Category: Fermentation Technology Objective Questions

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Fermenting Milk – Cheese Production”.

1. Which of the following is obtained by fermenting milk?
A. Gundruk
B. Cheese
C. Sinki
D. Kombuchaid5fdb6a6e756d0″

Answer: B
Clarification: Cheese is a product which is obtained from the fermentation of milk. It is available in a wide range of flavors, and textures. It contains proteins and fat from the milk of cows, goat, buffalo, or sheep, etc.

2. Which of the following leads to the formation of soft cheese?
A. Removal of a small proportion of whey
B. Using more amount of milk
C. Removal of the larger proportion of whey
D. Using less amount of milkid5fdb6a6e756f1″

Answer: A
Clarification: The removal of the small proportion of whey results in the formation of softer cheese. Whereas, the removal of the larger proportion of whey results in the formation of harder cheese. The greater the amount of whey removed; the smaller will be the yield of cheese per unit of milk.

3. The large holes in the cheese are due to ______________
A. Oxygen production
B. Carbon dioxide production
C. Sulfur dioxide release
D. Lead dioxide releaseid5fdb6a6e75701″

Answer: B
Clarification: The large holes in the cheese are due to the production of carbon dioxide by the bacterium, especially Propionibacterium shermanii which is used in the production of cheese. This is particularly observed in Swiss cheese.

4. Which of the following is a soft cheese?
A. Cottage cheese
B. Cheddar cheese
C. Parmesan cheese
D. Swiss cheeseid5fdb6a6e7570d”

Answer: A
Clarification: Cottage cheese is a type of soft cheese. It is made either with skimmed milk, whole milk, or by adding cream. However, the addition of cream increases the smoothness of cheese and also improves its flavor and texture.

5. Which of the following is a semi-hard cheese?
A. Cheddar cheese
B. Parmesan cheese
C. Edam cheese
D. Cream cheeseid5fdb6a6e75718″

Answer: C
Clarification: Edam cheese is a type of semi-hard cheese. It is originated in the Netherlands. The production starts by rennet coagulation and restriction of lactic acid production. It matures within 2 weeks and 9 months. Gouda cheese, Colby cheese, Montasio cheese are a few examples of semi-hard cheese.

6. Rennet is _______________
A. The hard cheese
B. The complex set of enzymes
C. The soft cheese
D. The semi-hard cheeseid5fdb6a6e75722″

Answer: B
Clarification: Rennet is a complex set of enzymes that are produced in the stomach of ruminants and its key component is chymosin which is a protease enzyme. It is used in the production of cheese as it separates milk into curd and whey.

7. Which of the following is a rennet-free cheese?
A. Gouda cheese
B. Cheddar cheese
C. Parmesan cheese
D. Kraft Philadelphia cream cheeseid5fdb6a6e7572d”

Answer: D
Clarification: Kraft Philadelphia cream cheese is a type of cream cheese which do not consist of rennet. Rennet is obtained generally from the stomach of calves and is used in coagulation of milk. Gouda cheese, Cheddar cheese, and Parmesan cheese are rennet containing cheese.

8. The optimum temperature for heating the curds is _________
A. 18°C
B. 28°C
C. 38°C
D. 48°Cid5fdb6a6e75737″

Answer: C
Clarification: The optimum temperature for the heating of curds is 38°C. The temperature above 46°C or 115°F will destroy the cultures which develop the flavor in cheese.

9. The French word for cheese is __________
A. Formaticum
B. Fromage
C. Formaggio
D. Kaasid5fdb6a6e75742″

Answer: B
Clarification: The French word for cheese is fromage. Formaggio is an Italian word and formaticum is a Latin word, referring to the shape or form given to the cheese in a mold.

10. The curds are cut with curd cutter to ____________
A. Produce lactic acid
B. Coagulate proteins
C. Remove whey
D. Mature the cheeseid5fdb6a6e7574b”

Answer: C
Clarification: The curds are cut with curd cutter to remove the whey. In order to prepare soft cheese, less amount of whey is removed and for the preparation of harder cheese, more amount of whey is removed. The composition of whey determines the softness and the hardness of a cheese.

