Category: Fermentation Technology Objective Questions

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Media for Industrial Fermentations – Precursors, Regulators and Antifoams”.

1. Which of the following additives are required for a better yield of the desired product?
A. Precursors
B. Regulators
C. Inhibitors
D. Growth Factorsid5fdb73c621274″

Answer: A
Clarification: Precursors are the components added in the medium for better yield of the desired product. It was helpful in improving penicillin yields.

2. Which of the following is used as the precursor for Griseofulvin production?
A. Cyanides
B. Chloride
C. β- Iononones
D. Anthranilic acidid5fdb73c62129e”

Answer: B
Clarification: Chlorides are used as the precursors for the production of Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is the agent used to treat skin infections. It is taken orally by mouth.

3. Which of the following is used in the preparation of Nikkomycins?
A. Streptomyces organonensis
B. Penicillium chrysogenum
C. Streptomyces tendae
D. Lactobacillus bulgaricusid5fdb73c6212ab”

Answer: C
Clarification: Streptomyces tendae is the micro-organism used in the preparation of Nikkomycins. Nikkomycins is the antifungal agent used to treat fungal diseases.

4. Which of the following is used as the precursor of preparation of Cyclosporin C?
A. L – Threonine
B. Cyanides
C. Phenoxy acetic acid
D. D- Threonineid5fdb73c6212b5″

Answer: A
Clarification: L – Threonine is used as the precursor for the production of Cyclosporin C. It is used to prevent organ rejection in organ transplant patients.

5. Cyanide is used as a precursor for production of ________
A. Carotenoids
B. Vitamin B12
C. Riboflavin
D. Vitamin B2id5fdb73c6212bf”

Answer: B
Clarification: Cyanide is used as a precursor for the production of Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is also called cobalamin. It is a water-soluble vitamin and is also produced in human intestines.

6. Which of the following is not a property of antifoams?
A. It should be active at low concentrations
B. It should have fast action on an existing foam
C. It should be non-toxic to micro-organism
D. It need not be sterilizedid5fdb73c6212c8″

Answer: D
Clarification: The antifoam should be active at low concentration, should have fast action on an existing foam and should be non-toxic to the micro-organism and must be sterilized.

7. Who recognized the foaming patterns in fermentation?
A. Lee
B. Hall
C. Tyman
D. Solomonsid5fdb73c6212d1″

Answer: B
Clarification: Hall et al. in 1973 recognized the patterns of foaming in fermentation. He also said that foaming remains at a constant level throughout the fermentation.

8. Which of the following is not a defoamer?
A. Amide waxes
B. Oleic acid
C. Organic phosphates
D. Propanoic acidid5fdb73c6212db”

Answer: D
Clarification: Amide waxes, Oleic acid, Organic phosphates, Sulphonated oils, Silicone oils, etc. are the antifoaming agents which are added to the medium.

9. The antifoaming agents should not cause any problems in the extraction and purification of the product.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb73c6212e3″

Answer: A
Clarification: The antifoaming agents should not cause any problems in the extraction and purification of the product. It is an important property of antifoaming agent.

10. The fermentation media should be free from _________
A. Precursors
B. Inhibitors
C. Toxicity
D. Defoamersid5fdb73c6212ec”

Answer: C
Clarification: The fermentation media should ideally be free from toxicity or toxic compounds which affect the production of the desired product.

11. The fermentation media should not allow high yield of undesired products.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb73c6212f4″

Answer: B
Clarification: The fermentation medium should not allow the high yield of undesired products. It should allow the production of desired products and high concentration of the desired product.

12. Which of the following acts as α- Amylase inducer?
A. Yeast mannans
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Pectinid5fdb73c6212fd”

Answer: B
Clarification: Starch is used as an inducer for enzyme α- Amylase. It is an amylase that is found majorly in humans and other mammals. It hydrolyzes starch and yields glucose and maltose.

13. In which of the following way, the medium may not influence oxygen availability?
A. Fast metabolism
B. Rheology
C. Antifoams
D. Elicitorsid5fdb73c621305″

Answer: D
Clarification: The medium may influence the oxygen availability in a number of ways like fast metabolism, rheology of medium and antifoams.

