Category: IOT Objective Questions

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “UART Protocol”.

1. GPS module like SIM900/800 uses which protocol?
a) UART protocol
b) USART protocol
c) SPI protocol
d) I2C protocol

Answer: a
Clarification: GSM/GPS modules like SIM900/800 uses UART communication for accepting AT commands that are used to control them and gather the replies.

2. Finger print sensor uses which interface?
a) USART protocol
b) UART protocol
c) SPI protocol
d) I2C protocol

Answer: b
Clarification: Projects that use RFID modules can be built with modules that have a UART interface. This even applies to some finger print sensors.

3. RS232 is used for long range wired communication.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: For long range communications we can convert UART protocol using an external IC to RS232 or RS485, the latter of which can be used for wired communication @100 kbits/sec up to 1.2km.

4. UART is similar to _________
a) SPI protocol
b) I2C protocol
c) HTTP protocol
d) MQTT protocol

Answer: b
Clarification: UART(Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter) is a small, efficient communication device, similar to I2C.

5. What does UART contain?
a) Parallel register
b) Shift register
c) Clock
d) Parallel shift register

Answer: b
Clarification: UART contains a shift register, which is the fundamental method of conversion between serial and parallel forms.

6. Communication in UART is ___________
a) Only simple
b) Only duplex
c) Only full duplex
d) Simplex, half duplex, full duplex

Answer: d
Clarification: Communication may be simplex(in one direction only no provision for the receiving device to send data back to the transmission device), full duplex(both devices send and receive data at the same time), half duplex(devices takes turns transmitting and receiving).

7. Start bit of UART is logic high.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: The start bit is logical low. The start bit signals the receiver that a new character is coming.

8. Which error occurs when the receiver can’t process the character?
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Break condition

Answer: a
Clarification: An over run error occur when the receiver cannot process the character that just came in before the next one arrives. If the CPU or DMA controller does not service the UART quickly enough and the buffer become full, an over run will occur, and incoming will be lost.

9. What is WD1402A?
a) SPI
b) USART
c) SPIUART
d) I2C

Answer: c
Clarification: WD1402A is the first single chip UART on general sale. Introduced about 1971. Compatible chip included the Fairchild TR1402A and the general instruments AY-5-1013.

10. What is the speed of the 8250 UART?
a) 4800bits/sec
b) 1200bits/sec
c) 12000bit/sec
d) 9600bits/sec

Answer: d
Clarification: The 8250 UART has one character buffer for the receiver and the transmitter each, which meant that communications software performed poorly at speed above 9600bits/sec, especially it operating under a multitasking system or if handling interrupts from disk controllers.

11. Which error occurs when UART transmitter has completed sending a character and the transmit buffer is empty?
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Break condition

Answer: b
Clarification: An Under run error occurs when UART transmitter has completed sending a character and the transmit buffer is empty. In asynchronous mode this is treated as an indication that no data remains to be transmitted.

12. Which error occurs when the designated start and stop bits are not found?
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Break condition

Answer: c
Clarification: A framing error occurs when the designated start and stop bits are not found. If the data line is not in the expected state when the stop bit is expected, a framing error will occur.

13. Which error occurs when the parity of the number of 1 bit disagrees with that specified by the parity bit?
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Parity error

Answer: d
Clarification: A parity error occurs when the parity of the number of 1 bit disagrees with that specified by the parity bit. Using parity is optional, so this error will only occur if parity checking has been enabled.

14. A __________ occurs when the receiver input is at the space level.
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Break condition

Answer: d
Clarification: A break condition occurs when the receiver input is at the space level for longer than some duration of time, typically, for more than a character time.

15. The term break derives from ___________ signaling.
a) Current loop
b) Voltage loop
c) Power loop
d) Current and Power loop

Answer: a
Clarification: The term break derives from current loop signaling, which was the traditional signaling used for teletypewriters.

IOT Questions on “Understanding the Relationship between IoT and Big Data”.

1. What Bigdata collects?
a) Human generated data
b) Sensor data
c) Machine generated data
d) Device data

Answer: a
Clarification: Bigdata analyses large amounts of mostly human generated data to support longer duration.