11. Which of the following equipment is not required in the production of cheese?
A. Thermometer
B. Cheese Vat
C. Cheese press
D. Transilluminatorid5fdb6a6e75755″

Answer: D
Clarification: Transilluminator is not the equipment required for the production of cheese. Thermometer, cheese vat, cheese press, cheese moulds, refrigerator, curd cutters, heat sealer, and scales are the important equipment for cheese production.

12. The fermentation of milk to form cheese is done by ______________ bacterium species.
A. Saccharomyces spp.
B. Lactobacillus spp.
C. Aspergillus spp.
D. Penicillium spp.id5fdb6a6e7575f”

Answer: B
Clarification: The fermentation of milk requires Lactobacillus spp. in the formation of cheese. It is used as the starter culture in the formation of curd. Saccharomyces, Aspergillus, Penicillium are the genus belonging to the kingdom Fungi.

13. Romano cheese is a type of hard cheese.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb6a6e75769″

Answer: A
Clarification: Romano cheese is a type of hard cheese and is salty in taste. They are suitable primarily for grating and is similar to Pecorino Romano from where it got the name.

14. Cheddar cheese is a semi-solid cheese.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb6a6e75773″

Answer: B
Clarification: Cheddar cheese is a semi-solid cheese which has a lower content of moisture and is produced by higher temperature or by controlled fermentation. It originated in the village of Cheddar in Somerset.

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Continuous Sterilization”.

1. Which of the following time is not included in continuous sterilization?
A. Heating time
B. Cooling time
C. Holding time
D. Sterilization timeid5fcfc7502d7f9″

Answer: D
Clarification: The continuous sterilization includes the time period of heating where the medium is heated, followed by holding time where the medium is held at a certain temperature and finally the cooling period to restore the medium to the fermentation temperature.

2. The holding time at 135°C will be _________
A. 2.44 minutes
B. 51.9 seconds
C. 18.9 seconds
D. 2.7 secondsid5fcfc7502d82d”

Answer: B
Clarification: The Holding time at 135°C will be 51.9 seconds. This temperature time was calculated to give the value of the Del factor. 2.44 minutes was the holding time at 130°C. 2.7 seconds was the holding time at 150°C.

3. Which of the following is a type of continuous sterilizer?
A. Steam Injector
B. Inertial Impaction
C. Electrostatic attraction
D. Interceptionid5fcfc7502d848″

Answer: A
Clarification: There are two types of continuous sterilizers- Indirect heat exchanger and Direct Heat exchanger or steam injectors. The inertial impaction, electrostatic attraction, interception are the types of Filter sterilization.

4. What is the function of the holding loop?
A. It heats the medium
B. It sterilizes the medium
C. It holds the medium
D. It cools the mediumid5fcfc7502d854″

Answer: B
Clarification: The function of the holding loop is to sterilize the medium. The heating coil or loop sterilizes the medium and the cooling loop or coil cools the medium to the fermentation temperature. This is the basic process of continuous sterilization.

5. The sterilization in double spiral heat exchanger is done through ___________
A. Countercurrent mechanism
B. Counter mechanism
C. Symporter mechanism
D. Antiporter mechanismid5fcfc7502d85e”

Answer: A
Clarification: The sterilization in a double spiral heat exchanger is done through Countercurrent mechanism where steam is passed through one spiral and the medium is passed through the other spiral.

6. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of a direct plate exchanger?
A. Foaming occurs
B. High capital cost
C. If the media contains suspended solids, the plate may get blocked
D. High maintenanceid5fcfc7502d868″

Answer: C
Clarification: The main disadvantage of a direct plate exchanger is that if the media contains suspended solid particles, the plate might get blocked and the medium might not get sterilized. In this case, continuous steam injectors are used which does not get blocked due to suspended solids.

7. The fermenter vessel is sterilized at ____________
A. 20 psi
B. 15 psi
C. 5 psi
D. 10 psiid5fcfc7502d872″

Answer: B
Clarification: The fermenter vessel is sterilized at 15 psi. The jackets or coils of the fermenter are heated in steam for about 20 minutes. The medium which is sterilized is never added directly to the fermenter vessel until the vessel is sterilized. Otherwise, it may lead to contamination of the medium.

8. Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
A. Radiation
B. Chemical Treatment
C. Ultrasonic treatment
D. Coolingid5fcfc7502d87c”

Answer: D
Clarification: The alternative methods of sterilizations includes radiations, chemical treatment, ultrasonic treatment, heating, filtration. The medium which is to be sterilized is exposed to radiations or certain chemicals that will remove the contamination from the medium.

9. Which of the following is not an antimicrobial chemical agent?
A. Cresol
B. Formaldehyde
C. Acetone
D. Iodineid5fcfc7502d885″

Answer: C
Clarification: The major antimicrobial chemical agents are phenols like cresol, orthophenylphenol and halogens like Iodine, chloramines. Formaldehyde and Ethylene oxide are also used as chemo sterilizers. Acetone is a cleaning agent used in laboratories.

10. Which of the following wavelengths of radiation has the highest bacterial efficiency?
A. 270 nm
B. 280 nm
C. 265 nm
D. 290 nmid5fcfc7502d88f”

Answer: C
Clarification: The wavelengths around 265 nm has the highest bacterial efficiency. The radiation of 265 nm is absorbed by cellular components, leading to DNA damage and cell death. X-rays and Gamma rays are considered to be more lethal.

11. Which of the following organism can grow with or without oxygen?
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Obligate anaerobes
D. Aerotolerant anaerobesid5fcfc7502d899″

Answer: B
Clarification: Facultative anaerobes grow with or without oxygen. However, they grow better in the presence of oxygen and obtain their energy through aerobic respiration. If oxygen is absent, they utilize fermentation respiration.

12. Which of the following is the most preferable frequency for ultrasonic sterilization?
A. 500 kHz
B. 300 kHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 400 kHzid5fcfc7502d8a2″

Answer: A
Clarification: The most preferable frequency for ultrasonic sterilization is 500 kHz. The ultrasonic vibrations are generated which create the cavitation microbubbles and sterilize the medium.

13. Which of the following is an advantage of continuous sterilization over batch sterilization?
A. Solid matter can be used in media
B. Reduction of fermenter corrosion
C. Lower risk of contamination
D. Easier controlid5fcfc7502d8ab”

Answer: B
Clarification: The advantages of continuous sterilization over batch sterilization is that the corrosion of the fermenter is reduced. This happens due to the usage of stainless-steel materials which prevents corrosion.

14. The steam is injected into the system via a nozzle.
A. True
B. Falseid5fcfc7502d8b5″

Answer: A
Clarification: The steam is injected into the system via a nozzle. The media reaches the holding loop in the meantime and the steam sterilization occurs which removes the contaminants of the medium.

15. Differential media allows the growth of a certain type of organism and will inhibit the growth of certain microorganisms.
A. True
B. Falseid5fcfc7502d8be”

Answer: B
Clarification: Differential media is mainly used for differentiation of closely related group of organisms whereas the selective media allows the growth of the certain type of organisms and will inhibit the growth of certain microorganisms.

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Bioreactor – Vessel Design”.

1. What includes in the biosafety level 1?
A. Respiration protection is required
B. Full body suit
C. Biological safety cabinet
D. Laboratory coat, glovesid5fdbe7100adc1″

Answer: D
Clarification: Biosafety level 1 includes personal protective equipment like laboratory coat, gloves, safety glasses. Biosafety level 1 includes standard microbiological practices with facilities like a wash basin.

2. What includes in the biosafety level 2?
A. Respiration protection is required
B. Full body suit
C. Biological safety cabinet
D. Laboratory coat, glovesid5fdbe7100ade2″

Answer: C
Clarification: Biosafety level 2 includes a better biological safety cabinet. In addition, it also includes Biosafety level 1 lab coats, gloves, etc. BSL 2 practices include standard operating procedures for decontamination, sharp precautions, limited access and biohazard warning plus BSL 1.

