Category: Interview Questions

Best Gynecology Objective type Questions with Answers

Gynecology Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Gynecology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Gynecology Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. A 48-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding for two months and episodes of bleeding occurring any time in the cycle. There is no associated pain.

Differential diagnosis for intermenstrual bleeding does not include:

a. endocervical polyp

b. cervical malignancy

c. endometrial polyp

d. ovarian teratoma

e. atrophic vaginitis.

Ans: d

2. All of the following d–gs are associated with hyperprolactinaemia, apart from:

a. reserpine

b. progesterone-only contraceptive pill

c. methyldopa

d. ranitidine

e. chlorpromazine.

Ans: b

3. All of the following are effects of premature menopause, apart from:

a. decreased cardiovascular risk

b. infertility

c. osteoporosis

d. vasomotor symptoms

e. vaginal dryness.

Ans: a

4. A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with infrequent periods. A hormone profi le is done and all of the following are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome, apart from:

a. increased androgen levels

b. normal FSH

c. normal oestradiol

d. decreased LH

e. low progesterone levels.

Ans: d

5. A 28-year-old woman attends the colposcopy clinic after an abnormal smear test. The smear is reported as severe dyskaryosis and she has an intrauterine contraceptive device in situ. All of the following statements are likely to be true, apart from:

a. the cervix is macroscopically normal

b. acetic acid is applied and an irregular white area is apparent to the left of the cervical os

c. Lugol’s iodine is applied and the same area stains dark brown while the rest of the cervix stains pale

d. a biopsy is taken

e. the IUCD can stay, as it will not aggravate the cervical abnormality.

Ans: c

6. A 24-year-old woman presents with the absence of periods for nine months. She started her periods at the age of 13 years and had a regular 28-day cycle until 18 months ago. The periods then became irregular, occurring every two to three months until they stopped completely. The following are all included in the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhoea, apart from:

a. excessive exercise

b. hyperprolactinaemia

c. hyperthyroidism

d. premature ovarian failure

e. signifi cant weight loss

Ans: c

7. The following statements regarding adenomyosis are true, apart from one.

a. It tends to occur in women over 35 years.

b. Risk factors include increased parity, termination and quick labours.

c. The condition commonly occurs in association with endometriosis.

d. With each period, bleeding occurs from the endometrial tissue into the smooth muscle.

e. The diagnosis can be made by ultrasound or magnetic resonance imaging scan.

Ans: b

8. A 20-year-old woman is referred with a problem of post-coital bleeding. Over the past two months it has occurred on six occasions and there has been a small amount of bright red blood noticed after intercourse. There is no associated pain. The following investigations should initially be performed, apart from:

a. cervical smear

b. endocervical swab for chlamydia

c. colposcopy

d. endocervical swab for gonorrhoea

e. speculum examination to observe the cervix.

Ans: c

9. The following are all consistent with the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome except:

a hydatidiform mole

b severe early-onset pre-eclampsia

c arterial or venous thrombosis

d mid-trimester fetal loss

e placental abruption.

Ans: a

10. The following are all causes of recurrent miscarriage, apart from:

a. parental chromosomal abnormality

b. activated protein C-resistance

c. uncontrolled hypothyroidism

d. chlamydia infection

e. submucosal fi broids.

Ans: d

11. Which one of the following statements about pituitary tumours is true?

a. Weight loss is a common feature of pituitary failure (hypopituitarism) due to a pituitary tumour.

b. Visual fi eld loss in female patients with prolactin-secreting pituitary tumours (prolactinoma) is usual.

c. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secreting pituitary tumours cause a syndrome of cortisol excess that can lead to exaggerated vertical growth in adolescence.

d. Growth hormone defi ciency is a recognised feature in adult patients presenting with acromegaly due to a pituitary macroadenoma.

e. A low testosterone level is more common than a low thyroxine level in men with non-functioning gonads.

Ans: e

12. Which of the following statements concerning the anterior pituitary is true?

a. It develops in the embryo from a down-growth of the hypothalamus.

b. It secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

c. It is regulated by hypothalamic-releasing hormones.

d. It secretes its hormones into the pituitary portal system.

e. It is down-regulated by low oestrogen levels.