2. What IoT collects?
a) Human generated data
b) Sensor data
c) Machine generated data
d) Device data

Answer: c
Clarification: IoT is aggregating and compressing massive amounts of low latency/ low duration/high volume machine generated data coming from a wide variety of sensor to support real time use cases such as operational.

3. Which requires data stream management?
a) Bigdata
b) IoT
c) Bigdata & IoT
d) Device data

Answer: b
Clarification: In order for one to claim that they can deliver IoT analytic solutions requires big data, but IoT analytics must also include: Stream data management and Edge analytics.

4. Which requires Edge analytics?
a) Bigdata
b) IoT
c) Bigdata & IoT
d) Device data

Answer: b
Clarification: In order for one to claim that they can deliver IoT analytic solutions requires big data, but IoT analytics must also include : Stream data management and Edge analytics.

5. The IoT operates at ___________ scale.
a) Machine
b) Human
c) Device
d) Sensor

Answer: a
Clarification: The IoT operates at machine scale, by dealing with machine to machine generated data. This machine generated data creates discrete observations at very high signal rates.

6. One way to see observations addressing IoT analytics is?
a) 4-Tier Analytics
b) 2-Tier Analytics
c) 1-Tier Analytics
d) 3-Tier Analytics

Answer: d
Clarification: One way that we see observation addressing the IoT analytics needs is via a 3-Tier Analytics.

7. Which tier Performs individual wind turbine real time performance?
a) 3-Tier Analytics
b) 2-Tier Analytics
c) 1-Tier Analytics
d) 4-Tier Analytics

Answer: c
Clarification: Tier-1 performs individual wind turbine real time performance analytics and optimization.

8. Which tier performs predicts maintenance?
a) 3-Tier Analytics
b) 2-Tier Analytics
c) 1-Tier Analytics
d) 4-Tier Analytics

Answer: b
Clarification: Tier 2 optimizes performance and predicts maintenance needs across the wind turbines in the same wind farm.

9. Which tier is data lake enabled core analytics platform?
a) 4-Tier Analytics
b) 2-Tier Analytics
c) 1-Tier Analytics
d) 3-Tier Analytics

Answer: d
Clarification: Tier-3 is the data lake enabled core analytics platform. The tier 3 core analytics platform includes analytics engines, data sets and data management services that enable access to the data.

10. For supporting real time edge analytics, we need to provide detailed data.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: To support real time edge analytics, we need to provide detailed data that can flag observations of concern, but then doesn’t overwhelm the ability to get meaningful data back to the core for more broad based strategic analysis.

Global Education & Learning Series – IOT.

To practice all areas of IOT for Interviews, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers.

Participate in the Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Cloud – Privacy Protection Solution”.

1. Privacy protection solution was proposed with KP-ABE and CP-ABE.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The hybrid privacy protection solution was proposed with KP-ABE and CP-ABE. This way chosen different way to encrypt the privacy information based on user attributions according to cloud service business type.

2. _________ consumers investing in general data protection needs in multiple dimensions.
a) Normal
b) Business
c) Office
d) Third Party

Answer: b
Clarification: Business consumers investing in general data protection needs in multiple dimensions. First, the type of device they need to support determines one continuum to potential solutions from desktop through to mobile phones. Second, the location of the data determines another axis for consideration, either on the device or stored in the cloud.

3. Software that address the data protection is divided into _________ Segments.
a) 1 segment
b) 2 segments
c) 4 segments
d) 3 segments

Answer: d
Clarification: Because of the two factors, it’s possible to divide software that addresses data protection into three segments:
Cloud privacy protection
Endpoint protection
Mobile device management.

