Category: Engineering Geology Objective Questions

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Physical Properties – 05”.

1. The density range lies between 2.5 and 4.5 g/cc for __________
a) Metallic minerals
b) Non-metallic minerals
c) Metalloid minerals
d) Ore minerals
Answer: b
Clarification: The non-metallic minerals have low values of density, ranging between 2.5 and 4.5 g/cc, whereas metallic minerals and ores have densities as high as 20 g/cc.

2. Atoms of greater atomic radii show __________
a) Less density
b) Greater density
c) No difference
d) Doesn’t depend on atomic radii
Answer: a
Clarification: Minerals with atoms of greater atomic radii show less density values compared with those made of atoms of smaller atomic radii.

3. Form in which neither a crystal face nor a cleavage is seen is __________
a) Crystalline
b) Crystallized
c) Amorphous
d) Crystalline and crystallized
Answer: c
Clarification: Amorphous form is a form in which neither a crystal face nor a cleavage is seen. There is no evidence of orderly arrangement of atoms in this form.

4. The minerals which develop electric charge upon heating are called __________
a) Pyro-electric minerals
b) Piezo-electric minerals
c) Paramagnetic minerals
d) Diamagnetic minerals
Answer:a
Clarification: In some minerals an electric charge may be developed by heating. These are called pyroelectric minerals. Examples: Tourmaline, boracite, quartz etc.

5. The Phenomenon where electric charge develops due to application of pressure is __________
a) Pyro-electric minerals
b) Piezo-electric minerals
c) Paramagnetic minerals
d) Diamagnetic minerals
Answer: b
Clarification: In some minerals, an electric charge is developed by applying pressure. This group is termed as piezo-electric. Examples: Tourmaline and quartz.

6. How many minerals are present in the scale of fusibility given by Von Kobell?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: d
Clarification: A scale of fusibility has been suggested by Von Kobell. It consists of six minerals arranged according to temperature of fusion. Stibnite, Natrolite, Alamandine, Actinolite, Orthoclase and Bronzite.

7. Specific gravity of mineral changes with temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Since temperature and pressure are both known to change volume of substance, it follows that density will also show a change when a mineral is subjected to elevated temperature or high pressures.

8. Which of the following minerals can scratch Topaz?
a) Corundum
b) Apatite
c) Gypsum
d) Quartz
Answer: a
Clarification: Only corundum can scratch topaz because, all the other minerals given have lesser Mohs number compared to topaz, whereas topaz as hardness number 8 and corundum has 9.

9. Streak colour and colour of the mineral are always same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It follows that the colour of a mineral may not be the same as its streak. For identification, streak is relied upon more than the colour of the mineral.

10. Which of the following mineral shows phosphorescence?
a) Orthoclase
b) Calcite
c) Quartz
d) Galena
Answer: c
Clarification: Phosphorescence is similar to fluorescence in essential character but in this case light is emitted by mineral not during the act of exposure but after the substance is transferred rapidly to a dark place. Fluorite, quartz, willemite and diamond show this phenomenon.

11. Quartz shows which lustre?
a) Metallic
b) Vitreous
c) Pearly
d) Resinous
Answer: b
Clarification: Vitreous lustre is a type of lustre which is typical of glass, ice etc. Example: Quartz.

12. Which among the following shows silky lustre?
a) Quartz
b) Galena
c) Gypsum
d) Diamond
Answer: c
Clarification: Silky lustre is like the shine of pure silk. Example: Gypsum.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on ” Important Sedimentary Rocks – 02″.

1. The type of sandstone where cementing material is clay is ______________
a) Siliceous sandstone
b) Calcareous sandstone
c) Argillaceous sandstone
d) Ferruginous sandstone
Answer: c
Clarification: Argillaceous sandstones are among the soft varieties of sandstone because the cementing material is clay that has not much inherent strength.

2. The term quartzite is associated with which type of sandstone?
a) Siliceous sandstone
b) Calcareous sandstone
c) Argillaceous sandstone
d) Ferruginous sandstone
Answer: a
Clarification: When silica is the cementing material in the sandstones it is called siliceous sandstone. Sometimes the quality of the siliceous cement is so dense and uniform that a massive compact and homogeneous rock is formed. This is called quartzite.

