300+ REAL TIME Interview Questions & Answers 2023

300+ [UPDATED] Entomology Interview Questions

1. Can Mosquitoes Transmit Aids Or Hepatitis?

No, despite testing by several laboratories, no conclusive evidence has been found to suggest that mosquitoes can transmit these diseases. The virus that causes AIDS can not survive in the mosquito like some other viruses such as Ross River virus. The mouthparts of a mosquito (the proboscis) are not like a syringe, i.e with a single channel where blood can go up and down. Rather, the proboscis has separate channels for saliva flow and blood intake, hence these diseases are not likely to be transmitted in the manner they can be with syringes.

2. Does Ross River Only Occur In Northern Australia?

No, the disease occurs right across Australia in all states, including Tasmania. The locations that have little disease include those areas that are very dry such as the deserts (although disease transmission may occur after heavy rains), much of the mountain range of eastern Australia, and the major southern cities (although there may be cases on the outskirts).

Agricultural Interview Questions

3. Can I Get Ross River Disease In Sydney?

The chances are small. Within Sydney there are none of the animals (such as kangaroos) that act as the major host for the virus. However, there are known mosquito vectors present and with infected people returning from country areas where the virus is present, it is possible that human-mosquito-human transmission (normally the cycle is animal host-mosquito-human) may occur, although this has never been documented. Occasionally outbreaks of Ross River virus occur on the fringes of major cities, where both mosquito vector and animal hosts occur together, and this has happened in Perth, Brisbane, and in Sydney in the summer of 1996-97.

4. How Do I Prevent Mosquito Bites?

Prevention of mosquito bites can be achieved either through undertaking active mosquito control or by the use of personal protective measures. A variety of active mosquito control measures are available, including habitat modification in order to reduce water availability for breeding of the larval stage, through to the use of appropriate insecticides for controlling the larval or adult stage. These are large scale control measures which can only be undertaken by government bodies such as local councils. On a small scale, householders can ensure that their own backyard does not contain water holding containers which can provide suitable mosquito larval habitats (e.g. undrained pot plants, blocked gutters, disused bottles, old tyres, etc). Personal protective measures include: avoiding known mosquito infested areas, especially at dawn and dusk when mosquitoes are most active; ensuring that houses are adequately fly screened; using insect repellents that contain the chemical DEET, and reapplying it regularly; and wearing long sleeved shirts and pants. Other preventative measures include government based programs that undertake mosquito monitoring and virus surveillance from mosquitoes. These programs aim to act as an early warning system for virus activity by monitoring weather patterns, mosquito populations and viruses such as Ross River, Barmah Forest, Murray Valley encephalitis and Kunjin. In New South Wales, such a program has been running for several years at the Department of Medical Entomology at Westmead Hospital.

5. How Do I Treat Mosquito Bites To Stop The Itch?

Cold water and ice can be useful, although ice should not be applied directly to the skin. A variety of commercial preparations can be obtained from the chemist including Eurax and Stingose. In severe cases, oral antihistamines may have to be administered and if symptoms persist, a physician should be consulted.

Asphalt Concrete Paving Interview Questions

6. How Many Species Of Mosquitoes Are There?

In Australia there are around 400 species but only approximately 10 are commonly abundant and represent a serious pest threat because of their nuisance biting or their ability to transmit disease.

7. How Long Does A Mosquito Live?

This varies with the mosquito species and the time of the year. Some species may only live for less than a week, while others can live for several months over the winter months.

Soil Science Interview Questions

8. Mosquitoes Are Coming Into The House, How Do I Stop Them?

Intact flyscreens on all windows and doors will prevent mosquitoes entering. The main species that tend to enter houses are those that breed around houses. Thus it is important that any container that can hold water be emptied or removed.

9. Will Global Warming (from The Greenhouse Effect) Result In An Increase In Mosquito-borne Diseases?

This is very difficult to determine. Currently there are different theories as to the level and amount of climate change. Some models predict large changes in rainfall patterns, while other predict small changes. We may expect with increases in rainfall there would be an increase in mosquito numbers and a subsequent increase in mosquito-borne diseases, however this may not be the case. The biology of mosquito-borne diseases is a very complex issue and involves the mosquito vector, reservoir hosts and even sociological factors. In some areas, an increase in rainfall may even lead to a decrease in mosquito numbers! All we can be certain of, with global warming, is that there will be a change in the amount and distribution of disease, but to what extent, it is not known.

Batch Plant Interview Questions

10. Are Mosquitoes From Wetlands A Health Or Pest Risk?

They can be under certain circumstances, this is described in detail in the Fact Sheets on “Mosquito Production and Management – Saline Wetlands, Freshwater and Constructed Wetlands, and Irrigation Wetlands”.

11. Is There Lyme Disease In Australia?

There is some debate as to the presence of Lyme disease in Australia. Some workers believe that it is here. However, the most comprehensive tick survey undertaken in Australia to date, found no conclusive evidence for any spirochaete bacteria that may be responsible for the disease (see fact sheet on Lyme Disease for more information). If Lyme Disease is present in Australia, then that it must be very rare.

Zoology Interview Questions

12. I Left The Head Of The Tick Behind, What Should I Do Now?

When a tick is removed, commonly a portion of the head or the mouthparts are left behind. Generally this does not cause any problems as the head of the tick will fall out as the skin sloughs off in time. However, if a local reaction does occur, then a physician should be consulted.

Agricultural Interview Questions

13. Is It Ok To Use Kerosene On The Tick To Remove It?

No, this often causes the tick to inject its saliva into the host and can increase the risk of transmitting disease causing organisms, or increase the risk of death from paralysis.

14. How Do I Remove A Tick?

Insect repellent may be applied to the tick, which will kill it. The tick should be removed with the aid of a pair of fine tipped forceps; the tick needs to be grasped as close the skin of the host as possible, and then forcibly removed.

15. How Do I Prevent Tick Bite?

A variety of methods exist to reduce the possibility of tick bite and prevention is best achieved via some form of personal protection. People who bushwalk in tick infested areas need to use an insect repellent, particularly one containing the chemical DEET, and this should be applied regularly to clothing. Wearing light coloured clothing is useful as ticks can be more easily spotted. Bushland locations which are highly tick infested should be avoided.

Plant Physiology Interview Questions

16. How Do I Treat Tick Bite?

Treatment is the same as that for mosquitoes; cold water and ice can be useful to relieve itching, although ice should not be applied directly to the skin. A variety of commercial preparations can be obtained from the chemist including Eurax and Stingose. In severe cases, oral antihistamines may have to be administered and if symptoms persist, a physician should be consulted.

17. I Have Ticks In The Backyard, How Can I Get Rid Of Them?

This is very difficult, if not impossible to achieve. As ticks are very susceptible to desiccation, removing trees and shrubs will increase the amount of light to the ground, thereby decreasing the humidity levels and making conditions unfavourable for tick survival. Often this involves considerable environmental destruction and is not advisable. The presence of ticks in an area indicates that there are native animal hosts present (usually bandicoots) and this suggests that the environment is natural and healthy. If ticks are present, then it is best to undertake tick avoidance measures.

18. I Had A Severe Reaction After Removing A Tick, What Can I Do?

If an individual reacts severely to a tick bite, then potentially a life threatening anaphylactic reaction may occur in the future and tick avoidance measures must be a priority. Until recently it was possible for such people to be desensitised, however this is no longer possible do to the non-availability of reagents.

Asphalt Concrete Paving Interview Questions

19. Do Ticks Jump?

No. People often think that because a tick often attaches in the head, that the tick has jumped out of the trees. As ticks are susceptible to desiccation, they tend not to climb very high in the vegetation. Once on a host, the tick may take several hours before finding a site to attach to, which is often on the head. Ticks do not have legs that are adapted for jumping.

20. How Long Does A Tick Have To Be Attached Before Paralysis Occurs?

This varies with individuals and some may not even experience paralysis with a fully engorged tick. Generally symptoms of paralysis start showing 2-4 days after the tick has attached.