4. _________ segment contributing to protection of data on device.
a) Endpoint Protection
b) Cloud Privacy Protection
c) Mobile Device Management
d) Cloud

Answer: a
Clarification: The oldest segment contributing to protection of data on device is End Point Protection. EPP also indicates protection for device integrity, including protection against malware, etc.,

5. _________ segment indicates protection for device integrity.
a) Endpoint Protection
b) Cloud Privacy Protection
c) Mobile Device Management
d) Cloud

Answer: a
Clarification: The oldest segment contributing to protection of data on device is End Point Protection. EPP also indicates protection for device integrity, including protection against malware, etc.,

6. EPP approach favours _________ data into the device.
a) UnLocking
b) Locking
c) Blocking
d) Unblocking

Answer: b
Clarification: For data protection, End Point Protection approach favour locking data into the device through full disk encryption port control, auditing and restriction of data prior to release from the device and other similar mechanisms.

7. End Point Protection primarily focused around deployment on _________
a) Laptops
b) Desktops
c) Both laptops and desktops
d) Phones

Answer: c
Clarification: End Point Protection primarily focused around deployment on desktops and laptops although some endpoint protection exists for mobile devices. In these cases, EPP overlaps with MDD.

8. _________ is concerned with management of mobile.
a) Endpoint Protection
b) Cloud Privacy Protection
c) Mobile Device Management
d) Cloud

Answer: c
Clarification: Mobile Device Management is primarily concerned with management of mobile devices. Solution often consists of configuration, network, and services management on mobile devices.

9. Is mobile device management similar to that of end point protection with respect to locking?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: For data protection, mobile device management, in similar fashion to end point protection favors locking data on the devices so that it cant be compromised.

10. How MDM will achieve locking mechanism?
a) Wrapping
b) Controlling
c) Both wrapping and controlling
d) Encryption

Answer: c
Clarification: Mobile device management achieves this by wrapping and controlling access by all applications on the device.

11. MDM is focused on _________
a) Laptops
b) Tablets
c) Both phones and tablets
d) Phones

Answer: c
Clarification: MDM id focused on mobile devices, including mobile phones and tablets. As the line between less distinct, mobile device management will overlap capabilities with end point protection.

12. _________ complicates _________ and _________
a) MDM, EPP and CPP
b) EPP, CPP and MDM
c) MDM, CPP and EPP
d) CPP, EPP and MDM

Answer: d
Clarification: The new cloud privacy protection segment complicates end point protection and mobile device management. It embraces the inevitable movement of data off device across all the devices of an enterprise.

13. _________ enables the use of cloud sync and storage.
a) Inevitable movement of data
b) Encryption
c) Wrapping
d) Controlling

Answer: a
Clarification: The inevitable movement of data off device across all the devices of an enterprise. This enables the use of cloud sync and storage by desktops and laptops beyond the device boundary where EPP provides protection.

14. It enables _________ use of mobile devices without requiring the lockdown of data.
a) own-device
b) controlling
c) sharing of data
d) bring-your-own-device

Answer: d
Clarification: It enables bring-your-own-device use of mobile devices without requiring the lockdown of data through MDM.

15. CPP embraces sharing of data between ____________
a) Devices
b) Users
c) Both devices and users
d) Cloud and Devices

Answer: c
Clarification: Cloud privacy protection embraces sharing of data between devices and users. This sharing means that data must transmit through intermediaries and be protected while doing so.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Addressing Reliability”.

1. There are efficiency gains from ________ all sorts of equipment.
a) Implementation
b) Analogous
c) Evolution
d) Digitization

Answer: d
Clarification: There are efficiency gains from digitization of all sorts of equipment and measures that used to be analog and disconnected.

2. Business values can be Daunting Proposition to figure out how to best harness all this data.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Across every industry, organization is looking at ways they can derive business value from IoT. While some benefits will be relative clear cut, it can be a Daunting Proposition to figure out how to best harness all this data.

3. The availability of ________ is the cloud services provider who will host video and data for end users.
a) Devices
b) Memory
c) Security system
d) Objects

Answer: c
Clarification: The availability of cloud based security is the cloud services provider who will host video and data for end users, as providers are solely responsible for ensuring the availability and reliability of this data.

4. SLA stands for ____________
a) Service Level Agreement
b) Security Level Agreement
c) System Local Area
d) Service Local Area

Answer: a
Clarification: Not all cloud service providers service level agreement offer that level of guarantee.

