250+ TOP MCQs on Valleys and Answers Quiz Exam [Latest]

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Valleys”.

1. A depression or hollow of considerable area extent surrounded on the side by two or more elevated tracts is called __________
a) Valley
b) Mountain
c) Pit
d) Crest

Answer: a
Clarification: A valley, in the geomorphic sense, is a depression or hollow of considerable area extent surrounded on side by two or more elevated tracts. Valleys may be the result of age-long erosion along the medial parts of elevated tracts, or, these might have been produced from a gradual or abrupt subsidence.

2. The type of valley most common on Earth is __________
a) Rain valleys
b) Erosional valleys
c) Wind valleys
d) Tectonic valleys

Answer: b
Clarification: The erosional valleys are the most common types of valleys on the Earth. Erosional valleys may be the result of the stream erosion and glacial erosion. They are accordingly named as River valleys and Glacial valleys.

3. The river valleys are typically of which shaped sections?
a) C-shaped
b) D-shaped
c) V-shaped
d) O-shaped

Answer: c
Clarification: A river valley is the result of down-cutting and bank erosion by the river. Since most of the river erosion processes are concentrated along the bottom of a river channel, especially in the mountainous regions, the resulting river valley has a typical V-shaped cross-section.

4. What is the weathering of the exposed walls by physical and chemical processes followed by slippage of weathered products into river below under the action of gravity called?
a) Mass slipping
b) Mass wasting
c) Rocks wasting
d) Debris wasting

Answer: b
Clarification: Weathering of the exposed walls by physical and chemical processes followed by slippage of weathered products into river below under the action of gravity and rainwash, the process is called mass wasting.

5. The modification of valley walls by undercutting, weathering and erosion is called __________
a) Incision
b) Deposition
c) Denudation
d) Enudation

Answer: c
Clarification: Incision is the down-cutting along the base of the channel by the river itself and denudation is the modification of valley walls by undercutting, weathering and erosion.

6. The type of valley formed when incision is a major process and denudation is almost absent is __________
a) Saw cut valleys
b) V-shaped valleys
c) Flat-floored valleys
d) Glacial valleys

Answer: a
Clarification: Saw cut valleys arise when incision is the major process and denudation is either absent or negligible. A very narrow, almost vertical-walled valley is produced.

7. Deep saw cut valleys with slightly opened up tops indicating some denudation are specially referred as __________
a) Canyons
b) Canons
c) Gorges
d) Gorgeous

Answer: c
Clarification: Exceptionally deep saw cut valleys with slightly opened up tops indicating some denudation are specially referred to as Gorges. These are quite common and impressive features of the major Himalayas Rivers in their mountainous tracts.

8. Types of gorges where the strata involved in down cutting is essentially horizontal or nearly so are called __________
a) Canyon
b) Gorgeian
c) Flicklops
d) Lockiles

Answer: a
Clarification: Canyons are those types of gorges where the strata involved in down cutting is essentially horizontal or nearly so. The Grand Canyon of Colorado is a well-known example.

9. The valleys which are V-shaped are always symmetrical.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: The V-shaped valleys may be said to have established a broad equilibrium between the down cutting, slope-denudation and their load carrying capacity. The valleys may or may not be symmetrical in their transverse profile depending upon the type of rocks on the slopes.

10. The type of valley formed when the incision and denudation are approximately equal __________
a) Saw cut valleys
b) V-shaped valleys
c) Flat-floored valleys
d) Glacial valleys

Answer: b
Clarification: In the formation of V-shaped valleys, the incision and denudation are approximately equal. In such cases, the valley profile assumes a typical V-shape.

11. Valleys in which the incision becomes negligible and denudation of slopes is major process are __________
a) Saw cut valleys
b) V-shaped valleys
c) Flat-floored valleys
d) Glacial valleys

Answer: c
Clarification: When the incision becomes negligible and denudation of slopes is the major process, the result is a flat-floored valley. It is the common profile of a valley in the lower reaches of a river.

12. Depending upon the extent of incision and denudation occurred during the formation of a valley, how many broad classes of valleys are present?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5

Answer: c
Clarification: The nature of the valley profile at any section in the course of a river depends on the ratio Incision: Denudation operating in that section. Three broad cases may be considered. Saw cut valleys; V-shaped valleys and flat-floored valleys.