21. What Is Scabies?

Scabies is a condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which burrows under the sensitive sections of skin, causing severe irritation. Transmission is usually from one infected individual to another. Diagnosis can only be achieved with a skin scraping, which is examined by microscopy, Scabies is easily treated with various readily obtained preparations from chemists.

22. Do Dogs Carry Human Scabies?

No, scabies mites are generally host specific and human infections are typically acquired from another infected human.

23. Can Bird Mites Burrow Under The Skin?

No, bird mites do not do this. Bird mites will repeatedly “test bite” but do not feed continuously.

24. How Do I Get Rid Of A Bird Mite Infestation?

Bird mite infestations originate from birds that are nesting within the house. The mites become a problem when the young birds fledge and the mites in the nest search for a new host to feed on. It is thus important that all nesting material is removed, sealed in plastic bags and discarded, and all access points for birds into the roof be sealed to prevent further reinfestations.

Soil Science Interview Questions

25. Do Head Lice Only Affect Dirty Children?

No, all children are equally at risk of acquiring head lice. Transmission occurs very easily through contact from one infected child to another. Being clean does not prevent infection.

26. Do I Need To Treat All Family Members If One Child Has Head Lice?

Yes, head lice are very easily transmitted from one family member to another. Not everyone will show signs of an infestation and thus all members should be treated at the same time. Likewise all bed linen should be washed in hot water and left to dry in the sun (or a hot clothes dryer).

27. Can I Get Pubic Lice From Dogs, Toilet Seats Or Towels?

No, pubic lice are host specific and are not a parasite of dogs. Acquiring public lice from toilet seats is unlikely, although sharing towels with an infested person can result in transmission.

Batch Plant Interview Questions

28. What Symptoms Result From The Bite Of A White-tailed Spider?

Generally there is local pain, swelling and itching at the site of the bite. There is some evidence that local skin ulceration can occur although this is appears to be uncommon.

29. Something Seems To Be Biting Me And Causing A Severe Itch, What Can It Be?

This is very difficult to determine as there are many things that can irritate, and individual reactions vary from person to person. Insects may be the problem and there are a large variety that can bite (e.g. fleas, flies, mosquitoes, bird mites, etc) or irritate (various urticating caterpillars). However, humans are typically exposed daily to a huge variety of chemicals and other irritants, and these could be cause of the problem rather than insects or mites.

30. What Kinds Of Bugs Can The Entomologist Identify?

Any insects, spiders, ticks, or mites of medical importance. The health department does not provide identification services for agricultural, urban, or garden pests. Those specimens should be sent to the Cooperative Extension Service.

300+ [UPDATED] Email Etiquette Interview Questions

1. What Does It Mean To ‘respect Somebody Else’s Bandwidth’?

To be conscious of how much storage space you are controlling in any given communication, since everyone only has limited space.

2. How Often Is It Sensible To Use ‘reply All’ When Replying To An E-mail?

Only if the information is really relevant to everyone on the list, otherwise keep ‘reply all’ to a minimum.

Customer Relationship Management Interview Questions

3. What Is The Purpose Of Icon-emotions Or So-called ’emoticons’ In Email Communication?

They are meant for fun and entertainment value.

4. What Is The Better Solution Than Using Bold Or Italic To Emphasize Meaning When E-mailing Or Posting Online?

Use carefully chosen words and phrases, so that the meaning is clear and not ambiguous and unlikely to cause misunderstandings.

Customer Relationship Management Tutorial

5. What Are Vcards And Why Are They Sometimes Distracting Or Difficult For The Recipient?

vCards are electronic business cards, but they often take the form of an e-mail attachment, therefore making every e-mail look like it has an attachment.

Customer Care Interview Questions

6. Why Is It Sometimes Important Not To Leave Out The Message Thread, I.e. The Previous Messages In The E-mail Chain?

To increase comprehension of the latest message, and show the history of messages that led up to this point in the exchange.

7. What Do The Abbreviations ‘fwiw’ And ‘fyi’ Stand For?

For What It’s Worth, For Your Information

Email Marketing Tutorial
Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) Interview Questions

8. How Would You Abbreviate ‘be Seeing You’ In Email Jargon?

BSU.

9. What Does ‘scrolling The Chat Screen’ In An Internet Chat Room Mean, And Is It Good Or Bad Netiquette?

Posting multiple, often single letter postings so the chat screen scrolls very fast for all users (bad netiquette).

Customer Service Professional Interview Questions

10. What Is The Most Important Aspect Of Writing Content For A Blog, Either As A Main Posting Or As A Comment On Someone Else’s Blog?

Always make your posts accurate and truthful (as well as entertaining) especially if they reflect on your reputation as someone with an online presence.

11. On A Social Networking Site, Which Of The Following Is Important To Consider – In A Personal Way – When Uploading Photographs?

Consider the feelings and reputation of the person whose image you are uploading, especially if the image is compromising in some way.

Email Marketing Interview Questions

12. Why Should You Not Type In All Caps When Writing An Email?

Because it is considered ‘yelling’.

Customer Relationship Management Interview Questions

13. Which Could Be Considered As Not Being ‘virtual Events,’ So You May Wish To Respond Using A More Direct Reply Or Regular Mail?

Weddings, funerals, engagements, birthdays.

14. What Does ‘flaming’ Or ‘to Flame’ Mean In The Online World?

Flaming means delivering a strongly held opinion without holding back any emotion, often offending the person who is ‘flamed’.

15. Why Is It Always Good To Use Proper Grammar And Correct Spelling In Internet Postings Like Message Boards?

Good grammar and spelling keep ambiguity to a minimum, thereby communicating the message more clearly.

Email Handling Interview Questions

16. What Should You Do If You Do Not Want To Type Your Name At The End Of Every Email You Send?

Create a signature that will get automatically attached to every email you send.

17. Which Of The Following Is The Best Description Of An ‘internet Troll’?

Someone who participates in a message board or chat with the intention to disrupt it in some way.

18. What Does It Mean When You Type An E-mail In All Capitals?

The effect is that you are shouting.

Customer Care Interview Questions

19. Which Are Not Good Practices For Reacting To Virus Hoaxes And Chain Letters?

Considering them, and allowing them to send to your entire contacts list, for other people to decide about their authenticity.

20. What Does The Phrase ‘lurk Before You Leap’ Commonly Mean On Internet Sites?

That you should familiarize yourself with a website’s contents — its purpose, its FAQ, its community — before making a contribution.

21. Which Best Reflects A So-called ‘golden Rule’ Of Etiquette?

Remember the human (remember that a real person is receiving the message).

22. If You Are Chatting With Someone Via The Instant Messenger And Text ‘brb’, What Have You Said?

Be Right Back

23. Which Is The Best Response To Sending A Message That You Didn’t Intend To Send, Or Sent To The Wrong Recipient?

Send a follow-up message explaining that the previous message was a mistake, with a brief apology and explaining that the message can be ignored.

24. When Sending An E-mail, Why Is It A Good Idea To Try And Use The Cc: Field Sparingly?

Unless the recipient in the cc: field knows why they are receiving a copy of the message, he or she may not act on the message, but assume it is really only for the main recipient.

Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) Interview Questions

25. What Is A Very Useful Last Thing To Do Before Sending Out Any E-mail?

Read the e-mail through for spelling and grammatical errors, to simplify the message if possible, and to check the recipient’s e-mail address.

26. What Is The Correct Way To Address Someone Online, If You Are Unsure Of How He Or She Would Like To Be Addressed?

Use their last name, such as Mr. Jones or Ms. Jones.

27. Which Is The Best Explanation Of ‘netiquette’?

An abbreviation for ‘internet etiquette’ or even ‘ethics on the net,’ the correct way to interact in an online setting.