3. The respiratory protection is a part of ______________
A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2
C. BSL 3
D. BSL 4id5fdbe7100adf1″

Answer: C
Clarification: The respiratory protection is a part of Biosafety level 3. In addition to it, it also includes the safety equipment of BSL 2. It includes practices like decontamination of laboratory clothing prior to laundering, controlled access plus BSL 2.

4. The use of full body suit is the safety equipment of ______________
A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2
C. BSL 3
D. BSL 4id5fdbe7100adfd”

Answer: D
Clarification: The use of full body suit is the safety equipment of Biosafety level 4. It should also include positive pressure with personal air supply plus the equipment of BSL 3. The experiments should be performed in a well-isolated area or a separate building with effluent decontamination and double-ended autoclave.

5. Who of the following is used to produce a cooling effect on the vessel?
A. Baffles
B. Sparger
C. Impeller
D. Stirrer glandsid5fdbe7100ae08″

Answer: A
Clarification: The baffles are used to produce a cooling effect on the vessel. The cooling coils are connected to the baffles which provide cooling when the heat is generated in the system. It also increases aeration and agitation efficiency.

6. What is the minimum volume of vessel required to produce 1 kg of antibody by batch fermentation?
A. 7 L
B. 500 L
C. 350 L
D. 200 Lid5fdbe7100ae1f”

Answer: B
Clarification: The minimum volume of vessel required to produce 1 kg of antibody by batch fermentation is 500 L. It is used in the production of IgG antibodies from mice. 7 L is required to carry out fed-batch fermentation and 350 L vessel volume is required for continuous fermentation.

7. How much amount of the medium is required for the production of 1 kg antibody in continuous fermentation?
A. 7,000 L
B. 10,000 L
C. 20,000 L
D. 5,000 Lid5fdbe7100ae2a”

Answer: A
Clarification: 7,000 L of the medium is required for the production of 1 kg antibody in continuous fermentation per year. 20,000 L of the medium is required for batch fermentation and 7,000 L is required for the fed-batch fermentation.

8. The heat exchangers are used to _______________
A. Maintain high temperature
B. Maintain low temperature
C. Maintain low pressure
D. Maintain low pressureid5fdbe7100ae34″

Answer: B
Clarification: The low or ambient temperature is maintained by internal heat exchangers fitted to the head plate through which cold and hot water are introduced. The jacketed vessel can also be used for this purpose.

9. The ________ is a vessel that contains all the parts and conditions necessary for the growth of desired microorganisms.
A. Impeller
B. Sparger
C. Bioreactor
D. Bafflesid5fdbe7100ae3e”

Answer: C
Clarification: The bioreactor is a vessel that contains all the parts and conditions necessary for the growth of desired microorganisms. It is a vessel that carries out all the fermentation reactions for the production of the desired product.

10. The jacketed vessel is more stable than the non-jacketed vessel.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdbe7100ae57″

Answer: A
Clarification: The jacketed vessel is more stable than the non-jacketed vessel as the jacketed vessel is designed such that it controls the temperature of its contents by using a heating or cooling jacket in the vessel. However, jacketed vessels are much costlier than non-jacketed vessels.

11. Mammalian cell culture processes are of shorter duration.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdbe7100ae64″

Answer: B
Clarification: Mammalian cell culture processes are of longer duration due to the slow growing nature of cells. In fed-batch culture, it may run from 7 to 14 days and in batch fermentation, it lasts for a few days.

12. Which of the following can be used as a quick method of getting liquid into a vessel?
A. Triple inlet
B. Double inlet
C. Septa
D. Single inletid5fdbe7100ae6e”

Answer: C
Clarification: Septa can be used as a quick method for getting liquid into the vessel. It consists of a rubber plug housed within a fitting that goes through the head plate which is used in providing liquid into a vessel.

13. Which of the following is not a method for the introduction of fluid in the vessel?
A. Double inlet
B. Triple inlet
C. Single inlet
D. Septaid5fdbe7100ae78″

Answer: A
Clarification: The double inlet is not used for the introduction of fluid or liquid into the vessel. The methods used are Single inlet, double inlet, and the Septa. The important advantage of these devices is that they save a lot of space.