Ans: c

13. Which one of the following statements about the implantation of the human embryo is true?

a. It will occur at any time over a period of about 14 days.

b. It will occur whether or not the zona pellucida is present.

c. It will occur when the cytotrophoblast contacts the endometrial epithelium and begins to invade the maternal tissue.

d. It will occur with the inner cell mass closest to the endometrium.

e. It will occur even if there is only cytotrophoblast present.

Ans: d

14. Which one of the following statements about puberty is true?

a. Puberty is preceded by falling plasma levels of adrenal androgens.

b. The fi rst menstrual period is called the adrenarche.

c. The pubertal growth spurt is the fi rst sign of puberty.

d. Pubic hair growth is stimulated in girls by oestrogen.

e. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty.

Ans: a

15. Which is the most appropriate statement concerning pulmonary embolism?

a. It is now rarely fatal, with the introduction of modern diagnostic tests and treatments.

b. It gives an area of lung which is unventilated on a ventilationperfusion scan.

c. It does not usually show up on a CT pulmonary angiogram.

d. It is likely that the patient has symptoms of deep-vein thrombosis.

e. It may give symptoms similar to pneumonia.

Ans: e

16. One of the following is true. It is recognised that the positive predictive value of initial mammography for breast cancer within the national screening programme in the UK is 16%. This means that:

a. 16% of people who have breast cancer are detected on initial mammography

b. 84% of people without breast cancer have a normal mammogram

c. 16% of initial mammograms are abnormal

d. a patient with an abnormal initial mammogram has a 16% chance of having breast cancer

e. out of every 100 patients with an abnormal mammogram,

Ans: d

17. One of the following is true. Successful fertilisation and subsequent normal embryonic development:

a. require at least two spermatozoa

b. require the retention of the cortical granules in the oocyte

c. are most likely when the oocytes have been ovulated in an immature stage

d. require exclusion of the second polar body

e. often occur when the oocyte has lost its zona pellucida.

Ans: d

18. One of the following is true. The increase in maternal blood volume in pregnancy occurs as a result of:

a. peripheral vasoconstriction

b. a reduction in progesterone

c. decreased synthesis of vasopressin

d. increased aldosterone synthesis

e. reduced renin activity.

Ans: d

19. One of the following is true. Decreased peripheral resistance in pregnancy has been attributed to an increase in synthesis of:

a. angiotensin

b. endothelin

c. nitric oxide

d. renin

e. thromboxane.

Ans: c

20. A 25-year-old woman on liver enzyme inducers is requesting contraceptive advice. The method providing her with the most reliable form of contraception would be:

a. combined oral contraceptive pill

b. Depo-Provera injection

c. diaphragm

d. male condom

e. progesterone-only pill.

Ans: b

21. A 35-year-old woman comes requesting long-term reversible contraception. You advise that the method that can provide the longest protection is:

a. contraceptive implant

b. copper intrauterine device

c. Depo-Provera injection

d. intrauterine hormonal system (IUS)

e. laparoscopic sterilisation.

Ans: b

22. Regarding cervical cancer, which is the true statement?

a. HPV types 6 and 12 are high risk for developing cervical cancer.

b. The new vaccines can prevent invasive carcinoma but not CIN.

c. As soon as the new vaccination is introduced, cervical screening programmes can cease.

d. HPV types 16 and 18 account for the majority of cervical cancer in the UK.

e. HPV is an oncogenic virus for squamous cell but not adenocarcinoma of the cervix.

Ans: d

23. Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is the true statement?

a. Menstruation occurs with vasodilation of the spiral arteries.

b. The LH surge triggers menstruation.

c. The Graafi an follicle develops during the luteal phase.

d. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol.

e. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.

Ans: d

24. Regarding Müllerian duct abnormalities which is the true statement?

a. occur about 1 in 500

b. the commonest uterine abnormality is septate uterus

c. occur not infrequently with gastrointestinal abnormalities

d. surgical correction of a septate uterus is followed by fetal salvage in <60% of cases

e. longitudinal vaginal septa are more common than transverseones.

Ans: b

25. Choose the correct statement: Uterine leiomyosarcomas:

a. are associated with exposure to tamoxifen

b. originate from leiomyomas

c. pelvic radiotherapy has a signifi cant impact on survival

d. commonly metastasise to the brain

e. anthracycline-based chemotherapy has no place in treatment.

Ans: a

26. Which one of the following statements about the menopause is correct?

a. Progesterone levels rise after the menopause.

b. LH levels rise after the menopause.

c. The pituitary stops secreting LH and FSH at the menopause.

d. Menstrual cycles remain regular until the last menstrual period.

e. The number of oocytes in the ovary remains constant until the menopause.