14. Maltose is inducer for an enzyme ___________
A. Pectinases
B. Proteases
C. Pullulanase
D. Nitralaseid5fdb73c62130e”

Answer: C
Clarification: Maltose is used as an inducer for an enzyme Pullulanase. It degrades pullulan and it has potential industrial applications. It is produced as an extracellular enzyme by gram-negative bacteria.

15. Which of the following is not an inhibitor used in fermentation?
A. Bromide
B. Ethionine
C. Alkali metal
D. Alkali earth metalid5fdb73c621316″

Answer: D
Clarification: The inhibitors used in fermentation technology are bromide, ethionine, alkali metals, di-ethyl barbiturate, penicillin. Alkali earth metals is not an inhibitor of the fermentation.

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Fermentation Products Recovery and Purification – Chromatography”.

1. Which of the following is not a criterion for the choice of the recovery process?
A. Location of the product
B. Price of the product
C. Use of the product
D. Source of organismid5fdb57bb9f60c”

Answer: D
Clarification: The choice of the recovery process is based on criteria: The intracellular or extracellular location of the product, the concentration of the product, use of the product, properties of the product, quality of the product, bio-hazard of the product, impurities in the broth, price of the product.

2. Which of the following is not a stage of product recovery?
A. Removal of solids
B. Isolation of organism
C. Purification and concentration
D. Cell disruptionid5fdb57bb9f62d”

Answer: B
Clarification: The stages in product recovery include removal of solids from the fermentation broth, followed by cell disruption, followed by primary isolation, purification, and concentration of the product, and finally isolation of the product.

3. Which of the following is used in the precipitation of dextrans?
A. Methanol
B. PEG
C. Ammonium sulphate
D. Sodium sulphateid5fdb57bb9f63c”

Answer: A
Clarification: Organic solvents like methanol, ethanol can be used in the precipitation of proteins. This is due to the change in dielectric properties of the solution. Dextrans can be precipitated out of a broth by the addition of methanol.

4. Who employed the term ‘Chromatography’?
A. Tsvet
B. Archer
C. Richard
D. Erikaid5fdb57bb9f647″

Answer: A
Clarification: Mikhail Tsvet introduced the term ‘chromatography’. It is useful for the isolation and recovery of desired products. Tsvet in 1906 used chromatography to separate the pigments of the plants.

5. Which of the following is used to pack columns in adsorption chromatography?
A. Carbon
B. Silica gel
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Aluminium oxideid5fdb57bb9f651″

Answer: C
Clarification: The materials used in the pack columns in the adsorption chromatography include inorganic adsorbents like aluminium oxide, aluminium hydroxide, silica gel, magnesium oxide, active carbon, etc.

6. The charged molecules can be separated by __________
A. Column chromatography
B. Ion exchange chromatography
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Affinity chromatographyid5fdb57bb9f667″

Answer: B
Clarification: The charged molecules are separated by Ion exchange chromatography. It uses a charged stationary phase to separate the oppositely charged compounds. The oppositely charged particles will be attracted while the particles with the same charge will be eluted first.

7. Which of the following is not a gel filtration chromatography?
A. Molecular sieve
B. Gel permeation
C. Size exclusion
D. Gel residueid5fdb57bb9f671″

Answer: D
Clarification: The gel filtration chromatography is also called molecular sieve chromatography, gel permeation chromatography, size exclusion chromatography, gel filtration chromatography, or gel chromatography. Gel residue is not a gel filtration chromatography.

8. Which of the following stationary phase is not used in gel filtration chromatography?
A. Sephadex
B. Sephacryl
C. Bio-Gel
D. Resin beadsid5fdb57bb9f687″

Answer: D
Clarification: The resin beads are not used as stationary phase in gel filtration chromatography. Sephadex, Sephacryl, Bio-Gel, Sepharose, etc. are commonly used. The gel must be chemically inert and stable.