5. A provider which produces 99 percent uptime ________
a) Security issues
b) Network Issues
c) Programming issue
d) Memory issue

Answer: b
Clarification: Among the exceptions that release a provider from providing 99 percent uptime are network issues not within their direct control, client negligence, “acts of god,” scheduling maintenance and more.

6. With physical security, the stakes are incredibly ________
a) Very high
b) Low
c) Very low
d) High

Answer: d
Clarification: With physical security, the stakes are incredibly high, so even if you are working with a limited budget, cloud services are not an area where you should shop for a bargain.

7. Issue with connecting to data stored have anything to do with data centers.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: The reality is that any issues with connecting to data stored in the cloud rarely have anything to do with the service provider’s data center.

8. The most likely culprit is ________
a) Things
b) Network
c) Device
d) Internet connectivity

Answer: d
Clarification: The most likely culprit is internet connectivity, leaving end users unable to access their hosted data or even perform management functions.

9. ________ are designed to protect data and servers.
a) Physical walls
b) Logical firewalls
c) Both Physical and logical
d) Neither physical nor logical

Answer: c
Clarification: Physical and logical firewalls measure are designed to protect data and the servers where it is stored from theft. Sabotage and damage caused by natural disasters.

10. Communication between ________ and ________ is encrypted for security.
a) Cloud and device
b) End user and data center
c) Network and device
d) Cloud and Network

Answer: b
Clarification: Communication between end user sites and data centre is encrypted according to industry standards to further improve system security.

11. Undertaking the intervention over an extended period of time would enhance the change of gaining access.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Undertaking the intervention over an extended period of time would enhance the change of gaining access to revelation about the thinking of biology teachers.

12. ________ phase starts with the construction of spanning tree for ordinary routing information.
a) Initialization
b) Message Relaying
c) Selective recovery
d) Lost message detection

Answer: a
Clarification: Initialization phase starts with the construction of spanning tree for ordinary routing information. A level corresponds to the hop distance of the node from the sink and data will be transmitted.

13. In which phase packets are forwarded hop by hop to get closer to the sink?
a) Initialization
b) Message Relaying
c) Selective recovery
d) Lost message detection

Answer: b
Clarification: Packets are forwarded hop by hop to get closer to the sink. Intermediate nodes keep the packetId in their buffer during Tcol corresponding to the maximum delay allowed to transmit.

14. ________ is achieved using over hearing mechanism.
a) Initialization
b) Message Relaying
c) Selective recovery
d) Lost message detection

Answer: d
Clarification: The lost message detection is achieved by over hearing mechanism. Upon sensing the channel, if node A does not hear node B transmitting the packet packetId to its next hop, it becomes aware that the packet has been lost and that are transmission is required.

15. What is the last step in algorithm for reliable data transfer?
a) Initialization
b) Message Relaying
c) Selective recovery
d) Lost message detection

Answer: c
Clarification: Once a packet is detected, the AJIA mechanism relies on its routing metric to choose the best next hop for the packet re transmission.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “Microcontroller (ARM 7)”.

1. What is the processor used by ARM7?
a) 8-bit CISC
b) 8-bit RISC
c) 32-bit CISC
d) 32-bit RISC

Answer: d
Clarification: ARM7 is a group 32-bit RISC ARM processor cores licensed by ARM Holdings for microcontroller use.

2. What is the instruction set used by ARM7?
a) 16-bit instruction set
b) 32-bit instruction set
c) 64-bit instruction set
d) 8-bit instruction set

Answer: a
Clarification: ARM introduced the Thumb 16-bit instruction set providing improved code density compared to previous designs. The most widely used ARM7 designs implement the ARMv4T architecture, but some implement ARM3 or ARMv5TEJ.

3. How many registers are there in ARM7?
a) 35 register( 28 GPR and 7 SPR)
b) 37 registers(28 GPR and 9 SPR)
c) 37 registers(31 GPR and 6 SPR)
d) 35 register(30 GPR and 5 SPR)

Answer: c
Clarification: ARM7TDMI has 37 registers(31 GPR and 6 SPR). All these designs use a Von Neumann architecture, thus the few versions comprising a cache do not separate data and instruction caches.