3. Red Fort in India is built using which sedimentary rock?
a) Shale
b) White Sandstone
c) Red sandstone
d) Breccia
Answer: c
Clarification: The sandstones are most commonly used as materials of construction: building stones, pavement stones, road stones and also as a source material for concrete. The Red Fort of India is made up of red sandstones.

4. Shales are generally characterized with distinct ____________
a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Specific gravity
d) Parting
Answer: d
Clarification: Shale is a finely-grained sedimentary rock of argillaceous composition. Shales are generally characterized with a distinct fissility (parting) parallel to the bedding planes.

5. The mineralogical composition of shale is clearly understood.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: The exact mineralogical composition of shales is often difficult to ascertain because of the very fine size of the constituents.

6. The tendency of a rock to split into flat, shell-like fragments parallel to bedding is called ____________
a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Specific gravity
d) Fissility
Answer: d
Clarification: Shales are characterized with a distinct property of fissility, which may be defined as “the tendency of a rock to split into flat, shell-like fragments parallel to bedding”. The fissility of shales is partly primary and partly secondary in nature.

7. Which type of shale involves both clastic and non-clastic sources?
a) Residual shales
b) Transported shales
c) Hybrid shales
d) Quartz shales
Answer: c
Clarification: In hybrid shales, materials derived both from clastic sources and non-clastic sources especially those from organic sources make up the rock.

8. Name the type of shale involving decay and decomposition.
a) Residual shales
b) Transported shales
c) Hybrid shales
d) Quartz shales
Answer: a
Clarification: Residual shales are formed from decay and decomposition of pre-existing rocks followed by compaction and consolidation of the particles in adjoining basins without much mixing.

9. Which sedimentary rock is present in majority on earth?
a) Shale
b) Sandstone
c) Breccia
d) Conglomerate
Answer: a
Clarification: Of all the sedimentary rocks occurring on the surface of the earth, shales are the most predominant forming 70-80 percent of this group. These rocks occur in massive formations and beds extending over several hundred kilometres in many cases.

10. Which among the following is not a use of shale?
a) Used in manufacture of bricks and tiles
b) Used as source of alumina
c) Used as paraffin
d) Used as precious gemstone
Answer: d
Clarification: Shales are variously used for manufacture of bricks and tiles. These are at place source of alumina, paraffin and oil.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Terminology – 01”.

1. The study of earthquakes is called __________
a) Eathquakology
b) Tremology
c) Seismology
d) Quakegraphy
Answer: c
Clarification: The science dealing with the study of earthquake in all their aspects is called seismology. It is interdisciplinary science, which is partly geology and partly physics.

2. The point of origin of an earthquake below the earth’s surface is called __________
a) Isocentre
b) Isopoint
c) Focus
d) Epicentre
Answer: c
Clarification: The place or point of origin of an earthquake below the surface of the earth is termed as its focus or hypocenter. It may lie from a few hundred meters to hundreds of kilometres below the surface.

3. The point vertically above the focus is __________
a) Epicenter
b) Isocenter
c) Epivector
d) Isovector
Answer: a
Clarification: The point or place on the surface vertically above the focus of a particular earthquake is termed as its epicentre.

4. What is the location of maximum damage caused due to an earthquake?
a) Focus
b) Epicenter
c) 100 km from epicenter
d) Same everywhere
Answer: b
Clarification: The epicenter is that place on the surface of the earth where the vibrations from a particular earthquake reach first of all. It is often the location of maximum damage in that event.

5. What is the maximum depth of focus observed till date?
a) 100 km
b) 500 km
c) 700 km
d) 1000 km
Answer: c
Clarification: As regards the distance from epicenter to focus, or depth of focus, it has been observed from the study of seismic records that no earthquake with a focus deeper than 700 km has been recorded so far.