9. Which of the following is used to separate molecules based on affinity?
A. Column chromatography
B. Ion exchange chromatography
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Affinity chromatographyid5fdb57bb9f691″

Answer: D
Clarification: The affinity chromatography is used in the separation of biological molecules based on their affinity with a particular substance. The molecules with low affinity with the stationary phase are eluted first and those with high affinity are recovered later.

10. Immunoaffinity chromatography is used for the purification of ____________
A. Lipoproteins
B. Interferons
C. Antibodies
D. Carbohydratesid5fdb57bb9f69b”

Answer: C
Clarification: Immunoaffinity chromatography is used in the purification of antibodies, antigens and the proteins of viral origin. The column contains gel and antigens against which antibodies have the most affinity. Thus, it helps in the purification of antibodies.

11. Which of the following dye is widely used in dye-ligand chromatography?
A. Methyl blue
B. Cibracron blue
C. Methyl orange
D. Malachite greenid5fdb57bb9f6a4″

Answer: B
Clarification: Dye-ligand chromatography uses a number of triazine dyes as ligands. The most widely used dye is Cibracron blue F3G-A. It is used for the purification of lipoproteins, interferons, coagulation factors, etc.

12. The HPLC uses the application of ___________
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. High pressure
D. Low pressureid5fdb57bb9f6ad”

Answer: C
Clarification: The High-Performance Liquid Chromatography uses the application of high pressure, that is why HPLC is also known as High-Pressure Liquid Chromatography. The use of high pressure is to flow the solvent through the column of chromatography.

13. Chromatography is used to separate ____________
A. Complex mixture compounds
B. Simple mixtures
C. Viscous mixtures
D. Halogensid5fdb57bb9f6b6″

Answer: A
Clarification: The chromatography is used to separate a complex mixture of compounds. It is used for isolation and purification of the compound of interest from the mixture of compounds.

14. Thin Layer Chromatography is similar to Paper Chromatography.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb57bb9f6bf”

Answer: A
Clarification: Thin Layer Chromatography or TLC is similar to Paper Chromatography. However, instead of using paper as a stationary phase the thin layer of adsorbents like silica gel, alumina, cellulose, etc. It has better separations than paper chromatography.

15. The Rf value is the ratio of distance travelled by solvent to the distance travelled by the solute.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb57bb9f6c8″

Answer: B
Clarification: The Rf value or retention factor is the ratio of distance travelled by the solute to the distance travelled by the solvent. It indicates the relative rate of movement of a solute and the solvent.

Fermentation Technology test on “Brewing Yeast – Morphology, Cytology and Cellular Function”.

1. Who described the cell morphology of S. cerevisiae?
A. Woldringh
B. Lodder
C. Unger
D. Baldwinid5fdcf03c50797″

Answer: B
Clarification: Lodder in 1970 described the morphology of S. cerevisiae. He described the cells as being spheroidal, subglobose, ovoid, ellipsoidal or cylindrical to elongate, single in pairs, occasionally in short chains or clusters.

2. The effect of ploidy on yeast cells was demonstrated by _______________
A. Woldringh
B. Unger
C. Baldwin
D. Vagvolgyiid5fdcf03c507c8″

Answer: D
Clarification: Vagvaolgyi et al. in 1988 demonstrated the effect of ploidy on yeast cell size being 4.2, 5.2, 5.9 µm in diameter of haploid, diploid, and triploid respectively.

3. Which of the following component is present in the highest percentage of the dry weight of dried wine yeast?
A. Iron
B. Sulphur
C. Carbon
D. Oxygenid5fdcf03c507d8″

Answer: C
Clarification: Carbon is present in the highest percentage of the dry weight of dried wine yeast with 48.2%. Iron is 0.005%, Sulphur is 0.01% and Oxygen is 33.8%. This molecular composition was given by Rosen in 1989.

4. Which of the following macromolecule is present in the lowest amount in bakers’ yeast?
A. Lipids
B. Minerals
C. Moisture
D. RNAid5fdcf03c50810″

Answer: C
Clarification: Moisture is present in the lowest amount of 2-5% in bakers’ yeast. DNA and RNA are 6-8%, Minerals are 7-8% and lipids are 4-5% of the total macromolecular composition. Protein is present in the highest percentage with 42-46%. This macromolecular composition was given by Reed and Nagodarithana in 1991.