14. The solenoid valve _________________
A. Contains the flow tube and the float
B. Is controlled by a signal from an external controller
C. The most expensive way of controlling gas flow
D. Consists of the rotor and housingid5fdbe7100ae82″

Answer: B
Clarification: The solenoid valve is controlled by a signal from an external controller operating to control temperature, pH, etc. It can be installed on the outlet side of the rotameter. Whereas a rotameter consists of the flow tube and the float. The mass flow controller is the most expensive way of controlling the gas flow. A peristaltic pump consists of the rotor and housing.

Fermentation Technology Quiz on “Brewing Yeast – Differentiation (Modern Methods)”.

1. Which of the following is not a modern method of differentiation?
A. RFLP
B. Plate tests
C. Karyotyping
D. PCRid5fdba5570f91d”

Answer: B
Clarification: Plate test is not a modern method of differentiation. It is a traditional method. Karyotyping, PCR, RFLP, AFLP are the modern methods for identification and differentiation of individual brewing yeasts.

2. What is the full form of RFLP?
A. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
B. Recognition Fragment Length Polymorphism
C. Random Fragment Linear Polymorphism
D. Random Fragment Linear Polymorphismid5fdba5570f948″

Answer: A
Clarification: The full form of RFLP is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism. The brewing strains of yeast can be differentiated based on length. It is neither simple nor a quick method.

3. RFLP is a ____________
A. Molecular scissor
B. PCR technique
C. Method of producing GMOs
D. Molecular markerid5fdba5570f958″

Answer: D
Clarification: RFLP is a molecular marker that is used to differentiate the strains of yeasts. The DNA is digested by restriction enzymes and the gel electrophoresis is performed to differentiate the length of the fragment. RAPD, AFLP, etc are other molecular markers.

4. Which of the following is not a restriction enzyme?
A. Hind III
B. Eco RI
C. Bam HI
D. AmpRid5fdba5570f964″

Answer: D
Clarification: The restriction enzymes are enzymes which cut the DNA into fragments. Examples are Hind III, Eco RI, Bam HI, Sal I, etc. They are also called as molecular scissors. They may be restriction endonuclease or restriction exonuclease. They recognize the recognition site where they cut DNA into fragments.

5. PCR is a _______________
A. Power Chain Reaction
B. Power Control Reaction
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. Polymerase Control Reactionid5fdba5570f96f”

Answer: C
Clarification: PCR is a Polymerase Chain Reaction which is used for the amplification of DNA. It is a widely used tool in food microbiology. It proceeds with three steps: Denaturation, Annealing, Extension.

6. The denaturation temperature is _________
A. 55°C
B. 72°C
C. 66°C
D. 94°Cid5fdba5570f979″

Answer: D
Clarification: The denaturation temperature is 94°C. It is the temperature at which the double-stranded DNA is broken down into single-stranded DNA. It is followed by the addition of primers. Two sets of primers are added: Forward primer and Reverse primer. The extension is done by Taq Polymerase at 72°C.

7. Which of the following is false for karyotyping?
A. It is used to determine the chromosomal number
B. It is used to determine the chromosomal size
C. It is used in the detection of disease
D. It is used in DNA amplificationid5fdba5570f983″

Answer: D
Clarification: Karyotyping is not used in the amplification of DNA. Instead, PCR is used for DNA amplification. Karyotyping is used to determine chromosomal size and number and is also used in the detection of genetic disorders.

8. The length of primers in RAPD is _______
A. 8 – 15 nts
B. 15 – 20 nts
C. 5 – 10 nts
D. 2 – 5 ntsid5fdba5570f98d”

Answer: A
Clarification: The length of primers in RAPD is 8 – 15 nucleotides. RAPD is Random Amplification of Polymorphic DNA which amplifies the DNA sequence using the random primers. It is an easy and quick method.

9. Who first described the use of RFLP in brewing strain differentiation?
A. Clemons
B. Schofield
C. McCullough
D. Jacobid5fdba5570f997″

Answer: B
Clarification: Schofield et al. in 1995 described the use of RFLP DNA fingerprinting in the differentiation of the brewing strains of yeast. Likewise, many DNA fingerprinting applications were identified in the brewing yeast differentiation.