Customer Service Professional Interview Questions

28. When Writing An Email, It Is Generally A Good Idea For Your Paragraphs To Be _______.

short

29. Which Is The Best Technique For Sending A Large E-mail Attachment?

Try and break it up into several smaller downloads, or ‘zip’ the file if possible.

30. Which Is A Good Statement About Time Delays Between E-mail Exchanges?

Try to reply within a 24-48 hour window, but allow at least the same amount of time before sending a follow-on e-mail, if not longer.

31. What Does ‘hth’ Mean In An Email Or On A Message Board?

Hope this helps

32. Which Is The Best Advice When Writing A Business E-mail?

To keep the information relatively short, precise and always polite, with simple questions relating to what you expect to happen.

33. What Does ‘spamming’ Mean, And Is It Good Or Bad Netiquette?

Sending unsolicited e-mails or communications to people online (bad netiquette).

Email Marketing Interview Questions

34. Why Is It Important To Be Careful With Formatting When Sending An E-mail Message?

It is polite, and looks neater, especially if you use pretty colors.

300+ [UPDATED] DB 400 Interview Questions

1. How To Know Total No Of Records In Pf With Out Using Sql?

By using dspfd command you can find out total on record.

dspfd (libname/filename)

here u can find out total no of records.

2. Last Statement Of Any Rpg Pgm Is Lr?

Not necessarily. LR is generally set on after all processing is doen i.e. at the end of the program but there is no hard and fast rule for that.

IBM – RPG Interview Questions

3. Maximum How Many Fields We Can Create Under A Record Format Of Pf?

We can give max of 8000 fields in rec format of a PF.But it also depend on the no. of bytes occupied by the record formate.Because rec. format of PF may occupy atmax 32766 bytes.ie if there is only one field which occupy 32766 bytes then we can’t define a new field in record format.

so it depend on the no. of bytes occupied by the field defined in the record format.

Ex.

Char field – max value(32766 bytes)
variable length field – max value(32740 bytes)
allow null field – max value(32765)
variable & allownull field – max value(32739)

4. How Many Max. Record Format A Logical File Have?

8000. this can vary,can be lesser if date format, alphanumeric fields are used.

IBM – RPG Tutorial

5. Why Journalling Is Compulsory Before Commitment Control?

Commitment ctrl is use to save /rollback the group of chages and Journalling is use to save the changed records in Jorunal reciver.

IBM DB2 Interview Questions

6. Why We Create The Physical File Member?

A member is like an Individual file.It is possible to Have 32767 such members within the same PF.Each member added to the file will exactly get the same record format( fields,types and KWDS) on the file.This facility is provided to meet the requirement when many files are needed to be created with same structure.Here just Create file once with MAXMBRS(as many reqd) and ADDPFM will do it.Easy to create and maintain as a single object.Each member is identified by unique name within file.

Examples : A School has attendance register per class. Each Class has 4 sections and in all10 classes. Instead of Creating and maintaining 40 files and scaterred in a library, one can create a PF and add 40 members in one object.

Secondly All Physical files created need not necessarily have members. Some files are created to store field definitons only and are called field refrence files. They need not have members.

7. Is Constant Can Be Define As A Key Field?

Firstly a Constant cannot be a part of a File field list.
There is no meaning in having a Constant in the Key field.

IBM DB2 Tutorial Data Warehousing Interview Questions

8. Is It Possible To Create A Logical File Whose Physical File Is Not In Same Library?

Yes, Just put the user library in which you want to create on top and followed by other library in which physical file is located. provided the first library should not have physical file. Then try to create the logical.

9. How To Add A Field To A Pf And Compile It Without Loss Of Data?

First Add the fields whatever you want then use CHGPF command

Physical file . . . . . . . . . > MyPf
Library . . . . . . . . . . . MyLib
System . . . . . . . . . . . . . *LCL
Source file . . . . . . . . . . MYSourceFile
Library . . . . . . . . . . . MyLib

Update the Physical file.No need to compile again.

COBOL Interview Questions

10. How To Find The List Of Source Physical Files In A Library? Is There Any Way To Get A List?

WRKOBJPDM LIB(KCS) OBJ(*ALL) OBJTYPE(*FILE) OBJATR(‘PF-SRC’)

Data Warehousing Tutorial

11. Suppose I Have A Pf,it Contains 5 Members,how To Access Particular Member Data From Logical File ?and What Is The Use Of Member In Pf?

Ans1:
Reading member 5 of myfilepf

CRTLF FILE(KCS/MYFILELF) SRCFILE(KCS/KC1) DTAMBRS ((KCS/MYFILEPF (MBR5)))

ADDLFM FILE(KCS/MYFILELF) MBR(MYFILEBR) DTAMBRS ((KCS/MYFILEPF (MBR5)))

Ans2:
For accounting purpose each month data can be stored as 12 different members So that we can easily access one month data or 12 months together. Easy to maintain 12 members in one PF file instead of 12 PF Files.

DB2 Using SQL Interview Questions

12. How To Read A Pf In Reverse(from Last Rec To First) Using Cl?

In this example empfile for reading in reverse order is used.

pgm
dclf file(empfile)
ovrdbf file(empfile) share(*yes)
opnqryf file((empfile)) keyfld((empno *descend))
readf: rcvf rcdfmt(mpfilr)
monmsg msgid(cpf0864) exec(goto cmdlbl(end))
goto readf
end:
endpgm

IBM – RPG Interview Questions

13. How To Retrieve A Physical File After Deleting That? What Is Keyword Used For That?

In the DD statement’s DISP parameter write DISP=KEEP.And to access the file with disposition KEEP we need to supply the volume srail number as vol=ser=xxxx.

COBOL Tutorial

14. When We Create A Pf And Did Not Fill Up Maint Parameter, Then By Default Which Access Path Will The System Take & Why?

Access Path Maint parameter use *IMMED. Access path is updated each time a record is changed, added, or deleted from a member.

15. I Have Physical File With 100 Records,there Is No Any Duplicate Records In This Pf.based On This Pf One Logical File I Have Used.but This Lf Is Viewing Only 80 Records Only Of That Pf?what Is The Reason For This?

If there is any selection criteria in LF then it may be displaying accordingly. If there is no “Select” or “Omit” it should display 100 records. Have a look at LF once again.

SQL Interview Questions

16. How To Know The Particular Record In Pf With Out Reading?

you’ll come to know whether the record is found. that’s all.but not what(value) is in the record.

DB2 Using SQL Tutorial

17. How To Know Logical File Belongs To Which Physical File Without Source?

if you do a DSPDBR on a logical file it wont show you the name of the physical file that it is based on. Rather you need to use DSPFD on the logical file. DSPDBR on a physical file will show the names of all the LF files based on that PF.

AS400 Interview Questions

18. What Is Open Data Path? And What Is The Diff B/w Access Path And Open Data Path?

An access path describes the order in which the rows are retrieved from a database file. If the rows in the file are accessed in a physical sequence, that is known as an arrival sequence access path. If the rows need to be processed in an ordered manner, then a keyed access path is needed to sort the data in the specified order. With DB2 for iSeries, keyed access paths are supplied to DB2 by creating a keyed logical file, keyed physical file, or SQL index.

An access path and an open data path are used together to process the rows in a database file. The open data path (ODP) is the path through which all input and output operations are performed on a database file. The ODP is used to connect the requesting program with the data in the file. As data is retrieved from or inserted into the file, the ODP will use an access path to navigate to a row within in the file. If the rows need to be processed in a sorted owner, then someone will need to supply a keyed access path by creating a keyed physical file, keyed logical file or SQL index.

An ODP is created and used each time that a file is opened or when an SQL statement is executed. There are ways to have an ODP shared or reused instead of creating the ODP each time.

IBM DB2 Interview Questions

19. How To Update Physical File Using Logical File With Example?

Declare the logical file in update mode in the RPG program.