6. The seismic waves which are longitudinal __________
a) Primary waves
b) Secondary waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: a
Clarification: The P-waves are also called the primary waves, push and pull waves, longitudinal waves and compressional waves. These are the fastest of the seismic waves and are longitudinal in character.

7. The seismic waves which are also called transverse waves are __________
a) S-waves
b) P-waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: a
Clarification: The S-waves are also called secondary waves, the shear waves, the transverse waves or the distortional waves. These waves are transverse in character, like the light waves.

8. Which waves have helped geologists understand the nature of the earth’s core?
a) P-waves
b) S-waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: b
Clarification: The S-waves would not propagate through a liquid medium at all. This is a proven fact with S-waves and has helped geologists a lot in understanding the nature of the core of the earth.

9. What are the P and S waves collectively called?
a) Group waves
b) Combined waves
c) Body waves
d) Duel waves
Answer: c
Clarification: The P and S-waves are sometimes collectively referred to as body waves because they travel deep into the body of the Earth before re-emerging on the surface.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “Rocks as Materials for Construction – 01”.

1. The branch or study which deals with behaviour of rocks under applied forces is called __________
a) Soil mechanics
b) Rock mechanics
c) Lithology
d) Geology
Answer: b
Clarification: Rock mechanics deals essentially with behaviour of rocks under applied force fields in natural as well as in laboratory conditions. Rock mechanics has developed at such a fast pace during last it has already become a compulsory part of advanced civil engineering practice.

2. Which material can be used as a roofing material among the following?
a) Slate
b) Granite
c) Marble
d) Gneiss
Answer: a
Clarification: Slates used in many areas as roofing material for ordinary constructions and in pavements also fall in the category of building stones.

3. Which type of compressive strength is taken as the most important index property of stones?
a) Confined
b) Drained
c) Undrained
d) Unconfined
Answer: d
Clarification: Stones like all other solids fail when subjected to loads beyond their strength. The failure takes place under compressive, tensile and shear forces at different values. It is however, the unconfined compressive strength, which is taken as the most important index property of stones.

4. What is the maximum force expressed per unit area, which a stone can withstand without rupturing?
a) Shear strength
b) Tensile strength
c) Compressive strength
d) Bending strength
Answer: c
Clarification: Compressive strength is also sometimes referred as crushing strength of a stone and may be defined as the maximum force expressed per unit area, which a stone can withstand without rupturing.

5. What is not true about unconfined test?
a) It is also called tri-axial test
b) The specimen has no lateral support
c) The specimen has no lateral restraint
d) It is also called uniaxial test
Answer: a
Clarification: The load at failure divided by the area of cross-section of the sample gives the unconfined compressive strength of the rock. The value is termed unconfined or uniaxial because the test specimen has no lateral support or restraint and is being compressed only along one axis.

6. Which rock possesses very high compressive strength?
a) Igneous
b) Sedimentary
c) Metamorphic
d) Sedimentary and metamorphic
Answer: a
Clarification: Igneous rocks being crystalline in character, compact and interlocking in texture and uniform in structure possess very high compressive strengths compared to sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.

7. What is the capacity of a stone to withstand bending loads called?
a) Bending strength
b) Shear strength
c) Transverse strength
d) Lateral strength
Answer: c
Clarification: Transverse strength is defined as the capacity of a stone to withstand bending loads. Such loads are only rarely involved in situations where stones are commonly used.

8. Ratio between the total volume of the rock pore spaces and the total volume of the rock sample is called __________
a) Void ratio
b) Porosity
c) Pores ratio
d) Bulk density
Answer: b
Clarification: Numerically, porosity is expressed as the ratio between the total volume of the pore spaces and the total volume of the rock sample and is expressed commonly in percentage terms.

9. Pick the stone which is objectionable for use in moist conditions.
a) Granite
b) Marble
c) Gabbro
d) Limestone
Answer: d
Clarification: Sandstones and limestones may show varieties as high absorption values as 10% or more. Selection of such highly porous varieties of stones for use in building construction, especially in moist situations, would be greatly objectionable.