Ans: b

27. Choose the correct statement: The female reproductive tract plays important roles in sperm transport by:

a. trapping most spermatozoa in the cervical crypt for many days

b. regulating sperm transport so that cells reach the site of fertilisation around the time of ovulation

c. allowing sperm transport at all stages of the ovarian cycle

d. preventing spermatozoa from swimming out of the peritoneal cavity

e. providing an acidic environment to keep the spermatozoa active.

Ans: b

28. Which one of the following statements is true: Semen analysis:

a. identifi es men with high-quality fertile spermatozoa

b. identifi es men with low sperm concentrations that might affect fertility

c. can always be used to predict fertility

d. cannot identify abnormal spermatozoa

e. identifi es men with hypopituitarism.

Ans: b

29. One of the following is true. A malignant tumour arising in the mesenchymal tissue is called:

a. adenoma

b. carcinoma

c. lymphoma

d. melanoma

e. sarcoma.

Ans: e

30. One of the following is true. Affording moral status to a human embryo/fetus means that it now has:

a. an inalienable right to life

b. a right to life

c. a right to consideration

d. a right dependent on moral consensus

e. a right not to be harmed.

Ans: d

31. At term amniotic fluid volume is

a. 800ml

b. 500 ml

c. 400 ml

d. 600 ml

Ans: a

32.what is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid ?

a. Glucose

b. Fructose

c. Mannose

d. Galactose

Ans: a

33. Oligohydramnios is related which of the following condition ?

a. Renal Agenesis

b. esophageal atresia

c. anencephaly

d. down’s syndrome

Ans: a

34. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy

a. 12-14 wks

b. 14-16 wks

c. 16-18 wks

d. 9-11 wks

Ans: b

35. Immune rejection of fetus prevented by

a. HCG

b. HPL

c. oestrogen

d. progesterone

Ans: a

36. what happens to GFR in a case of Pre-eclampsia ?

a. GFR Decreases

b. GFR increases

c. remains same

d. none of the above

Ans: a

37. Shortest diameter of pelvic Cavity

a. Interspinous

b. transverse

c. antero-posterior

d. oblique

Ans: a

38. Large Chorioangioma associated with

a. polyhydroamnios

b. oligohydramnios

c. both

d. none

Ans: a

39. Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma

a. vaginal bleeding

b. abdominal pain

c. breathlessness

d. perforation of the uterus

Ans: a

40. Frog eye appearance is seen in

a. Anencephaly

b. acardia

c. down’s syndrome

d. patau’s syndrome

Ans: a

41. what of the following is seen in Partial mole

a. Triploidy

b. haploidy

c. polyploidy

d. diploidy

Ans: a

42. Cervical changes in pregnancy are all except ?

a. increased collagen

b. increased Hyaluronic acid

c. Increased glands

d. increased vascularity

Ans: b

DNA STRUCTURE Questions and Answers

DNA STRUCTURE Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students DNA STRUCTURE Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type DNA STRUCTURE Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is

A. conservative theory

B. dispersive theory

C. semi-conservative theory

D. evolutionary theory

Answer: C

 

2. When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what does it add to the growing daughter strand?

A. Phosphate

B. Cytosine

C. Uracil

D. Guanine

Answer: B

 

3. Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?

A. Adenine

B. Guanine

C. Thymine

D. Cytosine

Answer: B

 

4. Which is the largest among the followings?

A. Nucleotide

B. Nitrogenous base

C. Phosphate

D. Carbon

Answer: A

 

5. The chromosomal DNA complexes with

A. three types of histone as H1, H2A and H4

B. five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

C. four types of histone as H1, H2A, H3 and H4

D. two types of histone as H1 and H4

Answer: B

 

6. Taylor, Woods and Hughes labeled Vicia DNA by allowing new DNA synthesis in the presence of radioactive thymine. After DNA replication (S phase of the cell cycle), it was observed that

A. only one chromatid of a chromosome was labeled

B. both chromatids of a chromosome were labeled

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither chromatid was labeled

Answer: B

 

7. In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by

A. covalent bonds between the pair of bases

B. hydrogen bonds between the pair of bases

C. ionic bonds between the pair of bases

D. none of the above

Answer: B

 