5. Spent yeast is used as ______________
A. Nutritional supplement
B. Dietary supplement
C. Water supplement
D. Air supplementid5fdcf03c5081c”

Answer: A
Clarification: Spent yeast is used as a nutritional supplement because it is an excellent source of vitamins. After fermentation, there is always leftover yeast in the form of sludge at the bottom of the fermentation vessel. The leftover yeast is referred to as spent yeast.

6. Which of the following forms the barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment?
A. Vacuoles
B. Plasma membrane
C. Lysozyme
D. Golgiid5fdcf03c50827″

Answer: B
Clarification: Plasma membrane forms the barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. It acts as a semi-permeable membrane that allows only specific solutes to pass into the cytoplasm of the cell.

7. The plasma membrane is composed of _______________
A. Carbohydrate bilayer
B. Protein bilayer
C. Lipid bilayer
D. Vitaminsid5fdcf03c50831″

Answer: B
Clarification: The plasma membrane is composed of the lipid bilayer of proteins. It constitutes of two layers of fat cells organized in two sheets. The lipid and protein molecules are held together by hydrogen bonding and are amphipathic in nature which stabilizes the lipid bilayer.

8. Which of the following describes the space between the plasma membrane and cell wall?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Cytoplasm
C. Golgi
D. Periplasmid5fdcf03c5083c”

Answer: D
Clarification: Periplasm is the space between the outer surface of the plasma membrane and the inner surface of the cell wall. It is discontinuous space because of invaginations in the plasma membrane and irregularities in the cell wall.

9. Who defined periplasmic enzymes?
A. Arnold
B. Wainer
C. Scherrer
D. Lloydid5fdcf03c50847″

Answer: A
Clarification: Arnold in 1991 defined periplasmic enzymes as those which are assayed in intact cells without the disruption of the plasma membrane. Enzymes associated with periplasmic space are mostly invertase and acid phosphatase.

10. Which of the following is not correct for mitochondria?
A. It is a double-membrane organelle
B. It synthesizes its own DNA
C. It synthesizes proteins
D. The powerhouse of the cellid5fdcf03c50850″

Answer: C
Clarification: Mitochondria is regarded as the powerhouse of the cell as it helps in the production of ATP. It also synthesizes its own DNA that is why it is also known as an autonomous organelle. It is protected by a double-walled membrane: inner and outer membrane.

11. The membrane of vacuole is known as ____________
A. Tonoplast
B. Plasma membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Cytoplasmid5fdcf03c5085a”

Answer: A
Clarification: The membrane of the vacuole is known as tonoplast. It surrounds the large vacuole in the cell and is also called a vacuolar membrane. It separates vacuoles from the cytoplasmic environment and is used to take food substrates and dissolve them.

12. Which of the following is responsible for the synthesis of proteins?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Nucleolus
D. Golgi bodyid5fdcf03c50864″

Answer: B
Clarification: Ribosomes are responsible for the synthesis of proteins. They are responsible for the binding of messenger RNA (mRNA. and transfer RNA (tRNA. to synthesize polypeptide chains and proteins.

13. The SER consists of ribosomes.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdcf03c5086e”

Answer: B
Clarification: The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) consists of the ribosome, that is, ribosomes are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This roughens the surface of endoplasmic reticulum and forms Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum. Whereas the SER does not contain ribosomes, that is why they are smoother in appearance.

14. The chloroplast is an autonomous organelle.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdcf03c50878″

Answer: A
Clarification: Chloroplast is an autonomous organelle which synthesizes its own DNA and proteins required for their functioning. It is a green coloured pigment that is mainly present in plants and is responsible for performing photosynthesis.

15. Which of the following is not a single membrane-bound organelle?
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Golgi Apparatus
C. Chloroplast
D. Lysosomeid5fdcf03c50882″

Answer: C
Clarification: Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi Apparatus, Lysosomes are bounded by a single membrane and are called as single-membrane bound organelles. Whereas mitochondria and chloroplast are bounded by a double membrane and are called as double-membrane bound organelles.