Chain at the record needed to be updated and afer changing the field value use UPDATE opcode with the record format name of the LF.The record gets updated

20. How To Update Physical Files Using Normal Logical File?

To Update physical file in RPG use opcode UPDATE.

example:

FLF1 IF E k DISK
key1 Setll LF1
READ LF1
UPDATE LF1

Note: Logical file should be simeple logical file. We can’t update physical file with help of Join logical file.

DB2 SQL Programming Interview Questions

21. One Physical File Can Have How Many Max Of Logical Files? What Is The Primary File?

one physical file can have more than one logical files.
priamary file is used in rpg program cycle to automatically read records in a cycle.

22. What Is The Interactive Job? What Is The Batch Job? How To Change The Batch Job To Interactive Job?

When you sign-on an AS/400 system, you are interacting with interactive jobs(e.g.QINTER). The System-jobs which are presubmitted are called batch jobs(e.g.QBATCH, QSPL, QCMN etc.,)

If u want to know whether a job is in Interactive or Batch, u can use RTVJOBA command with attribute JOB-TYPE on that job.

if it has a value ‘1’ = Interative; ‘0’ = Batch.

you can change a Batch-job to Interactive-job as long as it is in JOBQ(by changing the environment on CHGJOB(opt-2) command to QINTER or QPGMR); once it’s active we cannot change the type.

23. What Is The Purpose Of The Chain And Setll And Setgt?

CHAIN is used for random retrieval from a File. In other words, whatever value used by programmer in Factor 1/Key against CHAIN opcode will be used as search/find criteria in database file. NO VALUE RETRIEVED IN NO CRITERIA MATCH. It can be well understand, in case of using composite keys.

But in case of SETLL and SETGT, program will return some value, if any value present in the database/physical file.

CHAIN = Sets pointer on exact value
SETLL = Sets pointer on Lower Limit of the value
SETGT = Sets pointer on Greater Limit of the value

==========================================================

It is recommended, use CHAIN only, if record exist in database file, instead of SETLL and SETGT, which can be used otherwise.

Mainframe DB2 Interview Questions

24. A Pf Containing 100 Records… My Query Is How To Display From 11th Record In The Pf?

We can positioned to nth record in file in CL with the help of OVRDBF command.

Synatax:

OVRDBF FILE(file-name) POSITION(*RRN 11)

This will positioned file on 11th record so RCVF command will read 11th record in file.
If you want to read with key conditioned then we can specify *KEY,*KEYA,KEYAE etc to positioned with key specified in command.

Data Warehousing Interview Questions

25. I Had Created One Physical File Tell Me Command To Enter Data In To?

By the use of the cmd UPDDTA Pfname use can enter the data into the physical file. Note: dn’t compile the pf after entering the data into the pf.

26. Can We Concatenate Fields In Physical File? If Yes How Can We Do?

No, we cannot concat fields in Physical File. However, in logical file, we can concat 2 or more fields together into 1 field. format is..

Rpgle Interview Questions

300+ [REAL TIME] Fixed Deposit Interview Questions

1. To What Asset Class Does A Fd Belong?

Fixed deposits form a part of the debt investment of an investor’s portfolio.

2. What Are Various Deposit Time Slabs Available?

Deposit time slab is the period for which a term deposit can be made with a bank. There are various time periods for which this is possible like 14-29 days, 181-364 days, 3-5 years and so on. The depositor has to select one of these for the purpose of their deposit.

General Accounting Interview Questions

3. Do Senior Citizens Get Any Extra Benefit On The Fd?

Yes, they do get extra benefits in the form of higher interest rates.

4. In Case Of Company Fixed Deposits, Where Not To Invest?
- Companies which offer interest higher than 15%.
- Companies which are not paying regular dividends to the shareholder.
- Companies whose Balance Sheet shows losses.
- Companies which are below investment grade (A or under) rating.

Security Analysis and Investment Management Tutorial

5. Will I Get A Fd Receipt?

Yes, you will get FD receipt and please note that you will not be issued a receipt for FD opened through Internet Banking.

Financial Accounting&Financial Statement Analysis Interview Questions

6. What Are Tax-saving Fixed Deposits?

Tax-saving fixed deposits are a special category of fixed deposits where the investor gets the benefit of a tax break when they invest a sum of money in the deposit. The maximum benefit is available up to an investment of Rs 1 lakh and there is a lock-in period of 5 years in the deposit.

7. What Is Maturity Of An Fd?

Maturity is the time at which the amount in the fixed deposit has to be returned to the investor. The fixed deposit is given for a time period that is decided at the time of making the investment and at the expiry this has to be given back.

Retail Management Tutorial
Security Analysis and Investment Management Interview Questions

8. What Are The Multiples In Which I Can Withdraw Money From My Fd?

You can withdraw money from your FD in multiples of Rs 1,000/-.

9. Are The Interest Rates For All The Banks The Same?

Each bank or financial institution that is offering fixed deposits fixes its own deposit rates. The deposit rates depend upon the financial position of the bank and the conditions that impact the fundraising for the institution.

Cost Accounting Interview Questions

10. What Is Compound Interest For Fds?

Compound Interest is the ability of a fixed deposit in India to generate interest, which is then reinvested in order to generate further earnings is known as compound interest.

11. What Is A Deposit?

Deposit is a sum of money lodged in a bank for the purpose of earning interest. A deposit is repayable according to terms of acceptance.

Sales Interview Questions

12. What Is Future Value Of Any Fd?

Future Value of any FD is the original amount plus the compound interest thereon, stated as of a specific future date.

General Accounting Interview Questions

13. What Is Recurring Deposit Or Cumulative Deposit Account?

Recurring Deposit or Cumulative Deposit Account – Under such bank account, a depositor is required to deposit (multiples of Rs 5/ or Rs 10/ are accepted in his account every month. This deposit is usually available from 1 to 5 years. The rate of interest charged by banks on such accounts depends on the period but is better than savings bank account because this account is like a Fixed Deposit Account. Banks introduce such deposit account to inculcate the habit of saving among people by offering.

14. Can I Get A Loan Against A Fixed Deposit?

Yes, you can. Most banks offer a loan against FD. By using the fixed deposit as a collateral for the loan you can get a loan at lower rates. The rates are usually pegged at a few percentage points higher than the fixed deposit. Usually banks advance up to 90% of the fixed deposit being held in a loan.

15. Is There Any Scope Of Appreciation Of Principal In Case Of Company Fds?

No, at the end of deposit period principal is returned to the deposit holder along with the applicable interest.

Management Accounting Interview Questions

16. What Is Repayment Of Fd?

Repayment of Fixed Deposit is the action of giving the original amount that is invested back to the investor when the specified time period is over. The process of repayment will complete the entire fixed deposit cycle.

17. Upto What Limits Can A Company Accept Deposit?

A Non-Banking Non-Finance Company(Manufacturing Company) can accept deposit subject to following limits:-

Upto 10% of aggregate of paid-up share capital and free reserves if the deposits are from shareholders or guaranteed by directors.

Otherwise upto 25% of aggregate of paid-up share capital and free reserves.

Non-Banking Finance Company can accept deposits upto following limits:-

Equipment Leasing Company can accept four times of its net owned fund.

Computerised Accounting Interview Questions

18. What Happens To Accounts Of A Nri’s Nre Or Fcnr Accounts Which He/she Has Opened Abroad After His/her Return To India?

A returning Indian’s NRE/FCNR accounts is usually designated as a Resident account. Most banks allow these deposits to continue to run till maturity at the contracted rate of interest.

Financial Accounting&Financial Statement Analysis Interview Questions

19. What Is Fcnr Deposit Account?

FCNR deposits stands for Foreign Currency Non-Repatriable account deposits. This is a Fixed Deposit Foreign Currency account and not a savings account. Deposits in this account can be made in any of the major currencies like US Dollar, UK Pound, Canadian Dollar, Deutsche Mark, Japanese Yen and Euro.

20. How Are Interest Payments Made In Case Of Company Fds?

Interest is paid on monthly/quarterly/half yearly/yearly or on maturity basis and is sent either through cheque or ECS facility.