4. ARM7 has an in-built debugging device?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Some ARM7 cores are obsolete. It had a JTAG based on-chip debugging; the preceding ARM6 cores did not support it. The “D” represented a JTAG TAP for debugging.

5. What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?
a) 110 MIPS
b) 150 MIPS
c) 125 MIPS
d) 130 MIPS

Answer: d
Clarification: It is a versatile device for mobile devices and other low power electronics. This processor architecture is capable of up to 130MIPS on a typical 0.13 um process.

6. We have no use of having silicon customization?
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Clarification: It achieve custom design goals, such as higher clock speed, very low power consumption, instruction set extension, optimization for size, debug support, etc.

7. Which of the following has the same instruction set as ARM7?
a) ARM6
b) ARMv3
c) ARM71a0
d) ARMv4T

Answer: b
Clarification: The original ARM7 was based on the earlier ARM6 design and used the same ARM3 instruction set.

8. What are t, d, m, I stands for in ARM7TDMI?
a) Timer, Debug, Multiplex, ICE
b) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
c) Timer, Debug, Modulation, IS
d) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE

Answer: b
Clarification: The ARM7TDMI(ARM7 + 16 bit Thumb + JTAG Debug + fast Multiplier + enhanced ICE) processor implements the ARM4 instruction set.

9. ARM stands for _________
a) Advanced RISC Machine
b) Advanced RISC Methadology
c) Advanced Reduced Machine
d) Advanced Reduced Methadology

Answer: a
Clarification: ARM, originally Acorn RISC Machine, later Advanced RISC Machine, is a family of reduced instruction set computing (RISC) architectures for computing processors.

10. What are the profiles for ARM architecture?
a) A,R
b) A,M
c) A,R,M
d) R,M

Answer: c
Clarification: ARMv7 defines 3 architecture “profiles”:
A-profile, Application profile
R-profile, Real-time profile
M-profile, Microcontroller profile.

11. ARM7DI operates in which mode?
a) Big Endian
b) Little Endian
c) Both big and little Endian
d) Neither big nor little Endian

Answer: c
Clarification: Big Endian configuration, when BIGEND signal is HIGH the processor treats bytes in memory as being in Big Endian format. When it is LOW memory is treated as little Endian.

12. In which of the following ARM processors virtual memory is present?
a) ARM7DI
b) ARM7TDMI-S
c) ARM7TDMI
d) ARM7EJ-S

Answer: a
Clarification: ARM7DI is capable of running a virtual memory system. The abort input to the processor may be used by the memory manager to inform ARM7DI of page faults.

13. How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?
a) 3-Stage
b) 4-Stage
c) 5-Stage
d)2-stage

Answer: c
Clarification: A five-stage pipelining is used, consisting of Fetch, Decode, Execute, Memory, and Writeback stages. A six-stage pipelining is used in Jazelle state, consisting of Fetch, Jazelle, Execute, Memory, and Writeback stages.

14. How many bit data bus is used in ARM7EJ-s?
a) 32-bit
b) 16-bit
c) 8-bit
d) Both 16 and 32 bit

Answer: a
Clarification: The ARM7EJ-s processor has a Von Neumann architecture. This feature is a single 32-bit data bus that carries both instructions and data. Only load, store, and swap instructions can access data from memory. Data can be 8- bit.

15. What is the cache memory for ARM710T?
a) 12Kb
b) 16Kb
c) 32Kb
d) 8Kb

Answer: d
Clarification: The ARM710T is a general purpose 32-bit microprocessor with 8Kb cache, enlarged write buffer and memory management unit combined in a single chip.

IOT Multiple Choice Questions on “USART Protocol”.

1. What is the protocol used by USART?
a) RS232
b) RS232C
c) RS485
d) RS422

Answer: b
Clarification: RS232C is a long established standard (“c” is the current version) that describes the physical interface and protocol for relatively low speed serial data communication between computers and relates devices.