Advanced Fermentation Technology Questions and Answers on “Microbiology – Sampling and Testing”.

1. In which of the following method microorganisms do not grow on the surface of the media?
A. Spread plate
B. Pour plate
C. Membrane filtration
D. Surface fermentationid5fdccac785633″

Answer: B
Clarification: In spread plate method and membrane filtration techniques the microorganisms grow on the surface of the medium. Whereas in the pour plate technique the sample is directly added to the hot medium and the organisms grow within the medium. Surface fermentation is the growing of organisms on the surface, hence the name.

2. Which of the following is not the shape of bacteria?
A. Rod
B. Square
C. Spherical
D. Twistedid5fdccac78565e”

Answer: B
Clarification: Square is not the shape of bacteria. The shapes of bacteria include rod, twisted, and spherical according to which they are called bacillus, spiral, and coccus.

3. Who summarized the items required for testing of the brewery samples?
A. Simpson
B. Smith
C. Gram
D. Caseyid5fdccac78566d”

Answer: A
Clarification: Simpson in 1996 provided a useful summary of the items required for the microbiological testing of the brewery samples. For example, the glasses were replaced by disposable plastics.

4. Which of the following does not include in the WLN medium?
A. Ferric chloride
B. Glucose
C. Magnesium chloride
D. Calcium chlorideid5fdccac785678″

Answer: C
Clarification: Magnesium chloride is not present in the WLN medium. The Wallerstein Laboratories Nutrient (WLN) medium consists of glucose, ferric chloride, calcium chloride, monopotassium phosphate, potassium chloride, magnesium sulfate, yeast extract, agar, distilled water, etc.

5. Which of the following is not added in the MRS medium?
A. Tween 80
B. Sodium Acetate
C. Glucose
D. Magnesium chlorideid5fdccac785683″

Answer: D
Clarification: Magnesium chloride is not added in the MRS medium. It consists of Tween 80, sodium acetate, glucose, yeast extract, peptone, lab-lemco powder, dipotassium hydrogen phosphate, agar, distilled water, etc.

6. Which of the following media is the universal media across the brewing industry?
A. MRS media
B. WLN media
C. NBB media
D. MYGP mediaid5fdccac78568d”

Answer: B
Clarification: Wallerstein Laboratories Nutrient agar media is the universal media across the brewing industry. The history of the development of the media is detailed in Casey and Ingledew in 1981. It consists of glucose as the only carbon.

7. Which of the following is present in WLN media as a pH indicator?
A. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl blue
C. Methyl orange
D. Bromocresol greenid5fdccac785696″

Answer: D
Clarification: Bromocresol green is the component of WLN media composition which is the only pH indicator. However, doubling the concentration of Bromocresol green has found the application in the differentiation of closely related brewing yeasts.

8. Who discovered the MYGP + copper medium?
A. Taylor and Marsh
B. Kuhle and Jespersen
C. Quain and Hammond
D. Simpson and Marshid5fdccac7856a0″

Answer: A
Clarification: Taylor and Marsh in 1984 discovered the MYGP + copper medium. It is a single medium for wild yeasts (Saccharomyces and non-Saccharomyces) and is normally prepared from commercial MYGP media.

9. Which of the following media is not used in the detection of lactic acid bacteria?
A. MRS media
B. Raka Ray
C. WLN media
D. NBB mediaid5fdccac7856aa”

Answer: C
Clarification: WLN media is not used in the detection of lactic acid bacteria. MRS media, Raka Ray, and the modified NBB media is used in the detection of lactic acid bacteria and are the market leaders for LAB detection.

10. Who coined the terms ‘luciferin’ and ‘luciferase’?
A. McElroy
B. DuBois
C. Stanley
D. Hysertid5fdccac7856b4″

Answer: B
Clarification: DuBois coined the terms luciferin and luciferase for, respectively, the reaction’s substrate and enzyme. He also demonstrated that a crude extract of fireflies emitted light that eventually faded and disappeared and called the phenomena as ATP bioluminescence.