Retail Management Interview Questions

21. Do We Get Any Advantage Of Investing In A Non Callable Fd Instead Of A Regular Fd?

As an investor the biggest reason why you should consider investing in non callable fixed deposits is the higher rate of interest. The rate of interest in non callable fixed deposits is higher compared to callable fixed deposits for the same tenure. But since Callable fixed deposits allow you to liquidate or break your deposit within the tenure period at any point of time choose your investments carefully.

22. What Are Demand Deposits In Fds?

Demand deposits are the sum of money that is given to a bank but can be withdrawn as per the requirement of the depositor. Amounts that are lying in the savings and current accounts are known as demand deposits because they can be used at any point of time.

23. What Is The Range Of Tenure For Which I Can Open A Fd Account?

You can deposit money for as short a period as 7 days and upto 10 years.

Banking Interview Questions

24. What Is The Period Of The Company Deposit?

Company Fixed Deposits can be accepted by a Manufacturing Company having duration from 6 months to 3 years. Non-Banking Finance Company can accept deposit from 1 year to 5 years period. A Housing Finance Company can accept deposit from 1 year to 7 years.

Security Analysis and Investment Management Interview Questions

25. What Are Nomination Facilities Available On Fd?

The facility of Nomination is available for relationships in the names of individuals. Unless otherwise specifically given in writing by depositors, nomination in deposit accounts will be at Customer ID level.

26. How Do I Redeem My Fd?

After maturity of your FD, you can walk into any Bank across the country and claim your deposit by furnishing your Fixed Deposit receipt/Memorandum of Deposit.

Chartered accountant Interview Questions

27. Why Interest From Company Fixed Deposit Is Higher Than Banks?

Company Fixed Deposit have always offered interest which is 2-3% higher than Bank Deposit rate. Because they have to pay higher interest to banks for borrowing money.

Cost Accounting Interview Questions

28. At What Frequency Will I Receive Interest On My Fd?

For the Traditional scheme, the interest on the FD account is credited to the Savings account specified by you on a monthly basis or on a quarterly basis. For the Reinvestment scheme, the interest is compounded to the principal amount on a quarterly basis.

29. What Is Deposit Insurance For Fds?

Explicit Deposit Insurance is a measure implemented in many countries to protect bank depositors, in full or in part, from losses caused by a bank’s inability to pay its debts when due. Deposit insurance systems are one component of a financial system safety net that promotes financial stability.

Bank Branch Manager Interview Questions

30. What Do You Mean By Bank Fixed Deposits?

Bank fixed deposits are deposits that are collected from investors by banks for a specific time period are known as bank fixed deposits or bank term deposits. These form the main area of raising funds for banks.

31. When Is Tds Deducted On The Interest From Company Fixed Deposits?

TDS is deducted if the interest on fixed deposit exceeds Rs.5000/- in a financial year.

32. Is There Any Auto Renewal Facility Available On Fd?

Yes, you can opt for auto renewal at the time of opening the FD or anytime before the FD matures. Auto renewal allows your FD to get renewed automatically for the same period as the original deposit. However under auto renewal option the fixed deposit receipt is with the custody of the Bank and Memorandum of Deposit (MOD) is issued in lieu of fixed deposit receipt.

Mutual Fund Interview Questions

33. What Is A Fixed Deposit?

Fixed deposit is a sum of money given to a bank, financial institution or company whereby the receiving entity pays interest at a specified percentage for the time duration of the deposit. At the end of the time period of the deposit the amount that is originally given is returned to the investor. Fixed deposits are also known as term deposits.

Sales Interview Questions

34. Are Banks The Only Institution That Offers Fixed Deposit?

There are many other institutions apart from banks that offer fixed deposit investment options for investors. Within the banking family there are public sector banks, private sector banks as well as co-operative banks with whom a fixed deposit can be made.

35. What Is Renewal Of Deposit For Fd?

Renewal of deposit is a process whereby the deposit holder continues with the deposit for an additional time period after the completion of the initial time period of investment. The additional period can be similar or different from the original time period. Instead of withdrawing the deposit amount this is continued.

36. Does A High Interest Rate Offered On A Fixed Deposit Represent A Good Investment?

The interest rate that is offered on a fixed deposit by the borrowing institution helps provide an insight into the position of the entity. If the financial condition is very strong then the institution can raise funds by offering a low rate while a high rate has to be offered to the investors to get them to consider the investment given the slightly higher risk involved.

Management Accounting Interview Questions

37. Are Bank Fixed Deposits (fds) Safe?

Bank Fixed Deposits (FDs) are generally safe investments because FDs up to Rs 1 lakh are insured under the Deposit Insurance & Credit Guarantee Scheme of India.

38. Is Tds Applicable On Fds?

Tax is deducted at source, from the interest on Fixed Deposits, as applicable, as per the Income Tax Act, 1961.

39. Which Companies Can Accept Deposit?

Companies registered under Companies Act 1956, such as:-
- Manufacturing Companies.
- Non-Banking Finance Companies.
- Housing Finance Companies.
- Financial Institutions.
- Government Companies.

40. How To Choose A Good Company Deposit Scheme?
- Ignore the unrated Company Deposit Schemes. Ignore deposit schemes of little known manufacturing companies. For NBFC’s, RBI has made it mandatory to have an ‘A’ rating to be eligible to accept public deposits, one should go further and look at only AA or AAA schemes.
- Within a given rating grade, choose the company with a better reputation.
- Once you decide on a company, next choose the schemes that has given a better return. Unless you need income regularly.

Computerised Accounting Interview Questions

200+ TOP BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Interview Questions with Answers

Best BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Questions and Answers

BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Interview Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Interview Questions. These BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Questions with Answers are very important for campus placement Interviews.As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular questions during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT & Non IT Industries.

1. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?

A. Cyanobacteria

B. Mycoplasmas

C. Bdellovibrios

D. Spirochetes

Answer: B

Interview Questions on BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY

2. A cluster of polar flagella is called

A. lophotrichous

B. amphitrichous

C. monotrichous

D. petritrichous

Answer: A

3. Flagella move the cell by

A. many flagella beating in a synchronous, whip-like motion

B. an individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion

C. spinning like a propeller

D. attaching to nearby particles and contracting

Answer: C

4. The protein from which hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is

A. keratin

B. flagellin

C. gelatin

D. casein

Answer: B

5. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are

A. Streptococci

B. Diplococci

C. Tetracocci

D. None of these

Answer: B

6. Which of the following may contain fimbriae?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: B

7. Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria

A. 50% or more

B. About 10%

C. 11%+ 0.22%

D. About 20%

Answer: A

8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to

A. move

B. reproduce

C. stick to tissue surfaces

D. grow in nutrient agar

Answer: A

9. Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?

A. It consists of multiple layers

B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria

C. It contains teichoic acids

D. All of these

Answer: D

10. The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can be easily destroyed by the enzyme known as

A. lipase

B. lysozyme

C. pectinase

D. peroxidase

Answer: B

11. The cell wall of

A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-negative bacteria

B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-positive bacteria

C. both have same thickness but composition is different

D. none of these

Answer: A

12. Peptidoglycan is also known as

A. N-acetyl muramic acid

B. murein mucopeptide

C. N acetylglucosamine

D. mesodiaminopimetic acid

Answer: B

13. Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in

A. nucleoid

B. chromatin

C. nuclear material

D. all of these

Answer: D

14. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gram-negative bacterium?