8. The 5′ and 3′ numbers are related to the

A. length of the DNA strand

B. carbon number in sugar

C. the number of phosphates

D. the base pair rule

Answer: B

 

9. Messelsen and Stahl model of replication was called

A. conservative replication

B. semi-conservative replication

C. dispersive replication

D. Cri du Chat

Answer: B

 

10. The most common liquid volumes in molecular biology are measured in

A. ml

B. µl

C. nl

D. 1

Answer: B

 

11. DNA replication takes place in which direction?

A. 3′ to 5′

B. 5 ‘to 3’

C. Randomly

D. Vary from organism to organism

Answer: B

 

12. DNA gyrase in E. coli

A. adds positive supercoils to chromosomal DNA

B. can be inhibited with antibiotics

C. is required only at the oriC site

D. performs the same function as helicase in eukaryotes

Answer: B

 

13. In DNA, there are

A. five bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine, tryptophan and cytosine

B. four bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine

C. three bases known as adenine, guanine and cytosine

D. only two bases known as adenine and cytosine

Answer: B

 

14. In DNA, guanine pairs with

A. Adenine 

B. Cytosine

C. Thymine 

D. Uracil

Answer: B

 

15. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other with the bases

B. Adenine always pairs with thymine

C. Guanine always pairs with the cytosine

D. None of the above

Answer: D

 

16. What is the only common methylation in the DNA of eukaryotes?

A. Adenosine in GpA dinucleotides

B. Guanosine in ApGpA trinucleotides

C. Cytosine in CpG dinucleotides

D. None of the above

Answer: C

 

17. DNAs when charged, migrate in a gel towards the

A. positive pole

B. negative pole

C. will not migrate

D. none of these

Answer: A

 

18. What is the approximate size (in kb) of the E. coli genome?

A. 3000 kilobase

B. 4500 kilobase

C. 5500 kilobase

D. 6500 kilobase

Answer: B

 

19. In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 40° C. If the cell has 20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of ‘Tm’ if the GC% increases to 60%?

A. Remains same

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. Can not be compared

Answer: B

 

20. What is the range of melting point temperatures (Tm) for most DNA molecules?

A. 50 to 60°C

B. 60 to 80°C

C. 70 to 90°C

D. 80 to l00°C

Answer: D

HPCL Interview Questions with Answers

HPLC Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students HPLC Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type HPLC Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. HPLC stands for

A. High Pressure Liquid Chromatography

B. High Performance Liquid Chromatography

C. both (a) and (b)

D. Highly Placed Liquid Chromatography

Answer: C

2. The eluent strength is a measure of

A. solvent adsorption energy

B. solvent absorption energy

C. solvent diffusivity

D. solvent mixing index

Answer: A

 

3. HPLC methods include

A. liquid/liquid (partition) chromatography

B. liquid/solid (adsorption) chromatography

C. ion exchange and size exclusion chromatography

D. all of the above

Answer: D

 

4. Column efficiency is measured in terms of number of plates which is

A. inversely related to the square of the peak width

B. directly related to the square of the peak width

C. inversely related to the cube root of the peak width

D. directly related to the square of the peak width

Answer: A

 

5. For a typical adsorbent such as silica gel, the most popular pore diameters are

A. 10 and 50 A°

B. 60 and 100 A°

C. 100 and 150 A°

D. 150 and 200 A°

Answer: B

 

6. An isocratic elution in HPLC is one in which the composition of the solvent

A. remains constant

B. changes continuously

C. changes in a series of steps

D. none of these

Answer: A

 

7. In reversed phase HPLC, there is a

A. non polar solvent/polar column

B. polar solvent/non-polar column

C. non polar solvent/non-polar column

D. any of the above

Answer: B

 

8. Which of the following statements is true for a refractive index detector in HPLC?

A. It is more sensitive than a UV detector

B. It can only be used for isocratic elutions

C. It does not respond to many solutes

D. none of above

Answer: C

 

9. A gradient elution in HPLC is one in which the composition of the solvent

A. remains constant

B. is changed continuously or in a series of steps

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the above

Answer: B

 

10. An eluotropic series

A. ranks solvents by their relative abilities to displace solutes from a given absorbent

B. ranks column packing material by their relative abilities to retain solutes on the column

C. is a measure of the solvent adsorption energy

D. none of the above

Answer: A

 