250+ TOP MCQs on Geological Work of Wind and Answers

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Geological Work of Wind”.

1. The winds are formed basically due to which reason?
a) Uniform heating
b) Non-uniform heating
c) Precipitation
d) Tectonic activity
Answer: b
Clarification: Winds are born mainly due to non-uniform heating of the surface of the earth at different places causing differences in atmospheric pressure. The pressure difference so created makes the atmospheric gases (the air) to move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure in the form of winds.

2. The removal of particles of dust and sand by strong winds is called _____________
a) Abrasion
b) Depletion
c) Deflation
d) Aeration
Answer: c
Clarification: The process of removal of dust and sand by strong winds is called deflation. In Latin, ‘deflare’ means ‘to blow away’. It is the main process of wind erosion in desert regions.

3. The water in an oasis is obtained from which source?
a) Rain
b) Erosion from other place
c) Water table
d) Water released from adsorption
Answer: c
Clarification: Sometimes due to deflation, huge depressions are created in the deserts to such an extent that the depression becomes so deep that it intersects with the groundwater table. And it gets partially filled up with water and this is called an oasis.

4. The type of erosion which involves rubbing, grinding is _____________
a) Deflation
b) Attrition
c) Deflection
d) Wind abrasion
Answer: d
Clarification: The type of erosion involving rubbing, grinding, abrading and polishing the rock surfaces by any natural agent (wind, water or ice) with the help of its lead while passing over the rocks is termed as abrasion.

5. Which among the following is called “Mushroom rocks”?
a) Pedestal rocks
b) Yardangs
c) Ventifacts
d) Desert pavements
Answer: a
Clarification: Pedestal rocks are also often called mushroom rocks because of their likeness to mushrooms popping up closely in a level land.

6. The rock which is well polished by wind abrasion is called _____________
a) Yardangs
b) Pedestal rock
c) Ventifacts
d) Desert pavements
Answer: c
Clarification: Ventifacts are small sized rock fragments showing one, two or three or even more typically wind-polished surfaces called faces. The polishing of different sides of originally rough fragments is caused by prolonged wind abrasion.

7. The factor which does not affect the attrition by wind is _____________
a) Nature of the region
b) Velocity of wind
c) Duration
d) Sunlight
Answer: d
Clarification: Factors that affect attrition by wind are nature of the region, velocity of wind and duration. It is not affected by sunlight.

8. Which of the following about saltation is not true?
a) In this process the heavier and coarse sediments are lifted up
b) They are lifted up periodically and for short distances
c) In this process the light-density particles are carried away
d) It is the process of sediment transport by series of jump
Answer: c
Clarification: The heavier and coarse sediments such as sand grains, pebbles and gravels etc. are lifted up periodically during high velocity times and only for short distances and that too for smaller heights above the ground. The uplifting of lighter particles is called suspension.

9. The transporting power of wind depends on the shape of the particle.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The transporting power of wind depends on its velocity as also on the size, shape and density of the particles.

10. Which among the following has S-shaped outline?
a) Crescentic dune
b) Barchans
c) Transverse dunes
d) Sigmoidal dunes
Answer: d
Clarification: A typical sigmoidal dune is characterized with the absence of horns or cusps and a curved outline. In its simplest form, a sigmoidal dune is a steep sided ridge that extends in a sinuous or S-shaped outline.

11. The type of dune which is short lived is _____________
a) Barchans
b) Sigmoidal
c) Transverse dunes
d) Fixed dune
Answer: a
Clarification: Most of the dunes are migratory in nature and among all, Barchans are especially known to move ahead at the rate of 25 to 250 meters a month. Hence barchans are said to be short-lived relative to other dunes.

12. The particle size in a Loess is around _________
a) 2-3 mm in diameter
b) 1-2 mm in diameter
c) 0.01-0.05 mm in diameter
d) 0.1-1 mm in diameter
Answer: c
Clarification: A typical Loess is unconsolidated, unstratified, and porous accumulation of particles of the size range 0.01-0.05 mm in diameter. This size fraction makes almost 40 percent of a particular loess deposit rest being made up of still finer clay grade material.

13. What is the term used for wind blown deposits of silt and clay grade particles?
a) Dunes
b) Loess
c) Hills
d) Ventifacts
Answer: b
Clarification: The term loess is used for wind blown deposits of silt and clay grade particles. Dune is used to refer to sand particles. Ventifacts and hills are usually rocks.