10. The density of the rock with natural moisture content is __________
a) Dry density
b) Wet density
c) Bulk density
d) Natural density
Answer: c
Clarification: Bulk density is the density of the rock with natural moisture content. It is assumed that in such cases all the pore spaces are not filled with water.

11. A road stone should possess sufficient affinity for binding.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: Road stones should possess sufficient affinity for binding materials to ensure stability. Stones with an ability to form their own binding material under traffic are preferred.

Engineering Geology Multiple Choice Questions on “The Mantle, The Core”.

1. The depth up to which the mantle is said to exist is ________
a) 2000 km
b) 1500 km
c) 2900 km
d) 1800 km
Answer: c
Clarification: The second layer, Mantle, lies beneath the crust and this zone starting from the lower boundary of the crust continues up to a depth of 2,900 km.

2. The thickness of the 2 layers of the upper mantle is approximately said to be ________
a) 400 and 600 km
b) 300 and 500 km
c) 450 and 800 km
d) 300 and 400 km
Answer: a
Clarification: The upper mantle is further divided into two layers of 400 and 600 km thickness respectively.

3. The exact nature of the mantle is completely understood.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Clarification: It is said that the exact nature of the mantle is as yet incompletely understood.

4. Which of the following is not true about Asthenosphere?
a) It is present in the upper mantle
b) It is in solid state
c) It is the source of volcanic activity
d) It is in plastic rather than solid state
Answer: b
Clarification: It is in solid state is not true and the remaining options are true and they are characteristics of the asthenosphere. In Greek, “asthenes” means without strength and hence the name.

5. Who was the first person to tell about the Core?
a) Graham Bell
b) Albert Einstein
c) Isaac Newton
d) R.D. Oldham
Answer: d
Clarification: The existence of the core was suggested by R.D. Oldham in 1906 and subsequently confirmed by other seismologists.

6. The depth at which the core layer starts and ends respectively is ____________
a) 2900 and 6371 km
b) 2000 and 5371 km
c) 2500 and 4771 km
d) 2000 and 5000 km
Answer: a
Clarification: The mantle extends up to the depth of 2900 km and from that depth it is the core that is said to be present and the radius of the Earth is 6371 km and hence the core is said to extend till 6371 km.

7. Which of the following is true about the inner core?
a) It is believed to be a semi solid body
b) It is believed to be a solid body
c) It is believed to be a liquid body
d) It is believed to be a gaseous body.
Answer: b
Clarification: The inner core with a thickness of around 1790 km is believed to be a solid body.

8. The density of the Earth in the core immediately after the mantle is _______
a) 8 g/cc
b) 7.6 g/cc
c) 9.9 g/cc
d) 8.7 g/cc
Answer: c
Clarification: At the base of the mantle, density is inferred as 5.7 g/cc that jumps to 9.9 g/cc at the top of the core.

9. The layer which does not transmit the S-waves is _______
a) Outer core
b) Crust
c) Mantle
d) Inner core
Answer: a
Clarification: The outer core behaves more like a liquid because the S-waves from the earthquake shocks reaching this zone are not transmitted through this zone at all.

10. There is a hypothesis that the inner core is made up chiefly of iron and nickel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Clarification: As regards the chemical composition of the inner core, the hypothesis that it is made up chiefly of iron and nickel elements has found support from many accounts.

11. The density of the Earth at its centre is said to be ________
a) 9.9 g/cc
b) 8.8 g/cc
c) 13 g/cc
d) 12.7 g/cc
Answer: c
Clarification: The value of density reaches 12.7 g/cc at the boundary of the inner core and becomes 13 g/cc at the centre of the Earth.

12. The layer which is said to support the slow moving tectonic plates is ________
a) Asthenosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Mohorovic sphere
d) Core layer
Answer: a
Clarification: The Asthenosphere is believed to be located entirely in the upper mantle and supports the slowly moving tectonic plates.

13. What is the thickness of the inner core?
a) 790 km
b) 1790 km
c) 2790 km
d) 3790 km
Answer: b
Clarification: The inner core, is believed to be in solid metallic state and is said have thickness of about 1790 km.

