internal structure of the rock is affected
d) It occurs in thick or layered rocks.
Answer: c
Clarification: The internal structure of the rock is not affected due to the process of exfoliation. The phenomenon of peeling off occurs only in the layered or thick rocks and is accompanied by chemical weathering, mostly near the margins and develop curved surfaces. So basically surface is affected and not the internal structure.

10. The large-scale development of fracturing in confined rock masses occurs under which process?
a) Frost action
b) Unloading
c) Unfolding
d) Insolation
Answer: b
Clarification: The process of mechanical weathering where large-scale development of fracturing in confined rock masses is attributed to removal of the overlying rock cover due to prolonged erosional work of other agencies is called unloading.

11. The formation of sheets and subsequently joints occurs in which of the following processes?
a) Frost action
b) Insolation
c) Flow of water
d) Unloading
Answer: d
Clarification: The rock masses under the effect of unloading remain confined from sides but due to relief of pressure from above, they expand upwards; consequently joints develop in them parallel to the uncovered surface dividing them into sheets.

12. Scree deposits can occur in hilly regions only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The above statement is true because, for scree deposits to be formed, the rock fragments have to heave up and also roll down the slope under the influence of gravity.

13. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the below diagram.

a) Weathered rock
b) Parent rock
c) Rolled down rock
d) Powdered rock
Answer: b
Clarification: The part labelled is the parent rock and is yet to undergo weathering. It is the solid rock mass and the other parts above and beside the parent rock are called the weathered rocks.

14. In Kara Qum desert, the rocks are exposed to what temperatures in summer and winter respectively?
a) 70-80° C and -10° C
b) 20-30° C and -1° C
c) 40-50° C and 0° C
d) 25-35° C and -3° C
Answer: a
Clarification: Studies have shown that in desert like Kara Qum, rocks are exposed to as high temperatures as 70-80° C in summer and are then cooled down to -10° C in winter. Such repeated variations in temperature experienced by a body of rock gradually break it into smaller pieces.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Classification of Faults – 03”.

1. The phenomenon not associated with imbricate structures is ___________
a) Series of thrust blocks occur in close proximity
b) Thrust blocks are piled up one above another
c) All fault surfaces dip in the same direction
d) Thrust blocks aren’t piled up one above another
Answer: d
Clarification: When a series of thrust faults occur in close proximity, thrust blocks are piled up one above another and all the fault surfaces dip in same direction. The resulting interesting structure is known as an imbricate structure.

2. In the Himalayan Mountains, many well defined nappe zones have been recognized.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: In the Himalayan Mountains, many well defined nappe zones have been recognized among which may be mentioned the Kashmir Nappe, the Nappe zone of Shimla Himalayas and the Nappes of the Garhwal Himalayas.

3. Most common term used for strike-slip faults is ___________
a) Slip fault
b) Transform fault
c) Tranlational fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: b
Clarification: There are some other terms used for strike slip faults such as lateral faults, transverse faults, wrench faults and transform faults. Of these, the transform faults are very common and denote strike slip faults specially developed in oceanic ridges.

4. The type of fault where the faulted blocks have been moved against each other in horizontal direction is ___________
a) Reverse fault
b) Hinge fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Vertical fault
Answer: c
Clarification: Strike-slip faults are defined as the faults in which faulted blocks have been moved against each other in an essentially horizontal direction. The fault plane is almost vertical and net slip may be measured in great distances.

5. Which fault is developed in oceanic ridges?
a) Wrench faults
b) Transform faults
c) Lateral faults
d) Transverse faults
Answer: b
Clarification: The transform faults are very common and denote strike slip faults specially developed in oceanic ridges.

6. San Andres fault is the best example of which type of fault?
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Vertical fault
c) Normal fault
d) Reverse fault
Answer: a
Clarification: The best example of a strike-slip fault is the great San Andres fault of California. It extends for almost about 1000 km in an NW-SE direction.

7. Identify the type of fault from the figure below.

a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: b
Clarification: From the figure it is clear that the hanging wall has moved up with respect to the foot wall and hence clearly it is a reverse fault.

8. If the left block appears to have moved towards the observer, then which type of fault does it belong to?
a) Left-handed fault
b) Right-handed fault
c) Enecholon fault
d) Radial fault
Answer: a
Clarification: Strike-slip faults are further distinguished into right handed or left handed depending on the direction of movement of the block with respect to an observer: it is a left-handed fault if the left block appears to have moved towards the observer and a right handed fault if the right block seems to have moved towards the observer.

9. What are pivotal faults called as?
a) Reverse faults
b) Radial faults
c) Hinge faults
d) Normal faults
Answer: c
Clarification: Hinge faults are also called as pivotal or rotational faults. A hinge fault is characterised by a movement of the disrupted blocks along with a medial point called the hinge point.