A. Pore protein (porin)

B. Protein involved in energy generation

C. Lipoteichoic acid

D. Phospholipids

Answer: A

15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is

A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid

B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link

C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid

D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein

Answer: B

17. The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular pattern are

A. Staphylococci

B. diplococci

C. Tetracocci

D. Streptococci

Answer: A

18. Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of

A. swimming away of bacteria

B. swimming towards a bacteria

C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence of chemical compound

D. none of the above

Answer: C

19. The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is

A. pilli

B. flagella

C. sheath

D. capsules

Answer: B

20. The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is

A. synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit

B. removal of the subunit from bactoprenol

C. linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to the growing peptidoglycan chain

D. cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglycan

Answer: C

21. The cocci which forms a chain is

A. Streptococci

B. diplococci

C. Staphylococci

D. Tetracocci

Answer: A

22. The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, is known as

A. lophotrichous

B. amphitrichous

C. peritrichous

D. monotrichous

Answer: C

23. Periplasm is

A. the area between the inner and outer membranes of gram-negative bacteria

B. the area between the inner and outer membranes of Gram-positive bacteria

C. the interior portion of mitochondria

D. the area outside the cell membrane that is influenced by the polymers

Answer: A

24. Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a major constituent of cell wall?

A. Gram-negative bacteria

B. Gram-positive bacteria

C. Fungi

D. None of these

Answer: B

25. The common word for bacteria which are helically curved rods is

A. cooci

B. pleomorphic

C. bacillus

D. spirilla

Answer: D

26. The bacteria deficient in cell wall is

A. Treponema

B. Mycoplasma

C. Staphylococcus

D. Klebsiella

Answer: B

27. Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan?

A. It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids (alanine, lysine, etc.)

B. It is present in prokaryotic cell wall

C. It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane

D. None of the above

Answer: D

28. The common word for bacteria which are spherical in shape is

A. cocci

B. bacilli

C. spirilla

D. pleomorphic

Answer: A

29. Single or clusters of flagella at both poles is known as

A. monotrichous

B. petritrichous

C. amphitrichous

D. none of these

Answer: C

30. Which of the following bacterial genera (that produces endospore) have medical importance?

A. Clostridium

B. Bacillus

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: C

31. Microcapsules are composed of

A. proteins

B. polysaccharides

C. lipids

D. all of these

Answer: D

32. Gram positive cells have a

A. second outer membrane that helps to retain the crystal violet stain

B. multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain the crystal violet stain

C. thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain

D. periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet

Answer: B

33. The common word for bacteria which are straight rod in shape is

A. cooci

B. bacilli

C. spirilla

D. pleomorphic

Answer: B

34. A single polar flagella is known as

A. monotrichous

B. lophotrichous

C. amphitrichous

D. none of these

Answer: A

36. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes are

A. 70S

B. 60S

C. 80S

D. Not specific

Answer: C

37. Porins are located in

A. the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria

B. the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria

C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria

D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria

Answer: A

38. Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?

A. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

B. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)

C. Braun lipoprotein

D. Electron transport system components

Answer: A

39. Which of the following does not contain protein?

A. Pili

B. Flagellum

C. Lipoteichoic acid

D. Porin

Answer: C

40. Swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is termed as

A. positive chemotaxis

B. negative chemotaxis

C. phototaxis

D. magnetotaxis

Answer: C

41. Chemically the capsule may be

A. polypeptide

B. polysaccharide

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of these

Answer: C

42. Peptidoglycan is found only in the bacterial

A. cell membrane

B. glycocalyx

C. cell wall

D. spore

Answer: C

43. The cell walls of Gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugar, viz. N- acetylgucosamine (NAG) and N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by

A. a- 1,4-glycosidic bond

B. ß-1,6-glycosidic bond

C. a- 1,6-glycosidic bond

D. ß- 1,4-glycosidic bond

Answer: D

44. Which of the following organism has sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane?

A. Clostridum

B. Proteus

C. Mycoplasma

D. Bacillius

Answer: C

45. Name the component of flagellum.

A. Filament

B. Hook

C. Basal body

D. All of these

Answer: D

46. The location where the bacterial chromosome concentrates is called

A. nucleus

B. nuclein

C. nucleoid

D. nucleose

Answer: C

47. Which of the following is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria?

A. Mitochondria of eukaryotes

B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes

C. Lysosomes of eukaryotes

D. None of these

Answer: A

48. Which of the following has Chinese letter arrangement?

A. Bacillus anthracis

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. Clostridium tetani

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer: D

49. The other name for peptidoglycan is

A. mucopeptide

B. murein

C. both (a) & (b)

D. none of these

Answer: C

50. Cyanobacteria have

A. a gram-positive cell wall

B. a gram-negative cell wall

C. Neither (a) nor (b)

D. No cell wall

Answer: B

51. In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a major constituent of outer membrane of the cellwall?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Fungi

D. None of these

Answer: B

52. Which of the following structure(s) is /are external to cell wall?

A. Flagella

B. Stalks

C. Sheath

D. All of these

Answer: D

53. Which of the following may be most likely to be missing from a gram-positive bacterium?

A. Penicillin binding protein

B. Peptidoglycan

C. Lipopolysaccharide

D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane

Answer: C

200+ TOP Spleen MCQs with Answers Online Quiz Pdf

Spleen Interview Questions

Spleen Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Spleen Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Spleen Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. As the functional anatomy of the spleen is divided into red pulp, white pulp, and marginal zone, what function is incorporated into the anatomy of the cortical zone that relates to infection control?

A. Filtration of red cells, encapsulated bacteria, and other foreign material.

B. Red pulp for formation of red cells.

C. White pulp for its role in formation of granulocytes.

D. Gray areas, so formed because of the production of platelets.

E. Fibrous trabeculae.

Answer: A

DISCUSSION: The cortical networks described by Billroth are lined with B-, T-, and other lymphocyte subpopulations. The open zones, called by some the cords of Billroth, serve as an anatomic microfilter as well as a functional mechanism for removing foreign materials. For example, immature red cells with retained nuclei are “pitted” by these cords and removed from circulation. Pneumococcal and other bacteria (encapsulated and nonencapsulated) can be removed by the spleen. The filter mechanism of the spleen, combined with this immune capacity, is what is mainly lost in splenectomy that exposes the asplenic patient to overwhelming postsplenectomy sepsis syndrome (OPSS).

2. During the evolution of the understanding of hematologic diseases, the indications for splenectomy have changed. The most common indications for splenectomy are, in descending order of frequency:

A. Traumatic injury, immune thrombocytopenia, hypersplenism.

B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura, traumatic injury, hypersplenism.

C. Hypersplenism, traumatic injury, immune thrombocytopenia.

D. Immune thrombocytopenia, hypersplenism, traumatic injury.

E. None of the above.

Answer: A

DISCUSSION: Over the years, the indications for splenectomy have varied as better understanding and altered therapy for immune system diseases have occurred. Whereas in the past splenectomy was the available therapy for hypersplenism, better understanding of the diseases causing hypersplenism (which is a syndrome) has allowed other therapies to emerge. Splenectomy, therefore, is less often required for the treatment of hypersplenism associated with some types of hematologic malignancies. Traumatic injury remains the most common indication for splenectomy, although this situation may change as conservative management of splenic injuries continues to increase. Moreover, immune thrombocytopenia is increasing in frequency and is definitively cured by splenectomy.

3. Useful methods for detection of splenic injury, in descending order of sensitivity, are:

A. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

B. CT.

C. Ultrasonography.

D. Isotope scan.

E. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Answer: B

DISCUSSION: Diagnosis of splenic injury is most specifically made and quantitated by CT. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is useful for detecting intra-abdominal bleeding, but not specific to splenic injury. Isotope scans are useful to a point but do not delineate the anatomy of the spleen that is injured. Classifications of splenic injury are currently being developed based on the images provided by CT scans and are evolving into prospective decision trees for operation or conservative management.

4. The following statements about splenosis are correct:

A. Autotransplantation of splenic tissue is an etiology.

B. May protect against OPSS.

C. May over time be “born again” and regain some immune function.

D. May produce tuftsin and properdin.

E. All of the above.

Answer: E

DISCUSSION: Splenosis or autotransplantation of splenic tissue, which may follow splenic injury, can result in the return of some types of immune function. The “born again” spleen refers to the detection in blood samples of the opsonin tuftsin and properdin, which have been observed to occur in the occasional patient at a period of time remote from splenic injury. The supposition is that as the splenic implants grow and multiply in time, they reach a critical mass whereby opsonins may be formed and presumably the implants can provide some of the host defense mechanisms that were lost with splenectomy.