11. Dwell volume is defined as

A. the volume of solvent contained in a liquid chromatographic column

B. the time required for the gradient to reach the column

C. the volume of the column between the point at which solvents are mixed and the beginning of the column

D. none of these

Answer: C

 

12. Void volume refers to the

A. total volume of eluent in the column the remainder being taken up by the packing material

B. the volume of solvent contained in a liquid chromatographic column

C. the time required for the gradient to reach the column

D. the volume of the column between the point at which solvents are mixed and the beginning of the column

Answer: A

 

13. In normal phase HPLC, there is a

A. non polar solvent/polar column

B. polar solvent/non-polar column

C. non polar solvent/non-polar column

D. any of the above

Answer: A

 

14. Which of the following(s) is/are the advantage of HPLC over traditional LPLC (low-pressure liquid chromatography)?

A. Greater sensitivity and reusable columns

B. Ideal for ionic species and large molecules

C. Sample recovery

D. All of the above

Answer: D

 

15. Which can be used as a mobile phase in HPLC applications?

A. Any compound with solubility in liquid

B. Any compound with limited solubility in liquid

C. Any compound with non-solubility in liquid

D. Any of the above

Answer: A

Microorganisms And Disease Interview Questions with Answers

Structure And Properties of Peptides Interview Questions with Answers

Structure And Properties of Peptides Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Structure And Properties of Peptides Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Structure And Properties of Peptides Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1. Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of

2. Secondary structure in protein refers to

3. Heme is the binding pocket of myoglobin and hemoglobin and is composed of

4. What is the effect of a decrease in pH on hemoglobin oxygen affinity?

5. What is the proportion of glycine residues in collagenous regions?

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

7. The oxygen binding curves of hemoglobin and myoglobin

8. The nature of peptide bond can be explained as

9. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

10. Which hemoglobin chain replaces the beta chain in embryonic hemoglobulin?

11. Hemoglobin has quaternary structure and is made up of

12. When pO2 = Kd of myoglobin, the fractional saturation (YO2) is about

13. Peptides in the fully extended chain conformation

14. The oxygen in hemoglobin and myoglobin is bound to

15. Which of the three subunits of the G proteins binds GDP and GTP?

Anatomy Objective type Questions with Answers

Anatomy Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Anatomy Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Anatomy Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.

1- Which of the following statements are true of coronary artery anatomy?

A. Right bundle branch block in acute anterior myocardial infarction suggests obstruction prior to the first septal branch of the left anterior descending coronary artery

B. the posterior descending artery is usually a branch of the circumflex artery

C. The sinus node is supplied by a branch of the right coronary in over 90% of subjects.

D. The AV node is supplied by the left anterior descending coronary artery.

E. The left main stem is about 4 cm long

Ans: A

 

2- Which of the following would be the result of a spinal lesion at the level of C8?

A. a reduced brachioradialis reflex

B. inability to abduct the shoulder

C. loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm

D. winging of the scapula

E. weakness of finger flexion

Ans: E

3- A 73-year-old man presents with an abrupt onset of double vision and left leg weakness. Examination shows weakness of abduction of the right eye, right-sided facial weakness affecting upper and lower parts of the face. He also has a left hemiparesis. Where is the lesion?

A. left frontal lobe

B. left lateral medulla

C. right corpus striatum

D. right midbrain

E. right pons

Ans: E

4- Which of the following regarding the anatomy of the heart is true?

A. The aortic valve is tricuspid.

B. The ascending aorta is entirely outside the pericardial sac.

C. The left atrial appendage is identified readily by transthoracic echocardiography.

D. The pulmonary trunk lies anterior to the ascending aorta.

E. The right atrium is posterior to the left atrium.

Ans: A

5- Which ONE of the following would be expected in a third nerve palsy?

A. Enophthalmos

B. Constricted pupil

C. Convergent strabismus

D. Increased lacrimation

E. Unreactive pupil to light

Ans: E

6- An 80-year-old woman has a three month history of progressive numbness and unsteadiness of her gait. On examination, there is a mild spastic paraparesis, with brisk knee reflexes, ankle reflexes are present with reinforcement, extensor plantars, sensory loss in the legs with a sensory level at T10, impaired joint position sense in the toes, and loss of vibration sense below the iliac crests.