14. Treating the sands locally with crude oil is not a method of combating the advancing sands.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Clarification: Treating the sands locally with crude oil whereby their susceptibility for transport by wind is considerably reduced. It is one of the effective methods to combat advancing sands.

250+ TOP MCQs on Effects of Faulting and Answers

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Effects of Faulting”.

1. What is the effect of faulting on outcrop?
a) Changes in the elevation of the ground
b) Omission of some strata where they are normally expected
c) Repetition of some strata in a given direction
d) Changes in elevation, omission of some strata, repetition of some strata
Answer: d
Clarification: Faulting is essentially a process of rupturing and displacement along the plane of rupture. Its effects may involve- changes in the elevation of the ground, omission of some strata where they are normally expected, repetition of some strata in a given direction and displacements and shifts in the continuity of the same rocks in certain regions.

2. What is the effect of strike faults to the strata?
a) Extension
b) Repetition
c) Omission
d) Repetition and repetition
Answer: d
Clarification: Strike faults are those, which are developed parallel to the strike of the outcrops. These faults produce, besides other changes, two pronounced effects on the outcrops repetition and omission of strata.

3. When the downthrow is against direction of the bed, it leads to ___________
a) Omission
b) Repetition
c) Extension
d) Weakening
Answer: b
Clarification: Repetition of the strata occurs, when the downthrow is against the direction of the dip of the bed in which faulting has taken place.

4. When the downthrow is _____________ direction of the dip, it leads to omission.
a) Parallel to
b) Against
c) Inclined at certain angle
d) Doesn’t depend on downthrow
Answer: a
Clarification: Omission of the strata takes place in a strike fault when the downthrow is parallel to the direction of slip of the faulted bed.

5. What has to be studied at first to tell about the effects with certainty?
a) Aerial photographs
b) Globe
c) Geological maps
d) Topographical photographs
Answer: c
Clarification: It is only after the study of geological maps that the existence of faults at the first place and their effects on the rocks may get established with some certainty.

6. Dip fault leads to ___________
a) Horizontal shift
b) Vertical shift
c) Inclined shift
d) Outburst
Answer: a
Clarification: In dip faults which occur parallel to the dip of the outcrop, the most prominent effect observed after faulting and erosion of the upthrown block is a horizontal shift between the two parts of the outcrop.

7. Which fault causes offset?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Dip fault
Answer: c
Clarification: Oblique faults cause an offset in the sequence, which is associated with either a gap or an overlap depending upon the downthrow direction.

8. Gap or overlap depends upon ___________
a) Upthrow direction
b) Downthrow direction
c) Heave
d) Hade angle
Answer: b
Clarification: Oblique faults cause an offset in the sequence, which is associated with either a gap or an overlap depending upon the downthrow direction.

9. What will result in an offset with overlap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
Answer: a
Clarification: Oblique faults with downthrow to the left side result in an offset with an overlap.

10. What will result in an offset with gap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
Answer: c
Clarification: Oblique faults with downthrow to the right side result in an offset with a gap.

11. Effects of faults in different types of folded strata is same as dipping strata.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The effects of faults on different types of folded sequence is broadly the same as in plainly dipping strata. But with changes in the altitude of the faults or that of rocks, quite complicated results may be seen.

12. What is the effect of faults on topography?
a) Fault gaps
b) Crust extension
c) Fault scarps
d) Crevices
Answer: c
Clarification: One of the main effects of the faults on topography is that they very often result in the development of distinct types of steep slopes which are aptly called fault scarps.

13. The type of scarps not considered under study is ___________
a) Fault scarps
b) Dip scarps
c) Fault-line scarps
d) Composite-fault scarps
Answer: b
Clarification: Three types of fault associated scarps are often recognized: fault scarps, fault-line scarps and composite-fault scarps.

14. The fault which is the result of both fault scarps and fault-line scarps is?
a) Compound-fault scarps
b) Composite-fault scarps
c) Dual-fault scarps
d) By-fault scarps
Answer: b
Clarification: When a given slope is believed to be the result of both of these processes, fault scarp and fault-line scarp, the scarp is of composite type, and is called composite-fault scarp.