10. Pyrolysis mass spectroscopy differentiated organisms to _____________ level.
A. DNA
B. Protein
C. Genus and Species
D. Kingdomid5fdba5570f9a1″

Answer: C
Clarification: Pyrolysis mass spectroscopy (PyMS) is used in the differentiation of microorganisms to the level of genus, species, and subspecies. It is a simple, quick and easy to perform. Before pyrolysis mass spectroscopy, Pyrolysis Gas Chromatography (PyGC. was also used for differentiation.

11. Southern blotting is used for ____________
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydratesid5fdba5570f9ab”

Answer: B
Clarification: Southern blotting is a method used in molecular biology used for the detection of specific DNA sequences. The electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments are transferred to the membrane and then hybridized with specific probes for detection.

12. The profiles of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in Saccharomyces cerevisiae are same.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdba5570f9b5″

Answer: A
Clarification: The profiles of saturated and unsaturated fatty acid are same but it is distinctive and consistent enough in the differentiation of Saccharomyces cerevisiae from the other species of yeast.

13. In FT-IR, middle-infrared is used to differentiate and identify yeasts.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdba5570f9be”

Answer: A
Clarification: FTIR is a Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy. The middle-infrared is used in the differentiation and identification of yeasts. FTIR is a physicochemical method which provides a ‘snap-shot’ of the whole cell phenotype (DNA, RNA, Proteins,etc.).

14. Western Blotting is used for __________
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vitamins
D. Nucleic acidsid5fdba5570f9e1″

Answer: A
Clarification: Western Blotting is a method used for the detection and characterization of proteins. It is also known as protein blotting or immunoblotting. The protein molecules are separated into PAGE according to their molecular weights.

To practice all areas of Fermentation Technology for Quizzes, .

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Fermenting Sour Tonic Beverages – Ginger Beer and Kvass Production”.

1. The process of making beer is known as _____________
A. Mashing
B. Brewing
C. Malting
D. Sparging

Answer: B
Clarification: The process of making beer is known as brewing and the dedicated building where beer is made is called a brewery. The company which makes beer is called a brewing company.

2. Where did ginger beer originate?
A. England
B. America
C. Japan
D. China

Answer: A
Clarification: Ginger beer originated in England in the mid-1700s. It was exported worldwide by the use of earthenware bottles that were sealed by a liquid- and gas-tight glaze which was called Bristol glaze.

3. Which of the following is not a basic ingredient of a ginger beer?
A. Lemon
B. Ginger
C. Salt
D. Yeast

Answer: C
Clarification: The basic ingredients of the ginger beer are lemon, ginger, sugar, and yeast. There are many recipes for the preparation of ginger beer. Real ginger is made from the fresh root ginger (Zingiber officinale).

4. Which of the following is used to inhibit bacterial growth?
A. Yarrow
B. Chilli
C. Juniper
D. Liquorice

Answer: A
Clarification: Yarrow (Achillea millefolium) is used to inhibit the bacterial growth in ginger beer as it was seen in the normal beer before the introduction of hops. Chilli, Juniper, and Liquorice are often used as a flavouring in ginger beer.

5. Which of the following is a pungent compound present in ginger?
A. Piperine
B. Gingerol
C. Shogaol
D. Capsaicin

Answer: B
Clarification: Gingerol is the pungent compound present in ginger and it is similar to chilli’s capsaicin and pepper’s piperine. Heating gingerol makes it less pungent, zingerone and drying convert it to shagaol, which is about twice as strong-tasting.

6. Which of the following is not the equipment used in the preparation of ginger beer?
A. PET bottles
B. Rolling pin
C. Glass bottles
D. Sharp knife

Answer: C
Clarification: Glass bottles are not used as the equipment for the preparation of ginger beer as the gas produced will cause them to explode and may break. Instead of glass bottles, PET plastic bottles are used. Rolling pin, sharp knife, lemon squeezer, spoon, thermometer, etc. are the equipment used in the preparation of ginger beer.