10. The movement of blocks in hinge faults is ___________
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Lateral
d) Sliding
Answer: b
Clarification: The movement in hinge fault, is rotational rather translational.

11. Which is the rare type of fault?
a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Thrust fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: d
Clarification: In hinge faults, the amount of displacement increases away from the hinge point. These are rather rare type of faults.

12. What is the displacement range of strata in San Andres fault?
a) 10 km to 100 km
b) 20 km to 80 km
c) 50 km to 200 km
d) 100 km to 500 km
Answer: c
Clarification: The strata is believed to have suffered displacement varying between 50 km to 200 km in the San Andres fault in California.

Engineering Geology online test on ” Formation and Descriptive Study of Minerals – 02″.

1. The mica group minerals show which structure in the microscopic level?
a) Box structure
b) Sheet structure
c) Hexagonal structure
d) Columnar structure
Answer: b
Clarification: The micaceous cleavage is explained by their atomic structure: they constitute of SiO₄ tetrahedra linked at three of their corners and extending in two dimensions. This is called a sheet structure.

2. There is the presence of eminent cleavage in micas.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The sheets are held together in pairs by metallic ions. But the bond so resulting due to the metallic ions is the weakest and hence there is an eminent cleavage present in the micas.

3. What percent of crust do the micas form approximately?
a) 20%
b) More than 60%
c) 4%
d) 40%
Answer: c
Clarification: Micas are, besides felspars, pyroxenes and amphiboles, very common rock forming minerals forming approximately 4 percent of the crust of the Earth.

4. Which is the less important and more important and less important minerals crystallize respectively?
a) Triclinic and monoclinic
b) Monoclinic and triclinic
c) Monoclinic and rhombohedral
d) Rhombohedral and triclinic
Answer: b
Clarification: Most important members of the Mica group crystallize in one system only: Monoclinic system. Some less important members crystallize in triclinic system.

5. What type of cleavage is shown by mica group?
a) Perfect cubic cleavage
b) Perfect octahedral cleavage
c) Perfect basal cleavage
d) Prismatic cleavage
Answer: c
Clarification: The crystals of the mica group show prism angles of 60° and 120°. Because of the atomic constitution, micas show excellent basal cleavage.

6. Which mineral is flaky and black in appearance?
a) Biotite mica
b) Muscovite mica
c) Diamond
d) Jaspar
Answer: a
Clarification: Biotite mica is flaky and black in appearance and appears in the form of thin sheets. They are usually translucent.

7. What is the other name of muscovite mica?
a) Black mica
b) Potash mica
c) Vitreous mica
d) Glossy mica
Answer: b
Clarification: The other name of muscovite mica is potash mica and biotite mica is also called as black mica due its appearance.

8. What is the diaphaneity of muscovite mica?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Any form
Answer: b
Clarification: Muscovite mica usually occurs in the form of thin colourless sheets, as a mass may appear pale yellow and is transparent.

9. What is the streak given by muscovite mica?
a) White
b) Black
c) Yellow
d) Colourless
Answer: d
Clarification: The colour of muscovite mica is usually colourless to pale yellow but gives no streak.

10. Pick the wrong statement about mica.
a) They have high hardness
b) They have low hardness
c) They are usually transparent to translucent
d) They are used as good electrical insulators
Answer: a
Clarification: The micas have a low hardness of about 2.5 to 3. Hence the first statement is wrong. The rest of the statements about mica hold good.

11. What is the distinguishing property between biotite mica and muscovite mica?
a) Streak
b) Lustre
c) Colour
d) Hardness
Answer: c
Clarification: The colour of the minerals is the most distinguishing property between the two. The biotite mica shows black colour, whereas, the muscovite mica is almost colourless.

To practice all areas of Engineering Geology for online tests,

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Metamorphism and their factors”.

1. What is the term used to express the process responsible for all the changes that take place in an original rock under the influence of changes?
a) Hibernation
b) Herbination
c) Metamorphism
d) Metagenesis
Answer: c
Clarification: Metamorphism is the term used to express the process responsible for all the changes that take place in an original rock under the influence of changes in the surrounding conditions of temperature, pressure and chemically active fluids.

2. The factor not affecting metamorphism is ____________
a) Wind conditions
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Chemically active fluids
Answer: a
Clarification: The factors affecting the metamorphism of the rocks are temperature, pressure and chemically fluids. Wind conditions do not affect the metamorphism in any way.

3. Factors are also called ____________
a) Primary aspects
b) Agents of metamorphism
c) Agents of changes
d) Tertiary aspects
Answer: b
Clarification: Metamorphic changes in the rocks are primarily the result of three main factors that are also sometimes called agents of metamorphism: heat, pressure and chemically active fluids.