11. Which of the following is not a single-shot system?
A. SwabMate
B. Aqua-Trace™
C. Clean-Trace™
D. Xcelid5fdccac7856bd”

Answer: D
Clarification: SwabMate, Aqua-Trace™, and Clean-Trace™ are the single-shot system. SwabMate is from Celsis and Aqua-TraceTM, and Clean-TraceTM is from Biotrace. Celsius uses the SysteSURE™ and Biotrace uses the Uni-Lite® and Uni-Lite® Xcel.

12. Which of the following enables the monitoring of ATP during a CIP cycle?
A. AK technology
B. CFL
C. Photoluminescence
D. Bioluminescenceid5fdccac7856c6″

Answer: B
Clarification: The continuous-flow luminometry (CFL) enables the continuous monitoring of ATP during a CIP cycle. The AutoTrack development marked the advent of CFL.

13. DEFT accelerates detection of microorganisms.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdccac7856dd”

Answer: A
Clarification: Direct Epifluorescent Filter Technique (DEFT) accelerate the detection of microorganisms by staining them with fluorescent dyes. This is later on visualized under a fluorescent microscope.

14. ELISA is used in determining antigen-antibody concentration.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdccac7856f2″

Answer: A
Clarification: ELISA is an enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbent Assay which is used in the determination of antigen-antibody concentration. There are mainly three types of ELISA: Indirect, Sandwich, and Competitive ELISA.

To practice advanced questions and answers on all areas of Fermentation Technology, .

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Media for Industrial Fermentations – Medium Optimisation”.

1. When more than five variables are to be accessed ______________ design can be used.
A. Stowe-Mayer
B. Greasham-Inamine
C. Bull-Hicks
D. Plackett-Burmanid5fdb770f32f95″

Answer: D
Clarification: When more than five variables are to be investigated, the Plackett-Burman design can be used to find the most important variables in the system.

2. The Plackett-Burman method allows the investigation of ________ variables by _____ experiments.
A. x-2, x
B. x-1, x
C. x, x-1
D. x, x-2id5fdb770f32fc0″

Answer: B
Clarification: The Plackett-Burman method allows the investigation of x-1 variables by x experiments, where x must be the multiple of 4. Suppose there are 11 experiments then it allows 10 variables to be assessed.

3. What do H and L denote in Plackett-Burman method?
A. Height and Length
B. High and Low
C. Half and Life
D. Hearing and Listeningid5fdb770f32fdc”

Answer: B
Clarification: The H and L in Plackett-Burman method denote High-level value and low-level value of variables in the trials. The high and low values are the values of variables.

4. Who initiated the development of serum-free media?
A. Sato
B. Barnes
C. Ham
D. Glassyid5fdb770f32fe8″

Answer: C
Clarification: The development of serum-free media was initiated by Ham in 1965 who tried to reduce the amount of serum in media. Serum-free media contains substances that promote cell adherence, growth factors and etc.

5. Animal cells are used for the production of _____________
A. Interferons
B. Albumin
C. Collagen
D. Protein-free mediaid5fdb770f32ff2″

Answer: A
Clarification: The animal cells are used in the production of Interferons, monoclonal antibodies, and vaccine, and serum-free media. Interferons are produced by a few cells which trigger the immune response.

6. What is the cost of foetal calf serum?
A. US$ 170 dm^-3
B. US$ 190 dm^-3
C. US$ 195 dm^-3
D. US$ 185 dm^-3id5fdb770f32ffb”

Answer: B
Clarification: The cost of foetal calf serum is US$ 190 dm^-3 in Europe. This makes serum-free media more attractive and economic and cheaper way of carrying out the fermentation.

7. Which of the following is not the replacement in serum-free media?
A. Insulin
B. Albumin
C. Antibody
D. Transferrinid5fdb770f33004″

Answer: C
Clarification: The important replacements in serum-free media are Insulin, Albumin, Transferrin, Ethanolamine, Selenium, and β-mercaptoethanol.

8. Hybridoma technology is used in the production of __________
A. Polyclonal Antibodies
B. Antigens
C. Monoclonal Antibodies
D. Insulinid5fdb770f3300e”

Answer: C
Clarification: Hybridoma Technology is used in the production of Monoclonal Antibodies. They are also called as Identical antibodies as they are made by identical immune cells.