Investigations were as follows:- haemoglobin 12.0 g/dl MCV 99 fl

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. anterior spinal artery occlusion

B. dorsal meningioma

C. multiple sclerosis

D. subacute combined degeneration of the cord

E. tabes dorsalis

Ans: B

7- Which of the following anatomical considerations is correct:

A. optic chiasm lesions characteristically produce a bitemporal hemianopia

B. central scotoma occurs early in papilloedema

C. in cortical blindness pupillary reactions are abnormal

D. optic tract lesions produce an ipsilateral homonymous hemianopia

E. opticokinetic nystagmus is found with bilateral infarction of the parieto-occipital lobes

Ans: A

8- Which of the following would be expected following distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery?

A. cerebellar ataxia

B. contralateral hemiplegia

C. dysarthria

D. homonymous hemianopia

E. palatal palsy

Ans: D

9- A 48-year-old female patient develops an acute, severe and isolated right C6 radiculopathy affecting both the motor and sensory roots. She is examined in an EMG clinic 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Absent sensory nerve potentials would be expected on examination of the thumb and index finger on the right.

B. A repeat examination 12 months later is likely to reveal rapidly recruited low amplitude short duration motor units in the clinically involved muscle on EMG.

C. Fibrillation potentials would be expected in the right brachioradialis and abductor pollicus brevis.

D. Triceps tendon jerk is likely to be depressed or absent.

E. Voluntary motor unit activity may be absent in the right biceps.

Ans: A

10- Which of the following anatomical considerations is correct:

A. optic chiasm lesions characteristically produce a bitemporal hemianopia

B. central scotoma occurs early in papilloedema

C. in cortical blindness pupillary reactions are abnormal

D. optic tract lesions produce an ipsilateral homonymous hemianopia

E. opticokinetic nystagmus is found with bilateral infarction of the parieto-occipital lobes

Ans: A

11. The nerve involved in Tarsal Tunnel syndrome is

a) Lateral plantar

b) Medial plantar

c) Posterior tibial ABDOMEN

d) Anterior tibial

12.  Primary lymph nodes draining the lymphatics from the fundus of the stomach would include

a) Pancreatico-splenic nodes

b) Right gastric nodes

c) Left gastric rodes

d) Hepatic nodes

13. Lymphatic drainage of cervix is

a) Inguinal lymph nodes

b) Ext.iliac lymph nodes

c) Paraaortic Lymph nodes

d) Obturator Lymph nodes

14. The shortest part of the colon is

a) Ascending colon

b) Transverse colon

c) Descending colon

d) Sigmoid colon

15. Narrowest part of the esophagus is

a) Cricopharynx

b) Esophagogastric junction

c) At the-level of arch of aorta

d) Level of tracheal bifurcation

16. All are opening in prostatic urethra except

a) Prostatic utricle

b) Ejaculatory duct

c) Bulbourethral glands

d) Prostatic ducts

17.The left ureter is related to all except

a) Quadratus lumborum muscle

b) Sigmoid mesocolon

c) Gonadal vessels

d) Internal iliac artery

18.Mullerian inhibiting substance that causes degeneration of paramesonephric ducts is secreted by

a) Leydig cells

b) Anterior pituitary

c) Adrenal cortex

d) Theca cells

 

19.The trigone of urinary bladder

a) Is ectodermal in origin

b) Has its mucous membrane thrown into longitudinal folds

c) Has interureteric crest forming one of the boundaries

d) Lies below and in front of the internal orifice of urethra

20. Blood supply of the sigmoid colon is from:

a) Marginal artery of Drummond

b) Sigmoidal artery

c) Superior hemorrhoidal artery

d) Middle colic artery

e) Left colic artery

21. Iliac crest at the level of (Highest point of)

a)L3

b)L4

c)L,

d)S,

22. True about appendix epiploacae

a) Helps in active peristalsis

b) Presents in alimentary canal along with mesentery

c) Present in small intestine

d) Present in rectum

23. COWPER’S GLANDS open into

a) Prostatic urethra

b) Membranous urethra

c) Penile urethra

d) Bulbar urethra

24. Glans penis drains into

a) Ext.iliac Lymph nodes

b) Deep inguinal Lymph nodes

c) Paraaortic Lymph nodes

d) Superior inguinal Lymph nodes

25.Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal

a) Pudendal nerve

b) Internal pudendal nerve

c) Internal pudendal vein

d) Nerve to obturator internus

26.True about inferior mesenteric artery is

a) Continues as inferior rectal artery

b) Takes part in formation of marginal artery

c) Arises from coeliac trunk

d) Supplies mid gut

27.Regarding zona pellucida what is wrong?