14. The layer which is believed to be the source of volcanic activity is ________
a) Inner core
b) Outer core
c) Asthenosphere
d) Mohorovicic layer
Answer: c
Clarification: The asthenosphere is believed to be the source of much volcanic activity and many other processes. It is said be to located completely in the upper mantle.

Engineering Geology Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people on “Classification of Faults – 02”.

1. Horsts and grabens are believed to occur due to ___________
a) Lateral compression
b) Shear compression
c) Lateral tension
d) Bending
Answer: c
Clarification: The origin of horsts and grabens is believed to be due to lateral tension in the crust in most cases.

2. Faults involving extensive blocks and resulting in horsts and grabens are called ___________
a) Extensive faults
b) Block faults
c) H-B faults
d) Vertical faults
Answer: b
Clarification: Faults involving extensive blocks and resulting in horsts and grabens are often called as block faults and the process as block faulting.

3. Faults in which the fault plane is vertical and the resulting movement is vertical is ___________
a) Vertical faults
b) Straight faults
c) Reverse faults
d) Enecholon faults
Answer: a
Clarification: Faults in which the fault plane is vertical or nearly so and the resulting movement of blocks is also in a vertical direction are termed as vertical faults. It is customary to group vertical faults along with normal faults while discussing their origin.

4. In which fault the hanging wall appears to have moved up with respect to the foot wall?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
d) Radial fault
Answer: b
Clarification: Reverse fault is such a type of fault in which the hanging wall appears to have moved up with respect to the foot wall.

5. The fault in which the fault plane is generally inclined between 45° and horizontal is ___________
a) Reverse fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Enechelon fault
Answer: b
Clarification: In reverse faults, the fault plane is generally inclined between horizontal and 45 degrees although reverse faults with steeply inclined fault surfaces have been also encountered.

6. What does the reverse fault cause to the crust of the Earth?
a) Extension of the crust
b) Strengthening of the crust
c) Weakening of the crust
d) Shortening of the crust
Answer: d
Clarification: By virtue of their inclination and direction of movement, reverse faulting involves shortening of the crust of the crust of the Earth (compared with normal faults).

7. Thrust faults belong to which variety of faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Strike-slip faults
d) Hinge faults
Answer: b
Clarification: Thrust faults are, broadly speaking, such varieties of reverse faults in which the hanging wall has moved up relative to the foot wall.

8. What is the fault angle of the thrust faults?
a) More than 45°
b) Less than 45°
c) Lesser than 60°
d) More than 90°
Answer: b
Clarification: Thrust faults are the types of reverse faults in which the hanging wall has moved up relative to the foot wall and the faults dip at angles below 45 degrees. Faults dipping above 45 degrees with hanging wall having gone up are then called as reverse faults.

9. The type of thrust in which the hanging wall seems to have been actively and actually displaced with respect to a passive foot wall is called ___________
a) Under thrust
b) Over thrust
c) Upper thrust
d) Intermediate thrust
Answer: a
Clarification: Thrusts are further distinguished into two sub-types: The over thrusts and the under thrusts. In the over thrusts, the hanging wall seems to have been actively and actually displaced with respect to a passive foot wall.

10. Which mountain range presents example of thrust faults?
a) The Alps
b) The Andes
c) The Rockies
d) The Himalaya
Answer: d
Clarification: The Himalayan Mountains in the Indian sub-continent present numerous examples of thrust faults developed all along its extension from northwest to southeast.

11. What is the term used for blocks or rocks that have been translated to great distances?
a) Thrusts
b) Imbricate structures
c) Nappes
d) Enecholon
Answer: c
Clarification: Nappes is the term used for extensive blocks of rocks that have been translated to great distances, often ranging to several kilometres, along a thrust plane.

12. The term which studied under faults but also is associated with folding is ___________
a) Nappes
b) Thrusts
c) Radial fault
d) Graben
Answer: a
Clarification: The large-scale movement of nappes may be attributed to a major thrusting or a recumbent folding followed by thrust faulting.