2. USART provides a synchronous mode that is not in UART?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: Unlike a UART, USART offers the option of synchronous mode. In the program to program communication, the synchronous mode requires that each end of an exchange respond in turn without initiating a new communication.

3. Which of the following needs a clock?
a) Only Asynchronous
b) Only synchronous
c) Both synchronous and Asynchronous
d) Sometimes Synchronous

Answer: b
Clarification: Synchronous mode requires both data and clock. Asynchronous mode requires only data.

4. During receiving operation what does URXD have?
a) Positive edge
b) Negative edge
c) Level edge
d) Either raising or falling edge

Answer: a
Clarification: The receive operation is initiated by the receipt of a valid start bit. It consists of a negative edge at URXD, followed by the taking of majority vote from three samples, where 2 of the samples must be zero.

5. What is the timing of X?
a) 1/32 to 1/64 times of BRCKL
b) 1/42 to 1/63 times of BRCKL
c) 1/32 to 1/63 times of BRCKL
d) 1/32 to 1/56 times of BRCKL

Answer: c
Clarification: The timing of x is 1/32 to 1/63 of BRCLK, but at least BRCLK, depending on the division on the division rate of the baud rate generation.

6. The secondary implementation uses a fixed second clock divided which is divided by ______________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 32
d) 16

Answer: d
Clarification: The standard implementation uses a prescalar from any clock source and a fixed second clock divider which is usually a divided by 16.

7. The USART module supports ________ multiprocessor communication modes when the asynchronous mode is used.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) five

Answer: b
Clarification: These formats can be used to transfer information between many microcomputers on the same serial link. Information is transferred as a block of frames from a particular source to one or more destinations.

8. How many asynchronous multiprocessor protocols are present?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5

Answer: c
Clarification: Both asynchronous multiprocessor protocols, the idel line and the address bit microprocessor mode allow efficient data transfer between multiple communication systems.

9. Which bit in control register defines the address bit or idle line multiprocessor protocol mode?
a) MM
b) URXWIE
c) URXIE
d) RXWake

Answer: a
Clarification: The MM bit in control register defines the address bit or idle line multiprocessor protocol mode. Both formats use the wake up on transmitting, using the address feature function (TWWake bit), and on activating the RXWake bit.

10. In idle line multiprocessor mode, a precise idle period can be generated to create efficient address character identifiers.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Clarification: In idle line multiprocessor mode, a precise idle period can be generated to create efficient address character identifiers.

11. In synchronous operation characters must be provided on time if not ______ error occurs.
a) Overrun error
b) Underrun error
c) Framing error
d) Parity error

Answer: b
Clarification: USART in synchronous operation characters must be provided on time until a frame is complete, if the controlling processor does not do so, this is an underrun error, and transmission of the frame is aborted.

12. HDLC stands for ___________
a) High level Data Link Control
b) High level Data Level Control
c) High level Data Link Coordinator
d) High level Data Link Commutator

Answer: a
Clarification: ISO standard high level data link control synchronous link layer protocols, which were with synchronous voice frequency modems.

13. SDLC stands for ___________
a) Synchronous Data Link Control
b) Synchronous Data Level Control
c) Synchronous Data Level Coordinator
d) Synchronous Data Link Coordinator

Answer: a
Clarification: Synchronous Data Link Control synchronous link layer protocols, which were with synchronous voice frequency modems. These protocols were designed to make the best use of bandwidth when modems were analog devices.

14. STR stands for___________
a) Synchronous Transmit Rate
b) Synchronous Target Rate
c) Synchronous Target Receive
d) Synchronous Transmit Receive

Answer: d
Clarification: Synchronous Transmit Receive, which were with synchronous voice frequency modems. These protocols were designed to make the best use of bandwidth when modems were analog devices.

15. BSC stands for ____________
a) Binary Service Communication
b) Bandwidth Synchronous Communication
c) Binary Synchronous Communication
d) Bandwidth Service Communication

Answer: c
Clarification: Binary Synchronous Communication, which were with synchronous voice frequency modems. These protocols were designed to make the best use of bandwidth when modems were analog devices.