a) Acellular

b) Contains glycoprotein

c) Surrounds morula

d) Surrounds ovum

28.Shotgun perineum is

a) Acquired condition in males

b) Acquired in females

c) Congenital in males

d) Congenital condition in female

e) None of the above

29.The rectus sheath contains the following important structures except

a) Terminal branches of lower intercostal nerves

b) Inferior epigastric artery

c) Lymph vessels

d) Ilio inguinal nerve

30.It is true that the gall bladder

a) Is supplied by cystic artery which has an accompanying vein on its left side

b) Is drained by veins into the liver

c) Has a fundus which projects beyond the liver

d) Has an infundibulum which projects downwards joining a pouch

31.Saphenous opening is situated

a) Just below public tubercle

b) Below and lateral to pubic tubercle

c) Above and medial to pubic tubercle

d) Just above pubic tubercle

32.The following is true of ureter

a) Crossed anteriorly by gonadal artery

b) Length of 50 cm

c) Nerve supply from T8-T10

d) Crossed posteriorly by renal artery

33. The following provide maximum support to uterus

a) Broad ligament

b) Mackenrodt’s ligament

c) Round ligament

d) Vescicouterine fold

34.Femoral canal, which is correct?

a) Smaller in female

b) Contains femoral vein

c) Inferior epigastric artery lies medially

d) Medial most compartment of femoral sheath

35.The following is false regarding Rectus sheath

a) Contains pyramidalis

b) Deficient antero superiorly

c) Posterior wall formed by Transversalis fascia

d) Inferior epigastric artery pierces postero-inferiorly

36.Lymphatic drainage of the Anal canal is to

a) Inguinal lymph nodes

b) Ext.iliac nodes

c) Int.iliac nodes

d) Para aortic

e) None of the above

37.JG cells (Juxta glomerular apparatus) are

a) Macula densa

b) Smooth muscular cells of afferent arteriole

c) Smooth muscular cells of efferent arteriole

d) Islets of epithelial cells

38.Scrotum is analogous to

a) Labia minora

b) Labia majora

c) Uterus

d) Vagina

39. The following about prostate is true except

a) Surrounds the neck of bladder

b) Has an anterior lobe, which hypertrophies in old age

c) Has median lobe between urethra and ejaculatory ducts

d) Has a posterior lobe which is prone to carcinomatous change

40.  The Sensory nerve supply of Cervix is from

a) Sacral plexus

b) Obturator nerve

c) Hypogastric plexus

d) Pudendal nerve

41.The attachment of the mesentry of the small gut is

a) Lt. Transverse process of L2 to Rt.sacro iliac joint

b) Rt.transverse process of L2 to Rt.sacro iliac joint

c) Lt.Transverse process of Tl to Rt.sacro iliac joint

d) Rt.transverse process of Tl to Lt.sacro iliac joint

42. Lymphatic drainage of the umbilicus is to

a) Axillary nodes

b) Inguinal nodes

c) A and B

d) Porta hepatis

e) Celiac axis nodes

43. Regarding trigone of the bladder, which is incorrect?

a) Bordered by interureteric crest

b) Mesoderm in origin

c) Mucus membrane has folds

d) Overlies the median lobe of prostate

44. Pouch of Douglas is situated between the

a) Bladder and the uterus

b) Bladder and pubic symphysis

c) Bladder and rectum

d) Uterus and rectum

45. Ducts of Bellini are found in

a) Pancreas

b) Submandibular salivary gland

c) Kidney

d) Liver

46.All of the following muscles are posterior to right and left kidneys except

a) Psoas major

b) Latissimus dorsi

c) Quadratus lumborum

d) Transverse abdominis

47.Splenic artery usually arises from

a) Aorta

b) Superior mesentric artery

c) Celiac axis

d) Hepatic artery

48.The placenta is developed from

a) Chorion leave and endometrium

b) Chorion frondosum and decidua basalis

c) Decidua basilis and trophoblast

d) Decidua basalis and amnion

49.Afferents of cremasteric reflex are present in

a) Ilioinguinal nerve

b) Genitofemoral nerve

c) Iliohypogastric nerve

d) Pudendal nerve

50.Which is not a superficial perineal muscle

a) Levator Ani

b) Bulbospongiosus

c) Ischiocavernous

d) Superficial transverse perinei