9. Which scientist(s) demonstrated the growth of Chinese Hamster cells in protein-free media?
A. Hamilton and Ham
B. Plackett and Burman
C. Stowe and Mayer
D. Bull and Hicksid5fdb770f33023″

Answer: A
Clarification: Hamilton and Ham in 1977 demonstrated the growth of Chinese Hamster cell lines in a protein-free media formulated from vitamins, amino acids, etc.

10. Which of the following is not a trace element?
A. Ag
B. Al
C. Ni
D. Heid5fdb770f33032″

Answer: D
Clarification: He is not a trace element as it is a noble gas. The trace elements include Ag, Al, Ni, Si, Sn, etc. which are required in small amounts to microorganism.

11. Hepes is a horse serum.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb770f3303b”

Answer: B
Clarification: Hepes (4-(2-hydroxyethyl)-1-piperazineethanesulfonic aciD. is a zwitterionic chemical buffer which is also useful in cell culture. It is not a horse serum.

12. Which of the following provides a protective effect to animal cells?
A. Hepes
B. Pluronic F-28
C. β-mercaptoethanol
D. Albuminid5fdb770f33045″

Answer: B
Clarification: Pluronic F-28 provides a protective effect to animal cells in a stirred and sparged vessels. It is also used to suppress foam formation, i.e., also acts as antifoaming agents.

13. Which of the following is an advantage of serum-free protein media?
A. Simple upstream processing
B. Undefined media composition
C. Simple downstream processing
D. Costlyid5fdb770f3304f”

Answer: C
Clarification: The advantage of serum-free protein is that it involves simple downstream processing because the protein content is reduced.

14. The role of the fermentation media is to provide a high amount of nutrients and optimum conditions for the growth of microorganisms.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb770f33058″

Answer: A
Clarification: The role of the fermentation media is to provide a high amount of nutrients and optimum conditions so that the microorganisms enjoy luxurious metabolism.

15. Which of the following is downstream processing?
A. Cell breakdown
B. Media formulation
C. Product recovery
D. Product formationid5fdb770f33061″

Answer: C
Clarification: The downstream processing includes purification and recovery of products obtained from fermenters. It is used to manufacture antibiotics, antibodies, etc.

Fermentation Technology Multiple Choice Questions on “Effluent – Treatment Processes”.

1. Which of the following is the method for disposal of municipal solid waste?
A. Incineration
B. Landfilling
C. Well disposal
D. Spray irrigationid5fdb418307987″

Answer: B
Clarification: Landfilling is the method for disposal of municipal solid waste and industrial waste. The waste is deposited into natural or manmade voids. For e.g. in disused clay pits, both solids and liquid wastes can be deposited.

2. Which of the following is not a factor to investigate in a site survey?
A. BOD/COD
B. Sterility
C. Colour
D. Radioactivityid5fdb4183079aa”

Answer: B
Clarification: The factors like BOD/COD, Colour, Radioactivity, Hardness, Odour, tastes, Turbidity, Detergents, Toxins, etc. are the important factors to investigate in a site survey.

3. Who described the disposal of antibodies and steroid wastes?
A. Colovos and Tinklenberg
B. Zajic and Melcher
C. Smith
D. Mbagwu and Ekwealorid5fdb4183079bb”

Answer: A
Clarification: Colovos and Tinklenberg described the disposal of antibodies and steroid wastes with Biochemical Oxygen Demand of 5,000 to 20,000 dm^-3. They were first chlorinated to lower the BOD and reduce unpleasant odours and then sprayed to the land until rainfall was reached.

4. Which of the following is a primary treatment?
A. Sedimentation
B. Activated sludge
C. Sand filters
D. Microstrainersid5fdb4183079c7″

Answer: A
Clarification: Primary treatment includes physical and chemical methods like sedimentation, coagulation, etc. It will considerably reduce the Biochemical Oxygen Demand of the resulting effluent.