15. The type of scarp involving erosion is ___________
a) Fault scarp
b) Fault-line scarp
c) Composite-fault scarp
d) Dip-fault scarp
Answer: b
Clarification: In the fault-line scarp, the relief is produced due to the process of unequal erosion along the fault line with the passage of time.

250+ TOP MCQs on Formation and Descriptive Study of Minerals – 04 and Answers

Engineering Geology online quiz on “Formation and Descriptive Study of Minerals – 04”.

1. Carbonate minerals are found usually in ___________
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
d) Metamorphic and igneous rocks
Answer: c
Clarification: The carbonate minerals are generally and most widely found in the sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.

2. Name the carbonate mineral which is found in ultrabasic igneous rocks.
a) Dolomite
b) Calcite
c) Magnesite
d) Jasper
Answer: c
Clarification: Magnesite is found in the ultrabasic igneous rocks which are not common among the other minerals and also among the other groups.

3. What is the structure or form of dolomite?
a) Rhombohedral
b) Columnar
c) Tabular
d) Flaky
Answer: a
Clarification: Dolomite mineral is usually found in rhombohedral structure. In most cases, it is not found in any other form or structure.

4. What is the colour of the magnesite when pure?
a) Yellow
b) Bone white
c) Blue
d) Black
Answer: b
Clarification: Magnesite mineral is found is colours like white, shades of grey and also sometimes brown. But when it is in the pure form, it is found in bone white colour.

5. What is the colour and diaphaneity of a calcite mineral respectively?
a) Yellow and opaque
b) Blue and transparent
c) White and transparent
d) Grey and translucent
Answer: c
Clarification: The calcite mineral is white in colour and its diaphaneity is transparent. The chemical composition of calcite is calcium carbonate.

6. The carbonate minerals have high hardness.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The hardness of the carbonate minerals usually varies between 2.5 and 3. Hence they are said to have low hardness.

7. What is the streak given by calcite minerals?
a) Colourless
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
Answer: b
Clarification: Unlike the quartz minerals, the carbonate minerals give white streak which is an important distinguishing property of the minerals from other groups.

8. Dolomite is formed by the action of magnesian rich sea water on which deposit?
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
c) Granite
d) Basalt
Answer: a
Clarification: As a rock constituent, dolomite is believed to have been formed by the action of magnesian rich sea water on original limestone deposit. This process is called in petrology dolomitization.

9. Which carbonate mineral has this chemical composition- CaCO3 Mg(CO3)2?
a) Magnesite
b) Calcite
c) Dolomite
d) Jasper
Answer: c
Clarification: Dolomite has the chemical composition CaCO3 Mg(CO3)2. Whereas calcite doesn’t have Mg in its composition and magnesite lacks Ca in its composition.

10. Which lustre cannot occur to the calcite?
a) Adamantine
b) Waxy
c) Vitreous
d) Silky
Answer: a
Clarification: Calcite minerals show few lustres, vitreous, waxy, silky but they do not show adamantine lustre which is exclusively shown by diamond.

11. How many sets of cleavage is shown by calcite minerals usually?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Clarification: The calcite minerals are known to show three sets of cleavage which is pretty distinctive compared to other mineral groups.

12. Which mineral is used as refractory material?
a) Calcite
b) Rock crystal
c) Talc
d) Magnesite
Answer: d
Clarification: The major uses of magnesite mineral is that it used as refractory materials in the refracrtory bricks installed in the lining of the furnaces and also used for chemical compounds of magnesium.

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250+ TOP MCQs on Structures of Metamorphic Rocks – 01 and Answers

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Structures of Metamorphic Rocks – 01”.

1. Which is the structure with extremely fine rock mass?
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Gneissose structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: a
Clarification: Cataclastic structure is characterized by the development of extremely fine rock mass under the influence of severe crushing and shearing effects operating during metamorphism.

2. Give an example for a rock with cataclastic structure.
a) Schist
b) Marble
c) Slate
d) Augen gneiss
Answer: c
Clarification: The effect of shearing and crushing in the metamorphic rocks undergone metamorphism can be observed in rocks spread over wide areas. Rocks like crush breccia, mylonite and slate show this type of structure.

3. Structure involving flaky or rod-like structures is ______________
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Gneissose structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: b
Clarification: The rock with schistose structure is made up of broadly parallel or sub-parallel layers or bands of flaky, platy or rod-like minerals making it very weak in the direction of parallelism.