7. Which of the following is an artificial clarifying agent?
A. Isinglass
B. Kappa carrageenan
C. Polyclar
D. Irish moss

Answer: C
Clarification: Polyclar is an artificial clarifying agent which is used to make the beer appear bright and clean., rather than cloudy appearance. Isinglass (obtained from swimbladders of fish), Irish moss (a seaweeD., and kappa carrageenan (obtained from seaweed Kappaphycus cottonii) are the examples of natural clarifying agents.

8. Kvass is a traditional beverage of _____________
A. Thailand
B. China
C. Russia
D. Japan

Answer: C
Clarification: Kvass is the traditional beverage of Russia, Ukraine, Lithuania, and other countries of Eastern Europe. It is a sour, lovely, effervescent beverage and the other beverages found in this region are also called kvass for e.g. beet kvass or tea kvass.

9. Kvass is obtained from _____________
A. Rice
B. Cabbage
C. Tomato
D. Old bread

Answer: D
Clarification: Kvass is a sour tonic beverage that is made from old bread. It has benefits in the digestive tract system since it is a non-alcoholic beverage and has thirst soothing and diuretic properties. It is similar to Kefir.

10. Which of the following element is present in a very low amount in sodium?
A. Iron
B. Sodium
C. Zinc
D. Copper

Answer: B
Clarification: Sodium is present in a very low amount in kvass and therefore kvass promotes the excretion of the fluid. It contains important minerals like iron, copper, sodium, phosphorus, potassium, zinc, fluorine, and B vitamins.

11. Which of the following is not a preservative?
A. Sorbic acid
B. Benzoic acid
C. Sucralose
D. Formic acid

Answer: C
Clarification: Sucralose is not a preservative. It is an artificial sweetener that is used for diabetic patients and is non-caloric. Sodium benzoate, benzoic acid, sorbic acid, formic acid, etc. are examples of preservatives used for the preservation of soft drinks, pickles, sauerkraut, etc.

12. Which of the following is not a fermented soft drink?
A. Kefir
B. Kombucha
C. Kvass
D. Tempeh

Answer: D
Clarification: Tempeh is not a fermented soft drink. It is a product obtained by the fermentation of soybeans into a cake form. Kefir, kvass, kombucha, ginger beer, etc. are examples of fermented soft drinks.

13. Nitrates are absent in kvass.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Clarification: Nitrates are absent in kvass. Also, there is no fat and cholesterol. However, kvass is rich in minerals like zinc, potassium, phosphorus, iron, etc. and a few trace elements.

14. Yeast is used for the production of kvass.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Clarification: The yeast such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the production of kvass. It causes intense alcohol fermentation during anaerobic fermentation producing alcohol and carbon dioxide.

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Filter Sterilization”.

1. Which of the following is the method of filter sterilization?
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Double Diffusion
D. Sitting Dropid5fdbe71ce522f”

Answer: B
Clarification: Diffusion is the method of filter sterilization. The other mechanisms include Inertial impaction, Electrostatic attraction, Interception. Suspended particles are separated from the fluid by these mechanisms.

2. In which of the following the large aerosol particles are deposited on the walls of airway conduit?
A. Inertial Impaction
B. Diffusion
C. Electrostatic attraction
D. Interceptionid5fdbe71ce524f”

Answer: A
Clarification: The large aerosol particles are deposited on the walls of airway conduit in inertial impaction. The impaction occurs where the airway changes. It is more significant in the filtration of gases than in the filtration of liquids.

3. Brownian motion occurs in ___________
A. Inertial Impaction
B. Diffusion
C. Electrostatic attraction
D. Interceptionid5fdbe71ce525e”

Answer: B
Clarification: Brownian motion occurs in diffusion. The small particles in the fluid exhibit Brownian motion which is a random zig-zag motion of solid particles in the fluid. Diffusion is more significant in the filtration of gases than in the filtration of liquids.

4. In which of the following the oppositely charged particles are attracted?
A. Inertial Impaction
B. Diffusion
C. Electrostatic attraction
D. Interceptionid5fdbe71ce526a”

Answer: C
Clarification: The electrostatic attraction occurs in which the oppositely charged particles are attracted to each other and the suspended solids thus get filtered out. Hence, the medium gets sterilized by filtration.