5. What is the function of a sedimentation tank?
A. Removal of larger suspended matter
B. Reduction in particle size
C. Removal of grit
D. Removal of finer matterid5fdb4183079d3″

Answer: D
Clarification: The sedimentation tanks are used for the removal of finer matter. They are generally circular or rectangular flow tanks. They operate at retention times of 6-15 hours with the facility of continuous removal of settled sludge.

6. Which is the use of comminutors?
A. To reduce the size of particles
B. To remove the grit
C. To remove large particles
D. To remove small particlesid5fdb4183079dd”

Answer: A
Clarification: Sewage Grinders are also known as comminutors used in the wastewater treatment plants and pumping stations. They help in the breakdown of larger solids into the smaller ones.

7. The diameter of a conventional trickling filter is _______
A. 5-8 m
B. 5-10 m
C. 1-10 m
D. 8-16 mid5fdb4183079ec”

Answer: D
Clarification: A conventional trickling filter has a diameter of 8-16 m. It consists of a cylindrical concrete tank 2-3 m in depth. Some of the filters are rectangular in shape. It is achieved mainly aerobically.

8. Who described the use of contactors in wastewater treatment?
A. Ware and Pescod
B. Arden and Lockett
C. Cooper and Wheeldon
D. Taylor and Seniorid5fdb4183079fe”

Answer: A
Clarification: Ware and Pescod in 1989 described the use of contactors. The full scale aerobic/anaerobic rotating biological contactors are used to remove or treat the brewery wastewaters. More than 85% of COD was removed in the aerobic stage.

9. What is the use of venturi?
A. To generate low-pressure
B. To remove grit
C. To generate high pressure
D. To break the foamid5fdb418307a0f”

Answer: A
Clarification: The venturi is a system for increasing the speed of the liquid by constricting its shape. A Venturi injector is based on a fluid flow that causes low pressure at an inlet port. Thus, low-pressure can be generated from a high-pressure flow.

10. Which of the following is not the use of anaerobic treatment?
A. Achieving higher loading rates
B. Low power to treat BOD
C. The metabolization of organic matter
D. High levels of microbial growthid5fdb418307a25″

Answer: D
Clarification: There are many reasons for using anaerobic processes for waste treatment. It is useful in achieving a higher loading rate, low power BOD treatment, organic matter is metabolized into a stable form, ease of handling, low levels of microbial growth due to the anaerobic process.

11. UASB was developed in __________
A. America
B. Netherlands
C. London
D. Japanid5fdb418307a2e”

Answer: B
Clarification: Up-Flow Anaerobic Sludge Blankets (UASB. was a system developed in the Netherlands. In this system, very high-levels of biomass is retained in the reactor by flocculation. In this, no support media is added to the reactors and it acts as a fluidized-bed.

12. Velocity channels are used to remove larger suspended particles.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb418307a38″

Answer: B
Clarification: Screening is done to remove larger suspended particles and floating matter. The constant velocity channels are used to remove grit to prevent further damage to the plant in later processes. It has a velocity of 0.3 m/s.

13. Trickling filters are less suitable for a larger volume of effluents.
A. True
B. Falseid5fdb418307a41″

Answer: A
Clarification: The trickling filters are less suitable for a larger volume of industrial effluent because it does not have a high specific area and high voltage. Large areas are required for a larger volume of strong effluents. Towers are used as an alternative.

14. Which of the following is used where there is no oxygen supply?
A. Comminutors
B. Sedimentation tank
C. Mechanical mixer
D. Screening devicesid5fdb418307a4a”

Answer: C
Clarification: If there is no oxygen supply via spargers, the baffles must be provided to avoid the formation of layers. Baffles are also used to increase the rate of agitation and aeration. It is also used to provide cooling.

15. The temperature of 20°C is used to take BOD of _________
A. 7-days
B. 10-days
C. 5- days
D. 1-dayid5fdb418307a5f”

Answer: C
Clarification: The temperature of 20°C is used to take BOD of 5 days because in 5 days the dissolved oxygen present in water is consumed for the decomposition of organic matter. Hence 5 day BOD is used as a standard to represent the amount of oxygen dissolved.