4. The structure which also has flaky appearance and bands other than schistose is ____________
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Gneissose structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: c
Clarification: In gneissose structure. Bands or folia of platy and flaky minerals alternate with those of equidimensional and granular minerals.

5. Gneissose is indicative of advance degree of metamorphism.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: The gneissose texture is indicative of an advance degree of metamorphism under combined action of high temperature, high pressure and active participation of fluids.

6. Structure involving porphyroblasts is ____________
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Gneissose structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: d
Clarification: Maculose structure is characterized by a spotted appearance of the rock that may be caused due to the formation of large-sized crystals called porphyroblasts within an otherwise fine grained rock.

7. The structure similar to maculose is __________
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Augen structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: c
Clarification: Augen structure is broadly similar to maculose type and is typical of metamorphic rocks in which the effects of crushing under pressure are clearly associated with recrystallization.

8. Which structure has lens-like shaped structure?
a) Cataclastic structure
b) Schistose structure
c) Augen structure
d) Maculose structure
Answer: c
Clarification: In augen structure, some resistant minerals get deformed into thin, lenticular, lens like shapes giving a characteristic appearance to the rock.

9. The metamorphic rocks showing granulose structure is __________
a) Gneiss
b) Slate
c) Schist
d) Marble
Answer: d
Clarification: Granulose structure is a typical structure of metamorphic rocks like marble and quartzite and is characterized by an essentially granular character of the constituent minerals.

250+ TOP MCQs on Quake Resistant Buildings and Answers

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Quake Resistant Buildings”.

1. Structures built on which land have to withstand greater risk during earthquakes?
a) Solid mass
b) Loose soil
c) Strong rocks
d) Unfractured mass
Answer: b
Clarification: Structures built on loose soil or sediments or weak rocks will have to withstand greater risk compared to those founded on solid bed rocks in the same region, other things being the same.

2. What do the rocks undergo during seismic shocks?
a) Tension
b) Expansion
c) Strengthening
d) Compaction
Answer: d
Clarification: Structures built on loose soil are more risky, due to the fact that soil particles undergo a lot of compaction during seismic shocks thereby causing settlement.

3. What should be the type of foundation for concrete and masonry buildings?
a) Continuous
b) Discontinuous
c) Shallow foundation
d) Isolated
Answer: a
Clarification: Foundations for concrete and masonry buildings should be excavated to the same level throughout the building, and should be, as far as possible of continuous type.

4. What is the characteristic of walls for quake resistant buildings?
a) Heavy weight
b) As thick as possible
c) Light weight
d) Acoustic
Answer: c
Clarification: The walls should be unless properly designed for resisting lateral forces, as light in weight as possible and made up of wood or light weight concrete.

5. What should be maintained in cross walls?
a) Continuity
b) Discontinuity
c) Intersections
d) Gaps
Answer: a
Clarification: Continuity of crosswalls should be maintained as far as possible and in such a way that different parts of the building behave as integrals of the same structure and not at random.

6. Stronger and resistant walls should be designed with plain concrete.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: Stronger and resistant walls should be designed with reinforced rather than plain concrete.

7. Which type of roofs gives better resistance against shocks?
a) Sloped roofs
b) Thached roofs
c) Flat roofs
d) Straw roofs
Answer: c
Clarification: Flat, RCC roofs give better resistance against shocks compared to the sloping roofs or those designed with different slope angles.

8. Which of the following need not be avoided for construction of quake resistant buildings?
a) Uniform height
b) Chimneys
c) Heavy weight walls
d) Discontinuous foundations
Answer: a
Clarification: As far as possible, uniform height should be given to the structure. The rest of the options have to be avoided as much as possible, as they are risky for the construction of quake resistant buildings.

9. A dam is subjected to simpler system of forces during an earthquake compared to the other buildings.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: A dam is subject to a more complex system of forces during an earthquake compared to a multi-storeyed building. The risk factor has to be of a higher order.

10. In a storage dam, how many forces have to be considered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Clarification: In a storage dam, two types of forces have to be considered: Force due to dam and forces due to reservoir water.

11. To avoid shearing, dam has to be placed as far as possible from __________
a) Joints
b) Folds
c) Intrusions
d) Faults
Answer: d
Clarification: For avoiding failure due to shear, the proximity of a fault must be clearly ascertained. These should be placed as far away from faults as possible.