5. The optimum temperature for pasteurisation is _____________
A. 62°C – 65°C
B. 60°C – 65°C
C. 62°C – 72°C
D. 65°C – 75°Cid5fdbe71ce5275″

Answer: C
Clarification: The optimum temperature for Pasteurization is 62°C – 72°C. It was discovered by Louis Pasteur and hence termed after him. It is a process to eliminate the pathogens from milk or milk products.

6. The particles which are larger than the filter pores are removed by ________
A. Inertial Impaction
B. Diffusion
C. Electrostatic attraction
D. Interceptionid5fdbe71ce52a9″

Answer: D
Clarification: The particles which are larger than the filter pores are removed by direct interception. Even if there are smaller particles, they are also retained by interception. It is an important mechanism in the filtration of gases as well as the filtration of liquids.

7. Which of the following filters is the most commonly used?
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Filter paper
C. Sieve tubes
D. Cellophaneid5fdbe71ce52b9″

Answer: A
Clarification: Nitrocellulose filters are the most commonly used filters. Nitrocellulose papers are made up of negatively charged. The medium which is to be filtered contains positively charged particles which are attracted by negatively charged cellulose. Thus the filtration occurs by direct interception.

8. What is the pore size of the nitrocellulose?
A. 0.25 µ
B. 0.28 µ
C. 0.22 µ
D. 0.20 µid5fdbe71ce52d0″

Answer: C
Clarification: The pore size of the nitrocellulose filter is 0.22 µ. They are the most commonly used filters in filtration sterilization. It has a powerful binding technique and is also used to study DNA-protein interactions.

9. The heat reactive medium can be sterilized best by _____________
A. Continuous sterilization
B. Batch sterilization
C. Filter sterilization
D. Heat sterilizationid5fdbe71ce52ec”

Answer: C
Clarification: The medium which is reactive to heat and is heat-labile can be sterilized best by filter sterilization as it does not involve heating of the medium. Batch sterilization, Continuous sterilization, Heat sterilization involve the heating of medium to sterilize it.

10. Non-Fixed filters are also called as absolute filters.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdbe71ce5300″

Answer: B
Clarification: The Non-Fixed filters are also called as depth filters. They remove the particle by inertial impaction, diffusion, electrostatic interaction. It does not rely on Interception. Non-Fixed filters do not have a fixed pore size.

11. Which of the following is not an example of depth filters?
A. PTFE membranes
B. Glass fiber
C. Cotton
D. Sintered Metalsid5fdbe71ce5308″

Answer: A
Clarification: The PTFE (Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethane) is an example of an absolute filter. Whereas the glass fibers, cotton, sintered metals are used as depth filters or non-fixed filters.

12. The absolute filters have fixed-pore size.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdbe71ce5311″

Answer: A
Clarification: The absolute filters have varying pore sizes. They are constructed that the filtration medium will not get distorted. The size of the pore is controlled during the manufacture of absolute filters.

13. Which of the following cannot be sterilized by steam?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Fermenter vessels
D. Fermentation mediaid5fdbe71ce5319″

Answer: A
Clarification: Air cannot be sterilized by steam. It can be sterilized by heat, filtration, UV radiation, gas scrubbing. The sterilization by heat and filtration the most common method used for air sterilization.

14. Which of the following is a typical aeration rate for aerobic fermentation?
A. 0.5 – 2 vvm
B. 1 – 2 vvm
C. 0.1 – 0.5 vvm
D. 3 – 4 vvmid5fdbe71ce5321″

Answer: A
Clarification: The typical aeration rate for aerobic fermentation is 0.5 – 2.0 vvm. Here, the first v stands for volume of air in liter. The second v stands for per unit of medium and m stands for per unit time in minutes.

15. 1% of phenol acts as ___________
A. Antiseptic
B. Disinfectant
C. Antibiotics
D. Antigenid5fdbe71ce5329″

Answer: B
Clarification: 1% of phenol acts as a disinfectant. Disinfectants are commonly used for killing or inhibiting bacterial growth. That is why phenolic compounds are used for chemical sterilization. 0.5% of phenol acts antiseptics.