5. The following comments about immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are accurate:

A. Platelet count is low.

B. Circulating antiplatelet factor is present.

C. Antiplatelet factor is immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody.

D. Purpura is directed against a platelet-associated antigen.

E. May be fatal.

F. All of the above.

Answer: A

DISCUSSION: ITP is a disease characterized by low platelet counts and a bone marrow with proliferative megakaryocytes. The disease is usually diagnosed by abnormal episodes of bleeding, which may occur from trauma, menses, etc. The causative event by which sensitized platelet-associated antibodies are developed is probably multiple. The effect of the platelet-associated antibodies, which is usually IgG, is directed against a platelet-associated antigen and, when coating of normal platelets occurs, results in the platelets being sequestered from the system by the reticuloendothelial system with resultant thrombocytopenia.

6. ITP:

A. Is most common in men in their 20s.

B. Is frequently cured in adults by corticosteroid administration.

C. Usually requires splenectomy in children.

D. Is most common in the sixth decade of life.

E. Is in remission in more than 80% of patients with splenectomy.

Answer: E

DISCUSSION: ITP is characterized by a low platelet count and is definitively diagnosed by low platelet count in association with bone marrow that shows thrombasthenia. Patients with this illness experience abnormal bleeding during menstruation or nosebleeds or in response to minor insults. Occasionally, a patient who bleeds excessively after an auto accident is found to have undiagnosed ITP. The usual therapy is initiated with prednisone, and some believe that the prednisone response is predictive of success after splenectomy. Approximately 80% of patients, however, require increasing doses of steroids to maintain satisfactory platelet counts and ultimately require splenectomy. Similarly, approximately 80% of patients achieve normal platelet counts within 3 months after splenectomy, whereas more than 90% are remitted from further bleeding episodes.

7. Splenectomy and perioperative therapy for ITP:

A. Follow successful steroid therapy.

B. Respond permanently to high-dose intravenous gamma globulin.

C. Are preceded by polyvalent vaccines for Pneumococcus, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis.

D. Cannot be done laparoscopically.

E. Are associated with splenomegaly.

Answer: C

8. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a syndrome characterized by all of the following except:

A. Thrombocytopenia.

B. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

C. Deposition of platelet microthrombi.

D. Fluctuating neurologic abnormalities.

E. Renal failure.

F. Afebrile.

Answer: F

DISCUSSION: This disease, sometimes called Moschcowitz’s syndrome, is characterized by thrombocytopenia, microangiopathy, chemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure, and fever. Platelet deposits, with hyaline material composed of aggregated platelets and fibrin, occur. The cause is unknown, and the prognosis is very poor: survival is less than 10%. A combined approach using antiplatelet d–gs and corticosteroids can be effective and sometimes has improved results if done with splenectomy.

9. Which of the following comments does not describe hypersplenism?

A. It may occur without underlying disease identification.

B. It may be secondary to many hematologic illnesses.

C. It is associated with work hypertrophy from immune response.

D. It requires evaluation of the myeloproliferation.

E. It is associated with antibodies against platelets.

Answer: E

DISCUSSION: Hypersplenism was described by Chauffard in 1907 and initially was mostly associated with the syndrome in which a variety of hematologic illnesses, ranging from sickle cell disease to the leukemias, could be found to have improved circulating blood elements if the spleen were removed. Diagnosis of these illnesses has improved, and illnesses once classified as primary hypersplenism now are frequently classified as secondary, as the primary mechanism involved is known. The spleen may enlarge owing to differing pathophysiologic mechanisms, but when it achieves a certain size, it removes all of the main circulating cellular blood elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets). One element may be more deficient than others.

10. Hyposplenism is a potentially lethal syndrome. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. It is confirmed by isotope scan.

B. It is always associated with an atrophic spleen.

C. It may be associated with overwhelming post-splenectomy sepsis syndrome (OPSS).

D. It is associated with thyrotoxicosis, corticosteroid administration, and some contrast agents.

E. It may be associated with ulcerative colitis or sickle cell anemia.

Answer: B

11. Hodgkin’s disease is a malignant lymphoma with four histologic subtypes. Which of the following is not one of the subtypes?

A. Lymphocyte predominance.

B. Nodular sclerosis.

C. Mixed cellularity.

D. Lymphocyte depletion.

E. Leukocyte-lymphocyte dominance.

Answer: E

DISCUSSION: A variety of histologic conventions for the major subtypes of Hodgkin’s disease have been derived over the years. They are useful in identifying the prognosis and predictions for morbidity and mortality. The subtypes are further subdivided to provide more precise association with therapeutic approaches, with identification with various staging levels, etc.

12. Which of the following statements about lymphatic capillaries are true?

A. These vessels have delicate tricuspid valves every 2 to 3 mm.

B. Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries.

C. Lymphatic capillaries are less permeable than blood capillaries.

D. Lymphatic capillaries contain gaps large enough to admit particles as large as lymphocytes.

Answer: CD

DISCUSSION: The transporting lymphatic vessels have valves but lymphatic capillaries do not. The lymphatic capillaries will accept particles including bacteria, red blood cells, and lymphocytes and transport them to regional lymph nodes.

13. Which of the following forces do not promote the formation of interstitial fluid?

A. Increased venous pressure.

B. Constrictive pericarditis.

C. Hypernatremia.

D. Hypoproteinemia.

Answer: C

DISCUSSION: Interstitial fluid production is a function of the hydrostatic and colloid osmotic pressures across the capillary membrane. Forces tending to increase interstitial fluid flux across the capillary membrane include obstruction to outflow of the capillary due to structural or functional obstruction in the venous system or increase in venous pressure from any cause, reduction in osmotic pressure due to hypoproteinemia, and increase in pore size due to local mediators of inflammation.

14. The most frequent cause of primary lymphedema is:

A. A deficiency of transporting lymphatic channels.

B. Valvular incompetence in lymphatic channels.

C. Obstruction or removal of regional lymph nodes.

D. Thrombosis of lymphatic channels.

Answer: A

DISCUSSION: Primary lymphedema is most frequently due to hypoplasia or aplasia of extremity transporting lymphatic channels.

15. Most patients with lymphedema can be managed by:

A. Pedicle transfer of lymphatic bearing tissue into the affected area.

B. Elevation, elastic support garments, and massage therapy or mechanical pneumatic compression.

C. Lymphatic bypass using an autogenous vein graft.

D. Excision of hypertrophic scarred fibrotic skin and subcutaneous tissue down to muscle fascia and coverage with split-thickness skin grafts.

Answer: B

DISCUSSION: The vast majority of patients with mild to moderate lymphedema can be managed with leg elevation and elastic support garments, and some will require mechanical pneumatic compression or massage therapy. Only patients with very severe deforming elephantiasis require operative therapy.

16. Which statements about lymphangiomas are true?

A. Most lesions appear during puberty.

B. These lesions frequently respond to small doses of radiation therapy.

C. The lesions usually grow slowly but may infiltrate local tissues.

D. Malignant transformation is frequent.

Answer: C

DISCUSSION: Lymphangiomas are congenital malformations of the lymphatic vessels. Most appear at birth or during early infancy. The lesions grow slowly and infiltrate local tissues, but actual malignant degeneration is exceedingly rare. The lesions are not responsive to radiation therapy.