4. The temperature up to which minerals in rocks are stable is ____________
a) 100° C
b) 50° C
c) 500° C
d) 200° C
Answer: d
Clarification: Rocks are made up of minerals that are normally stable at temperature below 200° C. However when the temperature around these rocks changes due to one reason or the other, the mineral composition of the rocks undergoes some changes.

5. Any given rock at some depth below the surface is subjected to pressure from how many sources?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: Any given rock at some depth below the surface is subjected to pressure from two sources: first, load of the overlying burden and second, from crustal movements.

6. What is the pressure exerted during the crustal movements called?
a) Indirect pressure
b) Directed pressure
c) Secondary pressure
d) Primary pressure
Answer: b
Clarification: The pressure from orogenic activity is generally lateral or horizontal and is commonly termed as directed pressure.

7. What is the direction of pressure exertion in load metamorphism?
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) Horizontal or inclined
Answer: a
Clarification: The load of the overlying burden acts generally exerts pressure in a vertical direction and the process of change in the structure of the rock is often referred as load metamorphism.

8. Pore fluids play important role metamorphism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Presence or absence of chemically active fluids within the body of the rocks (the pore fluids) or around them plays very important role in the process of all types of metamorphism.

9. Water in which form is considered as single most important agent?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gaseous
d) Solid and liquid
Answer: c
Clarification: Water in the form of steam is considered the single most important agent. The water may be present in the minerals as water of crystallization or simply as pore fluid or it may be supplied externally by magmatic bodies.

10. Which rocks show severe degree of metamorphism?
a) Situated near the plate boundaries
b) Situated inside the boundaries
c) Situated at the centre of the plates
d) Irrespective of the place, the degree is same everywhere
Answer: a
Clarification: Rocks situated near the plate boundaries or within the geosynclinal belts are especially prone to directed pressure and often show severest degree of metamorphic changes.

11. Metamorphism can also happen about 850° C.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is believed that most metamorphic changes induced by the heat factor take place between 300°-850° C, some components of rock may actually start melting and hence rocks formed from their resolidification shall be included in the category of igneous rocks.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Classification of Earthquakes”.

1. What is the depth of focus in the shallow earthquakes?
a) Up to 100 km
b) Up to 200 km
c) Up to 60 km
d) Up to 150 km
Answer: c
Clarification: In the shallow earthquakes, depth of focus lies anywhere up to 60 km below the surface. A great majority of the earthquakes in the past had been of this type.

2. How many types on the basis of depth of focus are present?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: Three classes of earthquakes are recognized on the basis of depth of focus: shallow, intermediate and deep seated.

3. 60 – 300 km focus distance is seen in which type of earthquake?
a) Shallow earthquake
b) Intermediate earthquake
c) Deep seated earthquake
d) Tertiary earthquake
Answer: b
Clarification: The intermediate earthquakes originate between 60 and 300 km below the surface. These are rare in occurrence but their effects are felt over large areas.

4. The type of earthquake very rare in occurrence is __________
a) Shallow earthquake
b) Intermediate earthquake
c) Deep seated earthquake
d) Tertiary earthquake
Answer: c
Clarification: The deep seated earthquakes originate between 300 and 700 km, and are very rare phenomena.

5. Which class of earthquakes are most destructive?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class D
d) Class E
Answer: a
Clarification: Earthquakes of class A are highly destructive whereas those of class E are not of any significance in relation to engineering structures.

6. How many types of earthquakes are classified based on the cause of origin?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: d
Clarification: Two broad classes of earthquakes distinguished on the basis of the cause of origin. They are- tectonic earthquakes and non-tectonic earthquakes.

7. Which earthquake is caused due to faulting or relative displacements of blocks of the crust of the earth along rupture planes?
a) Tectonic earthquakes
b) Shallow earthquakes
c) Class-A earthquakes
d) Non-tectonic earthquakes
Answer: a
Clarification: Tectonic earthquakes are caused due to faulting or relative displacements of blocks of the crust of the earth along rupture planes. Most commonly, the major earthquakes are of tectonic origin.

8. Earthquakes originating due to volcanic eruptions or landslides are called __________
a) Tectonic earthquakes
b) Shallow earthquakes
c) Class-A earthquakes
d) Non-tectonic earthquakes
Answer: d
Clarification: Non-tectonic earthquakes owe their origin to causes distinctly different from faulting such as volcanic eruptions, atomic explosions or due to landslides and subsidence.

9. The number of classes of earthquakes based on magnitude of Ritcher scale are __________
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b
Clarification: It is customary to mention earthquakes by its magnitude on the Ritcher scale. Sometimes earthquakes are grouped into five classes on the basis of magnitude.

10. The shallow earthquakes occur very rare.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The shallow earthquakes are the most commonly observed earthquakes till now whereas the deep seated earthquakes are very rare phenomena.