17. The two primary causes of death from sickle cell disease in the first decade of life are which of the following?

a. Sepsis

b. Splenic sequestration crisis

c. Acute chest syndrome

d. Heart failure

Answer: a, b

Sickle cell disease and thalassemia are the principal hemoglobinopathies that cause clinically important disease. Clinical symptoms are directly dependent upon the amount of HgbS present, and this is variable. Patients who are homozygous for HgbS usually have small sequential splenic infarcts as a result of microvascular occlusion and the spleen usually becomes small, fibrotic, and dysfunctional by the age of 5 years. Splenic sequestration crisis is a cause of anemia that can be acute and life-threatening. Sepsis associated with functional asplenia can be lethal as well. These are the two primary causes of death in sickle cell disease during the first decade of life.

18. The therapy for a patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is which of the following:

a. Plasmapheresis

b. Corticosteroids

c. Splenectomy

d. Intravenous immune globulin

Answer: a

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TPP) is a relatively rare syndrome with no definitive diagnostic test or clinical characteristic. The principal clinical features are thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, mental status changes, and renal dysfunction. Treatment is generally focused on the removal of the plasma constituents that lead to platelet aggregation. Plasmapheresis is particularly effective and has decreased the 1-year mortality rate of 50% to 80% to about 10%. Splenectomy was initially proposed for TPP but has been shown to have little benefit and instead is associated with a considerable risk of postsplenectomy sepsis. Corticosteroids and intravenous immune globulin are appropriate therapies for immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but not TPP.

19. Which of the following statements regarding post splenectomy sepsis are true?

a. The incidence in children is generally reported as less than 5%

b. Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neiseria meningitidis are the most common causative organisms

c. Autotransplantation techniques eliminate this risk

d. The mortality rate is now approximately 50%

e. The incidence in adults in approximately 1%

Answer: a, b, d, e

Postsplenectomy sepsis (PSS) refers to the increased risk of systemic infection in patients who have undergone splenectomy. The incidence of PSS in children is as high as 4% during a follow-up of nearly 10 years, and from 0.3% to 1.8% in adults during an 8-year follow-up. The highest incidence of PSS is among those who have undergone splenectomy for associated malignancies or who had an incidental splenectomy during other surgical procedures in adulthood. In children, the patients most at risk for PSS are those who have undergone splenectomy for either congenital or acquired anemias. It is important to remember that any patient who has undergone splenectomy or who has hyposplenism is at risk for PSS.

The most common causative organisms are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neiseria meningitidis. Other less common encapsulated organisms have also been identified. In addition, organisms without classical polysaccharide cell walls can occasionally produce overwhelming infection in postsplenectomy patients. The mortality from PSS is approximately 50%. Splenic autotransplantation has been proposed as an alternative means of splenic preservation in patients whose spleens are too severely injured for in situ repair. Splenic autotransplants do not appear to have normal splenic function. Splenic autotransplants have diminished ability to protect against PSS when compared to a normal spleen and they have not been demonstrated to prevent post-splenectomy sepsis.

20. You are consulted regarding a 50-year old male with Laennec’s cirrhosis, portal hypertension and hypersplenism. He has no history of gastrointestinal bleeding. You would recommend which of the following?

a. Splenectomy

b. Prophylactic sclerotherapy for esophageal varices

c. Portosystemic shunt

d. Observation

Answer: d

Patients with hypersplenism from portal hypertension usually present with thrombocytopenia as the primary manifestation. The role of splenectomy in such patients is controversial. Although splenectomy may transiently increase the number of platelets in the peripheral circulation, it generally does not improve survival. At the time of surgery, these patients have considerable risk for massive bleeding and subsequent complications related to hepatic dysfunction. These latter complications include ascites, coagulopathy, and wound complications. The severity of the underlying liver disease is the determining factor for these patients. Some believe that splenectomy is contraindicated in patients with portal hypertension. Indeed, the perioperative risks are considerably greater than normal. This should be considered as a last option, and even then with the realization that the operative and preoperative morbidity and mortality are high.

In the absence of gastrointestinal bleeding, this particular patient has no indication for either sclerotherapy or portosystemic shunting.

21. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an abnormality of erythrocyte metabolism associated with hemolytic anemia. Pharmocologic agents which induce hemolysis include which of the following?

a. Acetylsalicylic acid

b. Vitamin E

c. Sulfamethoxazole

d. Desferrioxamine

e. Nitrofurantoin

Answer: a, c, e

Generally, G6PD deficiency is not clinically apparent; hemolytic anemia occurs in most patients only after the consumption of certain medications or exposure to specific chemicals. A partial list of oxidizing agents known to induce acute hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency follows:

Acetylsalicylic acid (high dose)

Phenacetin

Nitrofurantoin

Sulfamethoxazole

Doxorubicin

Nalidixic acid

Acetanilid

Primaquine

Phenazopyridine

Methylene blue

Niridazole

Furazolidone

Fava beans

Splenectomy is rarely indicated in patients with G6PD deficiency. Management generally is adequate simply by avoiding exposure to precipitating agents. Vitamin E and desferrioxamine may be therapeutic for G6PD deficient patients, presumably related to their antioxidant activity.

22. Hypersplenism is associated with which of the following diseases?

a. Portal hypertension

b. Lymphoma

c. Mononucleosis

d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

e. Gaucher disease

Answer: a, b, c, d, e

Hypersplenism is not a specific disease but rather a physiologic state characterized by splenomegaly, a decrease in circulating levels of some blood cells or platelets, bone marrow hypertrophy in response to the decrease in the circulating blood elements, and some degree of improvement by splenectomy. Disease processes associated with secondary hypersplenism include the following:

INCREASED VENOUS PRESSURE

Portal hypertension

Splenic vein thrombosis

Severe congestive heart failure

MALIGNANCY

Leukemias (especially chronic)

Lymphoma

CHRONIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASES

Felty syndrome

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Sarcoidosis

METABOLIC ABNORMALITIES

Amyloidosis

Gaucher disease

Niemann-Pick disease

INFECTION

Mononucleosis

Bacterial endocarditis

Parasites

Fungus

OTHER

Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia

Polycythemia vera

23. A 40-year old woman with chronic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is refractory to corticosteroids. The approximate likelihood she will benefit from a splenectomy is approximately which of the following?

a. Less than 20%

b. 40%

c. 60%

d. 80%

Answer: c

Splenectomy remains the principal treatment for ITP. Platelet counts rise to adequate levels in 60% to 80% of patients who undergo the procedure. Ninety percent of patients who have had good responses to corticosteroids have improved platelet counts after splenectomy. Of patients who do not respond to corticosteroids, about 60% respond to splenectomy. Splenectomy is effective by virtue of its ability to remove the site of platelet destruction. Because the spleen is the site of most platelet sequestration in ITP, splenectomy should eliminate this source of platelet consumption. Furthermore, splenectomy removes a significant source of antiplatelet IgG production.

24. Which of the following statements regarding splenic function in humans are true?

a. The specific immune function of the spleen is principally related to its antigen processing role

b. The spleen is the major site of synthesis of complement pathway proteins

c. The spleen is more efficient than the liver at removing bacteria with a high density of surface opsonins

d. The spleen serves as a principal source of nonspecific opsonins

Answer: a, d

Immune function of the spleen includes both nonspecific and specific immune responses. Nonspecific immune function is largely characterized by removal of particulate matter by the macrophages. The spleen contains 25% of the fixed tissue macrophage population in the body. The spleen is more efficient than the liver at removal of incompletely opsonized bacteria. The liver is most effective at removing bacteria with a high density of surface opsonins. The spleen also serves as a principal source of nonspecific opsonins. These include tuftsin, properidin, and fibronectin. Tuftsin stimulates granulocyte and macrophage motility and phagocytosis. Properdin activates the alternative pathway of the complement system, leading to complement fixation. Both the activated complement complexes and the complement products facilitate the destruction of the target organism. Fibronectin is a macromolecule that appears to have nonspecific stimulatory activity on the processes of fibrosis and wound healing.

The specific immune functions of the spleen are principally related to its antigen-processing role, and this is in turn dependent on its unique anatomy and the circulation of lymphocytes into the spleen.

The liver, not the spleen, is the major site of synthesis of complement pathway proteins.